WBC and Complement System Flashcards by Mind Med

Which characteristic best distinguishes innate immunity from adaptive immunity?
A. Presence of immunologic memory
B. High specificity for antigens
C. Rapid response within minutes to hours
D. Dependence on antigen presentation

C. Rapid response within minutes to hours

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Which cell type participates in both innate immunity and antigen presentation?
A. B lymphocyte
B. Neutrophil
C. Dendritic cell
D. Plasma cell

C. Dendritic cell

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Which feature is exclusive to adaptive immunity?
A. Recognition of PAMPs
B. Use of phagocytosis
C. Persistent immunologic memory
D. Immediate response to infection

C. Persistent immunologic memory

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Natural killer cells are classified under which immune system?
A. Adaptive only
B. Innate only
C. Both innate and adaptive
D. Neither innate nor adaptive

B. Innate only

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The primary targets of neutrophils are:
A. Viruses and cancer cells
B. Parasites
C. Bacteria and fungi
D. Allergens

C. Bacteria and fungi

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Neutrophil extracellular traps (NETs) are composed primarily of:
A. Actin filaments
B. Mitochondrial DNA
C. Nuclear contents
D. Complement proteins

C. Nuclear contents

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Formation of NETs is best described as:
A. Reversible degranulation
B. A phagocytosis-independent killing mechanism
C. An antibody-mediated process
D. A non-lethal response

B. A phagocytosis-independent killing mechanism

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Which WBC is most effective against parasites too large to be phagocytosed?
A. Neutrophil
B. Eosinophil
C. Basophil
D. Monocyte

B. Eosinophil

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Eosinophil granules are rich in:
A. Perforins
B. Histamine
C. Lysozymes and cationic proteins
D. Complement factors

C. Lysozymes and cationic proteins

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Eosinophils are notably increased in:
A. Viral infections
B. Bacterial sepsis
C. Allergic responses
D. Autoimmune disorders

C. Allergic responses

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Which WBC is the rarest in circulation?
A. Eosinophil
B. Basophil
C. Monocyte
D. Mast cell

B. Basophil

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Basophils primarily contribute to inflammation by releasing:
A. Antibodies
B. Cytotoxins
C. Histamine
D. Reactive oxygen species

C. Histamine

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Which enzyme is found in basophil granules?
A. Myeloperoxidase
B. β-glucuronidase
C. NADPH oxidase
D. Superoxide dismutase

B. β-glucuronidase

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Mast cells are best described as:
A. Circulating phagocytes
B. Tissue-resident inflammatory cells
C. Adaptive immune cells
D. Antibody-producing cells

B. Tissue-resident inflammatory cells

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Mast cell activation occurs via all EXCEPT:
A. IgE cross-linking
B. DAMPs
C. PAMPs
D. MHC class I

D. MHC class I

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Monocytes differentiate into which cell type upon entering tissues?
A. Dendritic cells
B. Mast cells
C. Macrophages
D. Plasma cells

C. Macrophages

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Which function is NOT associated with macrophages?
A. Phagocytosis
B. Antigen presentation
C. Antibody synthesis
D. Cytokine secretion

C. Antibody synthesis

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Macrophage detection of microbes is mediated by:
A. Fc receptors
B. Toll-like receptors
C. MHC class II
D. Immunoglobulins

B. Toll-like receptors

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Angiogenic cytokines released by macrophages primarily function to:
A. Induce apoptosis
B. Suppress immunity
C. Stimulate new blood vessel formation
D. Activate complement

C. Stimulate new blood vessel formation

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CD4⁺ T cells primarily function to:
A. Kill infected cells
B. Produce antibodies
C. Release cytokines
D. Perform phagocytosis

C. Release cytokines

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CD8⁺ T cells initiate apoptosis through:
A. ROS release
B. Perforins and cytotoxins
C. Antibody secretion
D. Histamine release

B. Perforins and cytotoxins

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B cells are activated when:
A. They encounter free antigen alone
B. APCs present antigen to their receptors
C. They detect missing MHC I
D. Complement binds directly

B. APCs present antigen to their receptors

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Natural killer cells detect target cells by recognizing:
A. Antigen-MHC II complexes
B. Absent or altered MHC I
C. Bacterial polysaccharides
D. Antibody Fc regions

B. Absent or altered MHC I

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NK cells differ from CD8⁺ T cells because NK cells:
A. Require antigen presentation
B. Are always active unless inhibited
C. Only kill virus-infected cells
D. Use antibodies to recognize targets

