WEEK 3 Flashcards by Mike Triolo

Modem content fires have spurred the FDNY to issue a Ventilation Bulletin. Which point
found in the Glossary is correct? (Glossary)
(A) Auto-exposure is the extension of fire via the exterior of the building from a fire originating
in an adjoining building.
(B) The Fully Developed Stage is the stage of fire development which has reached its peak heat
release rate, usually occurring after flashover.
(C) Rollover occurs in the incipient stage. When observed at the ceiling level, it usually
indicates that the fire is beginning to diminish.
(D) Flow path is the movement of heat and smoke from the lower pressure within the fire area
towards the higher pressure accessible via doors, window openings and roof structures.
(E) Ventilation is the controlled and coordinated removal of heat and smoke from a structure,
replacing the escaping gases with fresh air. This exchange is bi-directional with heat and smoke
exhausting at the bottom and air flowing in towards the fire at the top.

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Modem content fires follow a different progression than the traditional fire development
curve. Which choice concerning modem content fires is incorrect? (Sec. 2.1.6)
(A) A rapid growth stage that consumes the available oxygen very quickly follows the incipient
stage.
(B) Since modem content fires rapidly consume the available oxygen within the fire area, they
enter into an earlier oxygen limited Decay stage when compared to legacy fires, and will remain
in the Decay stage if no additional oxygen is added to the fire area.
(C) When units encounter an earlier Decay stage, they shall perform rapid horizontal
ventilation of the fire apartment to remove the smoke.
(D) If additional oxygen is admitted to a fire area that is in an earlier Decay stage, the fire can
enter into a rapid second Growth stage, followed by a ventilation induced flashover and
transition into the fully developed stage.
(E) A second Decay stage will follow the fully developed stage as the fuel load is depleted or
the fire is extinguished.

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Several developments in firefighting equipment and modem building construction have affected ventilation tactics. Which choice is incorrect concerning these changes? (Sec. 3.1)
(A) Energy efficient building construction results in increased heat release rates and convective heat along the flow path from the area. Convective heat is absorbed by members PPE at a rate faster than radiant heat.
(B) PPE was not designed to allow members to go further within a fire area; it was designed to protect members in the event conditions transitioned to an untenable situation.
(C) Units equipped with Thermal Imaging Cameras must carry and use them at all structural fires.
(D) Until a charged hoseline is available to advance on the fire, it is critical to maintain control of the entrance doorway to the fire occupancy, unless there is a known life hazard.

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The Ventilation Profile is the appearance of the fire building’s ventilation points showing
the flow paths of heat and smoke out of the structure as well as any air movement into the
structure. Which point about the Ventilation Profile is incorrect? (Sec. 4.1)
(A) Smoke or fire movement is normally downward, horizontally or pulsing from an opening in
the building.
(B) With modem content fires, it is no longer accurate to assume that the absence of smoke
pushing from a building is a positive sign.
(C) With modem content fires, heavy flames out the window are usually an indicator of high
heat and smoke conditions within the interior.
(D) The more that venting flames fill the open window at modem content fires, the more
members can anticipate severe interior conditions.

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The OV FF from Ladder 100 is on the rear fire escape in position to perform ventilation of
the fire apartment windows as Engine 200 stretches a hoseline to the fire apartment. When
would the OV FF be permitted to perform horizontal ventilation of the fire apartment?
(Sec. 7.1, 7.2, 10.2.1, 11.4)
(A) Upon hearing that Engine 200 was entering the fire area with a charged hoseline.
(B) When the Officer of Engine 200 called for water.
(C) When the Officer of Ladder 100 granted permission.
(D) Upon hearing that the door to the fire area was controlled.
(E) When the Officer of Engine 200 requested ventilation be performed.

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While conducting a search for a reported missing occupant while the first Engine Company
arrived on scene, Lt. Green encountered a high heat condition in a front bedroom while using a
Thermal Imaging Camera. What would be an incorrect action for Lt. Green to take? (Sec.
8.1)
(A) Immediately exit the front bedroom and shut the door to the bedroom.
(B) Notify the OV FF to delay performing horizontal ventilation of the front bedroom.
(C) Request that the Engine Company advance a charged hoseline into the front bedroom.
(D) Immediately order the Inside Team to exit the fire apartment and request the OV FF to
perform horizontal ventilation of the front bedroom to cool the room.

