WA Year Two Systems study.

Question 1

The electric hydraulic pumps are AC or DC?

Answer 1

AC

Question 2

Which hydraulic pumps supply the highest volume of hydraulic fluid, electric or engine?

Answer 2

Electric (about four times as much)

Question 3

Where are the hydraulic fluid heat exchangers located?

Answer 3

Respective main fuel tanks.

Question 4

Minimum fuel in a main tank for operation of an electric hydraulic pump?

Answer 4

760kgs

Question 5

If a leak develops in the system A engine driven pump or its related lines, what will happen?

Answer 5

A standpipe in the reservoir prevents a total system fluid loss. With fluid level at the top of the standpipe, the reservoir quantity displayed indicates approximately 22% full (EIS) or 1/4 full (conventional). System A hydraulic pressure is maintained by the electric motor–driven pump

Question 6

If a leak develops in the system A electric driven pump or its related lines, what will happen?

Answer 6

If a leak develops in the electric motor–driven pump or its related lines, or components common to both the engine and electric motor–driven pumps, the quantity in the reservoir steadily decreases to zero and all system pressure is lost.

Question 7

If a leak develops in the system B engine driven pump or its related lines, what will happen?

Answer 7

If a leak develops in the engine–driven pump or its associated lines, the system B quantity decreases until it indicates approximately 40% full (EIS) 1/2 full (conventional). System pressure is maintained by the electric motor–driven pump.

Question 8

If a leak develops in the system B electric driven pump or its related lines, what will happen?

Answer 8

If a leak develops in the electric motor–driven pump or its associated lines, system B pressure is lost. However, fluid remaining in the system B reservoir is sufficient for power transfer unit operation.

Question 9

What is the purpose of the Power Transfer Unit?

Answer 9

To supply the additional volume of hydraulic fluid needed to operate the auto slats and leading edge flaps and slats when system B engine-driven hydraulic pump volume is lost.
It uses system A pressure to power a hydraulic motor pump, which pressurises system B hydraulic fluid.

Simplified: If you get an engine failure of no2, you can still operate the leading edge devices.

Question 10

When does the Power Transfer unit operate?

Answer 10

When all of the following conditions are met:

• aircraft is airborne
• system B engine driven pump pressure below limits
• flaps are less than 15 but not up

Question 11

What is the purpose of the Landing Gear Transfer Unit?

Answer 11

To supply pressurised hydraulic fluid needed to raise the landing gear at the normal rate when system A is lost due to No. 1 engine RPM loss. System B provides pressurised hydraulic fluid.

Question 12

What conditions are required of the Landing Gear Transfer Unit to operate?

Answer 12

• aircraft is airborne
• No.1 engine drops below a limit value
• LANDING GEAR lever is positioned UP
• either main landing gear is not up and locked

Question 13

The Standby Hydraulic System uses an electric motor to power which components?

Answer 13

• Thrust reversers
• Rudder
• Leading edge flaps and slats (extend only)

Question 14

What happens when you position either FLT CONTROL switch to STBY RUD?

Answer 14

• activates the standby electric motor–driven pump
• shuts off the related hydraulic system pressure to ailerons, elevators and rudder by closing the flight control shutoff valve
• opens the standby rudder shutoff valve
• deactivates the related flight control LOW PRESSURE light when the standby rudder shutoff valve opens
• allows the standby system to power the rudder and thrust reversers.
• illuminates the STBY RUD ON, Master Caution, and Flight Controls (FLT CONT) lights.

Simplified: It allows standby system to power the rudder.

Question 15

What happens when you position the ALTERNATE FLAPS switch to ARM?

Answer 15

• activates the standby electric motor–driven pump
• closes the trailing edge flap bypass valve
• arms the ALTERNATE FLAPS position switch
• allows the standby system to power the leading edge flaps and slats and thrust reversers.

Simplified: allows TE flaps to be electrically operated and allows LE devices to be operated by standby system.

Question 16

What conditions are required for automatic operation of the standby Hydraulic system?

Answer 16

• Loss of System A or B ,
  or rudder pressure reducer system fails in low pressure mode, and
• TE Flaps extended, and
• Airborne or wheel speed >60kts, and
• FLT CONTROL switch A or B Hyd system ON.
  OR
• Main PCU Force Fight Monitor trips.