B. Are always active unless inhibited

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MHC class I molecules are present on: A. All cells B. Only APCs C. All nucleated cells and platelets D. RBCs only

C. All nucleated cells and platelets

RBCs lack MHC because they are: A. Immature B. Terminally differentiated C. Anucleated D. Phagocytosed

C. Anucleated

MHC class I presents which type of antigens? A. Extracellular B. Phagocytosed C. Intracellular D. Antibody-bound

C. Intracellular

Which cell kills targets that lack normal MHC I expression? A. CD4⁺ T cell B. B cell C. NK cell D. Macrophage

C. NK cell

MHC class II is found on: A. All nucleated cells B. Neutrophils only C. APCs such as macrophages and dendritic cells D. NK cells

C. APCs such as macrophages and dendritic cells

The first step in acute inflammation is: A. Complement activation B. Antibody production C. Tissue damage and pathogen entry D. NK cell activation

C. Tissue damage and pathogen entry

Which mediator facilitates fluid accumulation at inflamed sites? A. Chemokines B. Histamine C. Leukotrienes D. Interferons

B. Histamine

Neutrophil migration through blood vessel walls is called: A. Chemotaxis B. Opsonization C. Diapedesis D. Phagolysosome formation

C. Diapedesis

Complement proteins may be activated: A. Only at the end of inflammation B. Only after antibody formation C. As early as the initial trigger D. Only during adaptive immunity

C. As early as the initial trigger

Which complement fragment is a potent chemotactic factor? A. C3b B. C4b C. C5a D. C1q

C. C5a

Chemotaxis is mediated primarily through: A. Ion channels B. Nuclear receptors C. G-protein coupled receptors D. Tyrosine kinases

C. G-protein coupled receptors

Opsonization enhances phagocytosis by: A. Killing microbes directly B. Coating pathogens for easier recognition C. Activating NK cells D. Producing ROS

B. Coating pathogens for easier recognition

Which step involves formation of the phagosome? A. Antigen presentation B. Cell-surface receptor binding C. Engulfment of pathogen D. Exocytosis of debris

C. Engulfment of pathogen

Hydrolytic enzymes and defensins are released into the: A. Cytosol B. Phagosome C. Nucleus D. Extracellular matrix

B. Phagosome

The primary electron donor for ROS production is: A. FADH₂ B. NADH C. NADPH D. ATP

C. NADPH

Which enzyme catalyzes superoxide formation? A. Myeloperoxidase B. Superoxide dismutase C. NADPH oxidase D. Catalase

C. NADPH oxidase

Superoxide dismutase converts superoxide into: A. HOCl B. H₂O₂ and O₂ C. OH⁻ D. Chloramines

B. H₂O₂ and O₂

Myeloperoxidase is abundant in: A. Eosinophils B. Basophils C. Neutrophil granules D. Plasma cells

C. Neutrophil granules

Hypochlorous acid (HOCl) is best described as: A. A weak oxidant B. An antibody C. The active ingredient in bleach D. An anaphylatoxin

C. The active ingredient in bleach

Greenish color of pus is due to: A. Chloramines B. Myeloperoxidase C. Hemoglobin breakdown D. Bilirubin

B. Myeloperoxidase

Complement proteins are best classified as: A. Active enzymes B. Hormones C. Zymogens D. Structural proteins

C. Zymogens

The ultimate goal of complement activation is formation of the: A. Phagolysosome B. C3 convertase C. Membrane attack complex D. Antibody complex

C. Membrane attack complex

The MAC primarily causes: A. Opsonization B. Chemotaxis C. Cell lysis D. Antibody synthesis

C. Cell lysis

Which pathway requires antigen–antibody complexes? A. Alternative B. Lectin C. Classical D. All pathways

C. Classical

Which pathway is antibody-independent and begins with C3 hydrolysis? A. Classical B. Lectin C. Alternative D. Terminal

C. Alternative

Mannose-binding lectin initiates which pathway? A. Classical B. Lectin C. Alternative D. MAC

B. Lectin

The common convergence point of classical and lectin pathways is: A. C1 activation B. C3 convertase formation C. C5 cleavage D. MAC assembly

B. C3 convertase formation

Which complement fragments act as anaphylatoxins? A. C3b and C4b B. C3a and C5a C. C5b and C9 D. C1q and C2a