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The Roof FF may break the skylight over the interior stairs at a fire in a Brownstone in all
but which one of the following choices? (Sec. 10.2.1)
(A) After communicating with and receiving approval from the Ladder Company Officer
operating inside the fire area to be vented.
(B) Only when the Incident Commander gives approval.
(C) Upon hearing a HT transmission that the interior team has door control on the fire floor.
(D) Upon hearing a HT transmission that a charged hoseline is advancing into the fire
apartment.

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In which choice were proper procedures followed regarding horizontal ventilation for
search and extinguishment? (Sec. 11.2, 11.4, 12.1)
(A) The OV FF performed ventilation for extinguishment of the fire apartment upon hearing
the HT transmission of the Engine Officer requesting the ECC to start water.
(B) The OV FF ventilated the windows in the fire room upon hearing the Engine Officer notify
the IC that they were knocking down visible fire.
(C) After performing his initial duties at a fire on the 3
rd
floor of a 4 story OLT, the 1
st Roof FF
contacted his Officer and requested permission to ventilate the top floor rear apartment from the
fire escape.
(D) Prior to performing ventilation of the fire apartment from the front fire escape of a NLT,
the 1st
arriving OV FF contacted his Officer via HT and requested permission.
(E) Prior to performing ventilation for search in the fire apartment, the l
sl OV FF contacted the
IC to request permission to enter.

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A member would be required to team up with another member before performing
ventilation for search in which choice? (Sec. 12.2, 12.3, 12.3.1)
(A) A member in a TL bucket sees a civilian in a front bedroom.
(B) The OV FF, operating on a rear fire escape, hears a person coughing in a medium smoke
condition on the floor above the fire.
(C) A member ascends a portable ladder to the apartment above the fire and sees through heavy
smoke that the lights and the television are on.
(D) Upon arrival, the Engine Officer is met by a civilian who states that her mother is still in
the fire apartment.
(E) The Dispatcher contacts the first arriving Engine Company via Department radio and tells
the Officer that they are on the phone with an occupant of the fire apartment, who is non�ambulatory and unable to evacuate.

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BC Question - If individual action (member entered alone for search) was taken in all of
the choices in Question #9, how many situations would require the IC to forward a report to the
Chief of Operations detailing full particulars? (Sec. 12.3, 12.3.1)
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5

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While conducting a drill on Ventilation for Search, Capt. Jones made several statements.
Which one was incorrect? (Sec. 12.6)
(A) The Ladder Company Officer shall be notified when a search team enters from the exterior
to conduct a search for a known life hazard or for standard search procedures.
(B) If the Ladder Company Officer and the interior team have quicker access to the victim or
area requiring a search, the Ladder Officer may disapprove the entry to search.
(C) Upon completion of clearing a window in order to search, before entering, reassess the
smoke and heat conditions to determine if area is tenable.
(D) If a victim is found prior to isolating the room, the victim shall be immediately removed
from the IDLH. Isolating the room is only required if a victim is not found.

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The best lifesaving tactic we have is a systematic search plan, coupled with rapid water on
the fire. Choose the incorrect point concerning searches conducted in the modem fire
environment. (Sec. 2.1, 2.2, 3.1, 4.5, 4.6)
(A) Synthetic materials have a higher heat release rate, giving off heat more quickly than
ordinary combustibles.
(B) With modem synthetic contents and new building construction, conditions may become
untenable in as little as 1 ‘A minutes after entry (ventilation).
(C) A search of a building is conducted for the purpose of locating people only.
(D) Prior to reaching the fire floor, a survey can be conducted of the floor below to determine
the interior hallway layout, floor plan of the apartment, apartment numbering system, and closest
means of access to a fire apartment.
(E) Members of the outside team must report wind conditions and its effect on the fire and
smoke conditions to their Officer and the IC.

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Size-up starts with the receipt of the alarm. Which point about size-up performed at
different types of occupancies is incorrect? (Sec. 4.7)
(A) ft can be assumed there will be a large number of sleeping occupants in a multiple dwelling
at night.
(B) Commercial buildings may have watchmen or cleaning personnel working after normal
business hours.
(C) Commercial loft buildings may have been converted into residential buildings.
(D) Office buildings often have cleaning and maintenance people present day and night.
Computer personnel are often present 24 hours a day.
(E) When taxpayers have roll down security doors with padlocks in place, assume that no one
is present inside.