Question 17

When the standby system is automatically turned on, what indications can you expect to see?

Answer 17

STBY RUD ON light

Master Caution - FLT CONT

Question 18

What happens in case of a standby hydraulic system leak?

Answer 18

Standby reservoir quantity reduces to zero.
LOW QUANTITY light illuminates when reservoir is approximately half empty.
System B continues to operate normally, but system B reservoir quantity reduces to approximately 64% full (EIS) or between 1/2 and RFL (conventional)

Question 19

When is the FEEL DIFF PRESS LIGHT armed?

Answer 19

When the trailing edge flaps are up (not on NG)

Question 20

What does the FEEL DIFF PRESS light tell you?

Answer 20

Excessive differential pressure in elevator feel computer

Question 21

What does SPEED TRIM FAIL light tell you?

Answer 21

indicates failure of the speed trim system
indicates failure of a single FCC channel when MASTER CAUTION
light recall is activated and light extinguishes when master caution system is reset.

Question 22

What does MACH TRIM FAIL light tell you?

Answer 22

indicates failure of the Mach trim system
indicates failure of a single FCC channel when MASTER CAUTION
light recall is activated and light extinguishes when master caution system is reset.

Question 23

What is the purpose of the speed trim system?

Answer 23

Improves flight characteristics during low speed flight with low gross weight, aft CG and engine RPM above 60% N1

Question 24

What does the stabilizer trim override switch do?

Answer 24

OVERRIDE – bypasses the control column actuated stabilizer trim cutout switches to restore power to the stabilizer trim switches

Question 25

During takeoff, at what speed does the rudder become aerodynamically effective?

Answer 25

40 - 60 kts

Question 26

Why should you not use aileron trim with the autopilot engaged?

Answer 26

If aileron trim is used with the autopilot engaged, the trim is not reflected in the control wheel position. The autopilot overpowers the trim and holds the control wheel where it is required for heading/track control. Any aileron trim applied when the autopilot is engaged can result in an out of trim condition and an abrupt rolling movement when the autopilot is disconnected.

Question 27

Which hydraulic pressure does the elevator feel system use?

Answer 27

Either A or B, whichever is higher

Question 28

Above what speed does Mach Trim become active?

Answer 28

Mach .615

Question 29

When do the main electric and autopilot stabilizer trim operate in high speed mode?

Answer 29

With flaps extended.

Question 30

What conditions are required for the Speed trim system to operate?

Answer 30

- Flaps not up - Airspeed 100 – 300 KIAS - 10 seconds after takeoff - 5 seconds following release of trim switches - N1 above 60% - Autopilot not engaged - Sensing of trim requirement

Question 31

The rudder pressure reducer is connected to which hydraulic system?

Answer 31

A

Question 32

The rudder pressure limiter is connected to which hydraulic system?

Answer 32

B

Question 33

The RPR and RPL limit hydraulic pressure to the rudder when full rudder authority is not required. What are the conditions required for this to occur and under what circumstances is hydraulic pressure returned to normal?

Answer 33

- Airplane climbs above 1000 feet AGL. Hydraulic pressure is returned to normal when the airplane descends through 700 feet AGL, or if B hydraulic system depressurizes, or whenever the N1 difference between the left and right engines exceeds 45%

Question 34

The Yaw Damper is powered by which hydraulic system?

Answer 34

B

Question 35

During landing, what conditions are required for the auto speedbrake system to deploy?

Answer 35

- SPEED BRAKE lever is in the ARMED position - SPEED BRAKE ARMED light is illuminated - both thrust levers are retarded to IDLE - main landing gear wheels spin–up (more than 60 kts) – SPEED BRAKE lever automatically moves to the UP position, and the flight spoilers deploy - right main landing gear strut compresses on touchdown, causing the mechanical linkage to open the ground spoiler bypass valve, and the ground spoilers deploy

Question 36

During an RTO, what conditions are required for auto speedbrake deployment?

Answer 36

- main landing gear wheels spin–up (more than 60 kts) - takeoff is rejected, both thrust levers are retarded to IDLE and the reverse thrust levers are positioned for reverse thrust – SPEED BRAKE lever automatically moves to the UP position and all spoilers deploy.