B. C3a and C5a

C3b C4b primarily functions as: A. A chemoattractant B. An opsonin C. A protease D. A receptor

B. An opsonin

Anaphylatoxins enhance inflammation by stimulating release of: A. Cytotoxins B. Antibodies C. Histamine D. ROS

C. Histamine

Which cell type are the first responders of the immune system? A. Macrophages B. Neutrophil C. Dendritic cell D. Plasma cell

B. Neutrophil

Which cell type contains lysozymes with hydrolytic enzymes and cationic proteins? A. Macrophages B. Neutrophil C. Mast cell D. Eosinophils

D. Eosinophils

Which cell type releases angiogenic cytokines? A. Macrophages B. Neutrophil C. Mast cell D. Eosinophils

A. Macrophages

Dependent on APCs a. T cells b. B cells c. Innate Lymphoid cells

b. B cells

always activated, hence it has to be Inactivated when it detects a normal MHC presentation a. T cells b. B cells c. Innate Lymphoid cells d. NK cells

d. NK cells

check for cells which do not display correct MHC proteins and trigger their apoptosis a. T cells b. B cells c. Innate Lymphoid cells d. NK cells

d. NK cells

Activated by a bad MHC I a. T cells b. B cells c. Innate Lymphoid cells d. NK cells

a. T cells

Inactivated by a normal MHC I a. T cells b. B cells c. Innate Lymphoid cells d. NK cells

d. NK cells

Used by CD4+ cells to present to immune cells a. MHC class I b. MHC class II

b. MHC class II

Found on all nucleated cells and on platelets a. MHC class I b. MHC class II

a. MHC class I

deficient in chronic granulomatous disease a. Myeloperoxidase b. NADPH oxidase c. Lysozyme d. Defensins e. Lactoferrin

b. NADPH oxidase

component of respiratory burst a. Myeloperoxidase b. NADPH oxidase c. Lysozyme d. Defensins e. Lactoferrin

b. NADPH oxidase

kills bacteria by causing membrane damage a. Myeloperoxidase b. NADPH oxidase c. Lysozyme d. Defensins e. Lactoferrin

d. Defensins

inhibit bacterial growth by binding iron a. Myeloperoxidase b. NADPH oxidase c. Lysozyme d. Defensins e. Lactoferrin

e. Lactoferrin

used in synthesis of superoxide a. Superoxide dismutase b. NADPH oxidase

b. NADPH oxidase

used in synthesis of hydrogen peroxide a. Superoxide dismutase b. NADPH oxidase

a. Superoxide dismutase

Present in large amounts in neutrophil granules a. Myeloperoxidase b. NADPH oxidase c. Lysozyme d. Defensins e. Lactoferrin

a. Myeloperoxidase

In the complement system, the light chain attach to ____, heavy chain attach to _____ a. bacteria, bacteria b. bacteria, WBC c. WBC, bacteria d. WBC, WBC

b. bacteria, WBC

Select one of the following statements that is NOT CORRECT: a. Phagocytes destroy ingested bacteria using reactive oxygen species and hydrolytic enzymes. b. Chronic granulomatous disease is caused by a deficiency in myeloperoxidase activity. c. NADPH serves as the primary source of electrons for generating ROS during the oxidative burst.

b. Chronic granulomatous disease is caused by a deficiency in myeloperoxidase activity.

Select one of the following statements that is NOT CORRECT: a. Activated leukocytes secrete lipid mediators called interferons. b. Neutrophils facilitate the production of protective antibodies by presenting fragments of phagocytized microbes on their surface in association with the MHC. c. Cytotoxic T cells use perforins to lyse infected cells

a. Activated leukocytes secrete lipid mediators called interferons.

The following White Blood Cells use phagocytosis as their mode of action in response to infections except for: a. Neutrophils b. Eosinophils c. Hofbauer Cells d. Basophils

d. Basophils

Which process is increased during leukocyte-mediated phagocytic action on bacteria? a. Chemotaxis b. Neutralization c. Opsonization d. Respiratory burst

d. Respiratory burst

What is the underlying cause of a patient who is presented with recurrent nasal mucopurulent discharge, diarrhea, and lymphadenopathy resulting in chronic granulomatous disease? a. Decreased production of gelatinase b. Diminished production of ROS c. Deficiency of myeloperoxidase d. Inactivation of a-1 antitrypsin

b. Diminished production of ROS

WBC and Complement System Flashcards

(77 cards)