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Upon arriving at the fire apartment on the 3
rd
floor of a Row Frame multiple dwelling, the
Inside Team of Ladder 100 forces entry to the apartment and begins a primary search for life.
Which thought was incorrect? (Sec. 6.1,6.3, 6.4)
(A) The primary search is rapid but thorough and systematic, and should be performed quickly.
(B) If entry can be made and members can conduct a search without the protection of a
hoseline, the members may attempt to locate and contain the fire area of origin, and then start the
search for life from that point.
(C) If untenable, members shall move in behind the engine company advance and search from
behind the hoseline.
(D) The search for life in the areas adjacent to or above the fire area/floor should start after
searching for the extension of fire

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Upon conclusion of operations at a fire in a Brownstone building, the IC conducted a
critique. Which statement made concerning secondary searches should be corrected?
(Sec. 7.1, 7.2, 7.3)
(A) If the Forcible Entry team of Ladder 200 performed the primary search of the fire
apartment, it is permissible for the LCC and OV FF from Ladder 200 to perform the secondary
search of the fire apartment.
(B) A secondary search shall be completed before any extensive overhauling of the fire area is
attempted.
(C) The secondary search is a thorough and painstakingly complete search for life of all areas
that required a primary search. Time is not as important as accuracy.
(D) The secondary search must also include the entire outside perimeter of the building and all
shafts, basements, cellars, elevators and roofs.

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After the Ladder Company Officer ordered the Forcible Entry Team to force the main door
that the occupants use, he considered several points. Which one was correct? (Sec. 9.5,
9.6, 9.8)
(A) If the fire is wrapping around the door jamb as the door is being forced open, a hoseline
must be called for before the door is opened.
(B) The area in the vicinity of, and behind, the entrance door must be checked as soon as entry
is made.
(C) Upon entering the occupancy, place a small sure search door marker around the interior
door knob only to prevent the door from locking while permitting easy removal.
(D) Upon entering an IDLH area, members can begin the search in an upright stance if
conditions are not severe

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Ladder 90 arrives at the entrance door to the fire apartment, located on the 4th floor of a 5
story OLT. Engine 30, the first due engine, is delayed due to Building Inspection and
arrives on scene as Ladder 90 is forcing entry to the fire apartment.
6. Ladder 90 operated incorrectly in which choice? (Sec. 9.10.1)
(A) Prior to entering the fire apartment, the Officer of Ladder 90 notified the IC and Officer of
Engine 30 the identity of the fire apartment. The Officer notified the IC and the Officer of
Engine 30 that the door was being maintained closed.
(B) The Forcible Entry FF of Ladder 90 was ordered to remain at the door inside the fire
apartment, and to maintain the door closed but not locked.
(C) The Hydra Ram was brought inside the fire apartment after forcing entry, in case the door
was accidentally locked.
(D) When the members of Ladder 90 Inside Team were forced to evacuate the fire apartment,
the Forcible Entry FF accounted for the interior team and closed the door after all members had
exited the fire apartment.

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When Engine 30 arrives at the door to the fire apartment with a charged hoseline, the
Officer of Engine 30 would be operating properly in which choice? (Sec. 9.10.1)
(A) He notified the Officer of Ladder 90 that Engine 30 had a charged line and then entered the
fire apartment.
(B) He notified the Officer of Ladder 90 that Engine 30 had a charged line and then entered
when the Officer of Ladder 90 acknowledged the transmission.
(C) He notified the Officer of Ladder 90 that Engine 90 had a charged line and was ready to
enter the fire apartment, but did not enter until the Officer of Ladder 90 acknowledged and
approved.
(D) He notified the Forcible Entry FF at the door that Engine 30 had a charged line and then
entered the fire apartment.