Question 37

How many LE flaps does the Classic have and where are they on the wing?

Answer 37

Four, inboard of engines.

Question 38

How many LE slats does the Classic have and where are they on the wing?

Answer 38

Six, outboard of the engines.

Question 39

The LE and TE flaps are normally powered by which hydraulic system?

Answer 39

B

Question 40

Beyond which flap lever position do the slats extend to fully extended position?

Answer 40

5

Question 41

(Classic) The flap load relief will retract the TE flaps to 30 if the airspeed exceeds which speed?

Answer 41

300: 158kts 400: 162kts

Question 42

(Classic) If the flap load relief has activated, below which speed will the TE flaps be extended back to 40?

Answer 42

300: 153kts 400: 157kts

Question 43

When using alternate flap extension, which system extends the leading edge devices and what drawbacks are there?

Answer 43

Standby hydraulic system. They cannot be retracted by the standby hydraulic system.

Question 44

Which hydraulic pumps do not have an overheat light and why?

Answer 44

Engine. They are mechanically (not electrically) driven and have very little heat rise so there is no need for an overheat warning.

Question 45

When you switch off an engine drive hydraulic pump, does the pump stop running?

Answer 45

No, a pressure relief bypass valve opens and takes fluid away from the pump.

Question 46

The 'refill' value on the hydraulic gauges is only valid when:

Answer 46

Aircraft is on ground with both engines shutdown or after landing with flaps up during taxi-in.

Question 47

What is the normal, minimum and maximum hydraulic system pressure?

Answer 47

Normal: 3000psi Minimum: 2800psi Maximum: 3500psi

Question 48

Which source of electrical power is required for fuel quantity indication?

Answer 48

AC

Question 49

What method ensures that centre tank fuel is used first?

Answer 49

The centre tank check valves open at a lower pressure than the main tank check valves.

Question 50

Is the crossfeed valve motor AC or DC? Which electrical bus provides the power?

Answer 50

DC. Battery Bus.

Question 51

Are the fuel shut off valves powered by AC or DC? Which electrical bus provides the power?

Answer 51

DC. Hot battery bus.

Question 52

Describe how the centre tank shut off valve works?

Answer 52

When both center tank fuel pump switches are turned OFF, the fuel scavenge shutoff valve opens. This allows fuel pressure from the main tank No. 1 forward pump to operate the center tank scavenge jet pump, which transfers the remaining center tank fuel to main tank No. 1. After 20 minutes, the fuel scavenge shutoff valve automatically closes.

Question 53

The fuel temperature indication displays fuel temperature in which tank? Does it use AC or DC power?

Answer 53

Tank no1 AC Power

Question 54

Fuel gauge accuracy for CL (digital and analog indicators)?

Answer 54

digital +/- 2.5% | analog +/- 3%

Question 55

How many wing and centre tank dripsticks does the Classic have?

Answer 55

Five in each wing, none in centre tank. | NG has 6 in each wing, 4 in centre tank

Question 56

What is normal brake accumulator precharge pressure?

Answer 56

1000PSI

Question 57

The tiller turns the nosewheel how many degrees each side?

Answer 57

78

Question 58

The rudder turns the nosewheel how many degrees each side?

Answer 58

7

Question 59

During main gear retraction, how is main gear rotation stopped?

Answer 59

The brakes apply automatically.

Question 60

Which hydraulic system pressurises the brake accumulator?

Answer 60

B

Question 61

If you lose both hydraulic systems, is antiskid still available?

Answer 61

yes

Question 62

What wheel speed must be reached for Autobrake RTO mode to be activated? (not applied)

Answer 62

60kts

Question 63

The autobrake RTO mode is automatically disarmed when which main gear strut extends?

Answer 63

Right

Question 64

When is the standby hydraulic LOW QUANTITY light armed?

Answer 64

Always

Question 65

When is the standby hydraulic LOW PRESSURE light armed?

Answer 65

When standby pump operation is activated.

Question 66

How can you tell if the RPR or RPL has failed?

Answer 66

No flight deck indication. It will be noticed on the next maintenance inspection.

Question 67

You get the SPEEDBRAKES EXTENDED light whilst in flight. What, basically is this telling you?

Answer 67

That the speedbrakes are extended in approach configuration.