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While teaching a new member the proper way to VEIS through a window, Capt. Tom made
several statements. Which one was correct? (Sec. 9.11, 9.12)
(A) Prior to entering a window to perform a search, a member shall notify the IC.
(B) Before entering, probe for possible victims and then check the floor for stability.
(C) If possible, clear out only the lower window pane in order to limit the flow path.
(D) Immediately upon entering the room from a window, members should close the door to the
room

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Company Officers must evaluate the risk of going above a fire without a protective
hoseline and determine the benefits and consequences. In which choice did the 2
nd arriving
Ladder Company Officer not operate correctly at a fire with reported people trapped on the floor
above the fire? (Sec. 10.1, 10.2, 10.3, 10.5, 10.6)
(A) After notifying the 1
st Ladder Company Officer via HT that they were proceeding to the
floor above, she ascended the stairs without receiving acknowledgement due to heavy radio
traffic.
(B) She ensured that members got up and off the stairs immediately.
(C) Upon reaching the floor above the fire, she ordered the Forcible Entry team to force the
door to the apartment adjacent to the apartment over the fire to provide an area of refuge.
(D) Upon hearing an “Urgent” HT transmission that the 1
st Engine Company had a burst length
and the fire was burning out of control, she ordered members to return to the fire floor prior to
determining if the fire had extended.

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All of the following points concerning searches are correct with the exception of which
one? (Sec. 12.4, 12.7)
(A) A locked bathroom door is usually an indication that someone is inside.
(B) If a room has a padlock on it, assume it is unoccupied.
(C) When forcing an apartment door, if the night latch chain is in place, this indicates a strong
possibility that victims will be present.
(D) Ensure that all interior walls of a closet are touched when searching the closet floor. This
will ensure the search reaches the back of the closet.

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When members have located a victim, they must transmit signal 10-45 and remove the
victim via the safest route available. Which choice shows the correct priority order of removal?
(Sec. 13.2)
Fire Escape
Ladders
Life Saving Rope
Interior Stairs
Horizontal Exits
(A) 1,2, 3, 4, 5
(B) 4,5, 1,2,3
(C) 4, 5, 1,3, 2
(D) 5, 4, 3, 2,1

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BC Question - Which choice is correct concerning the transmission of injuries to members
on the Department radio? (Sec. 8.2.5, 8.2.6, Safety Bulletin 7 Sec. 2.1.3)
(A) The name and unit number of a member with a first degree bum on their arm may be
transmitted after requesting “Mixer off.”
(B) The unit number of a member who suffered a minor abrasion may be transmitted after
requesting “Mixer off.” The name of a member may never be transmitted on the Department
radio.
(C) Initial notification to the Dispatcher of a member who has suffered third degree bums to
their knees shall be made by a telephone call to the Dispatcher, and shall not include the name or
unit of the member. Injuries of this nature shall not be transmitted on the Department radio.
(D) When a member has suffered a serious injury, particulars shall be telephoned to the Fire
Department Operations Center. As soon as possible thereafter, the dispatcher shall be notified
via a “Mixer off’ message, followed immediately by a telephone notification to the Dispatcher
with full particulars.
(E) When an on-duty member has suffered a serious injury, the signal 10-45 must be
transmitted as soon as possible via Department radio after requesting “Mixer off.”

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Engine 300, a Queens unit, attempts to transmit a 10-18 for a rubbish fire that they have
extinguished. After the first call is not acknowledged within 30 seconds, the Officer attempts to
repeat the call and contact the Queens Dispatcher a second time. If the second call is not
acknowledged, what would be a correct action to take? (Sec. 8.4.2)

(A) Assume the apparatus radio is inoperative and transmit the message from the Ladder
Company apparatus on scene.
(B) Attempt to contact the Queens Dispatcher a third time from the Engine 300 apparatus.
(C) After attempting to contact the Queens Dispatcher for a third time from the Engine 300
apparatus, and not receiving a response, switch to the Citywide Dispatcher and attempt to
transmit the 10-18.
(D) After attempting to contact the Queens Dispatcher for a third time from the Engine 300
apparatus, and not receiving a response, immediately call the Queens Dispatcher via telephone.

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3. It is extremely important for members to know the restrictions on using various communication devices at incidents involving or possibly involving explosives. Which choice is incorrect? (Sec. 8.4.5) (A) Handie-Talkies shall not be used within 150 feet of vehicles transporting explosives, explosive magazines, areas where blasting operations are in progress, or at emergencies for reported explosive devices. (B) Handie-Talkies shall not be operated in a building where police personnel are searching for an explosive device. (C) Cell phones shall not be used within 300 feet of vehicles transporting explosives, explosive magazines, areas where blasting operations are in progress, or at emergencies for reported explosive devices. (D) Apparatus, Post and Marine radios shall not be operated within 300 feet of vehicles transporting explosives, explosive magazines, areas where blasting operations are in progress, or at emergencies for reported explosive devices.

4. If the transmitting button on the apparatus radio is depressed for longer than , an audible signal will alert the user that the transmission has been automatically interrupted. To transmit a lengthy message, it is necessary to release and re-depress the transmitting button at intervals ofor less. (Sec. 8.4.6) (A) 30 seconds (B) 45 seconds (C) One minute (D) Two minutes

5. A young Firefighter making entries in their training notebook asks the Officer for an explanation of several radio signals. Which one was correct? (p. 7-8) (A) 10-8 Code 1 is used by an Engine or Ladder Company to indicate it is in-service by radio when leaving a quarters other than its own at which it had been off the air and to which its alarms had been routed. (B) 10-8 Code 2 is used by any unit to indicate it is on air outside its response area. When the unit returns to its response area, the dispatcher must be notified again using 10-8. (C) A 10-14 signal is used when an Engine or Ladder Company is staffed with 4 Firefighters is assigned to a structural response. (D) Only a Chief Officer can transmit a 10-18 or 10-19 signal. (E) When a 10-20 signal is transmitted, sirens shall not be used, but warning lights shall remain on.

6. At 0300 hours, a Brooklyn Engine Company extinguishes a fire in an abandoned auto with front and rear New Jersey license plates that has no value other than salvage. What would be the proper signals to transmit? (p. 8, 9) (A) 10-23,10-41-1 (B) 10-24, 10-41-2 (C) 10-24, 10-41-3 (D) 10-23, 10-41-3

7. In which of the following manhole or transformer fires or emergencies was the proper signal transmitted? (p. 8) (A) 10-25 Code 1 for a fire that has blown three manhole covers. (B) 10-25 Code 2 for smoke seeping from a manhole. (C) 10-25 Code 3 for a transformer fire that has extended to the building. (D) 10-25 Code 4 for smoke issuing from a transformer

8. At which incident in the NYC Subway System was the wrong signal transmitted? (p. 8-9) (A) 10-28-1 for a newsstand fire in an underground station. (B) 10-28-2 for a train fire on an elevated track. (C) 10-28-3 for a person who fell while exiting a train and sprained their ankle. (D) 10-28-3 for an overheated ballast in a light fixture near the MetroCard machine.

9. The proper signal to transmit at stuck occupied elevator would be? (p. 9, 11, 12, 23) (A) 10-31 (B) 10-37-4 (C) 10-40-2 (D) 10-91

0. A recently promoted Lieutenant working in Manhattan had several runs on the 6x9 tour. In which one did she transmit the incorrect signal? (p. 9-10) (A) 10-34-2 for a surge in pressure resulting in a valve alarm for a sprinkler system. (B) 10-35-3 for a smoke detector activation in a high rise office building caused by construction workers creating sheetrock dust. (C) 10-35-1 for an alarm activation when the Fire Safety Director was performing a test of the alarm system. (D) 10-35-4 for a smoke detector activation caused by office workers smoking in the stairwell. (E) 10-40-2 for a Class E alarm activation caused by an electric power fluctuation.

11. Units responded to a three vehicle accident on the FDR drive that was blocking all of the northbound lanes. All of the involved vehicles were occupied by the driver only. One of the vehicles involved caught fire, and the driver, who was trapped and had to be extricated, suffered serious, life threatening injuries. The drivers of the other two vehicles suffered non-serious, non�life threatening injuries and were able to remove themselves from their vehicles. After transmitting a 10-84, 10-44, and 10-47, which choice contains the correct signals transmitted at this incident? (p. 11-13) (A) 10-36-2, 10-37-2 only (B) 10-36-4, 10-37-3, 10-45-2 (C) 10-36-3, 10-37-3, only (D) 10-36-2,10-37-2,10-45-3

12. After responding to a reported odor of gas, members discovered a defective gas clothes dryer, and the only occupant of the residence was found unconscious and required resuscitation by members. Although the CO detectors found in the building, including the detector in the bedroom where the victim was found, did not activate, members obtained readings of 900 PPM on their CO detectors. Which signal would not be transmitted? (p. 11-12) (A) 10-38-1 (B) 10-38-4 (C) 10-37-2 (D) 10-40-1

13. BC Question - While returning to quarters after supervising units extinguishing a rubbish fire at an unoccupied, building under construction, the BC receives a call on the Battalion cell phone from the 1 st Ladder Company Officer who states that they are still on scene and located a gas can that he thinks was used as an accelerant at the rubbish fire. Which action taken would be correct? (p. 12) (A) Immediately transmit a 10-41-2 via the Department Radio. (B) Immediately notify the Dispatcher and Bureau of Fire Investigation, by telephone that the fire has been declared suspicious. (C) Notify the Dispatcher only via a “Mixer off’ message that the fire has been declared suspicious. (D) Notify the Bureau of Fire Investigation via the 800 Mhz radio that the fire has been declared suspicious.

14. BC Question - At the scene of fire operations, the signal 10-45 shall be transmitted upon the discovery of any fatality or injured civilians as a result of the fire operation. The IC shall then have this information transmitted over the Department radio as soon as possible. Choose the incorrect point concerning this signal. (p. 11, 13) (A) When the Medical Group Supervisor confirms that the patient is an Orange tag, transmit a 10-45 Code 3. (B) Other than to address any patient number discrepancies, the 10-45 shall not be cancelled once it is transmitted. (C) Signal 10-45 with appropriate sub-code shall be transmitted in lieu of signal 10-37 for thermal burn injuries which occur as a direct result of heat from a flame. (D) Signal 10-45-2 shall be transmitted for a Con Ed worker who suffered life threatening steam bums while working on a ruptured steam pipe, after EMS classifies him as a Red Tag patient.

15. The 10-70 signal indicates that water supply is required. Which choice concerning this signal is incorrect? (p. 18) (A) It shall be transmitted by any engine on the first alarm that is unable to access a hydrant, hookup to a hydrant, or encounters a dead or frozen hydrant. (B) Transmission of the 10-70 signal requires an “urgent” message to the dispatcher and an “urgent” HT transmission to all units on scene. (C) When a 10-70 is transmitted, the 2 nd arriving engine will be designated as the “Water Resource Unit” . (D) When a reliable and uninterrupted flow of water has been supplied to the nozzle at the correct operating pressure, the IC shall notify all units on the scene and the borough dispatcher.

16. A Lt. transmitting a signal 10-75, 10-76 or 10-77 would know all of the following are correct with the exception of which choice? (p. 18-20) (A) All of these signals can be transmitted for a fire or emergency. (B) When transmitting a 10-75, include the following: the location of the fire and the height and type of building. (C) The 10-76 signal is appropriate for commercial building 75 feet or more in height. (D) The 10-77 signal is appropriate for Multiple Dwelling buildings 75 feet or more in height.

17. BC Question - The signals 10-66, 10-76 and 10-77 result in numerous resources. Choose the incorrect choice concerning these signals. (Ch.8 p. 17, 19-20 Ch. 2 p. 37) (A) When a 10-66 is transmitted, 2 additional Battalion Chiefs are assigned. The 1 st BC shall be designated as the FAST Group Supervisor and is designated by the suffix F. (B) The 2 nd additional BC assigned on a 10-66 is designated as the FF Locator Officer and is designated by the Suffix L. (C) Upon transmission of a 10-76 for a fire in a Mega High-Rise (Building over 800’), an enhanced response of 1 BC and 2 Ladder Companies will be added to the assignment. (D) Upon transmission of a 10-77 for a fire in a Mega High-Rise (Building over 800’), an enhanced response of 1 BC, the assignment, 2 Ladder Companies and a Communications Un

8. Engine 300, which is responding to an auto accident on the Grand Central Parkway westbound at 94th Street, encounters what appears to be an auto accident at Northern Blvd., which is east of 94 St. Ladder 500, which is responding eastbound, arrives at the 94 St. exit and does not see an accident. What would be the proper procedure to take? (p. 22) 1. Engine 300 should not transmit 10-84 unless they arrive at 94 St. 2. Ladder 500 should transmit 10-84 when they arrive at the accident scene at Northern Blvd. 3. Engine 300 should transmit 10-84 when they arrive at the suspected accident scene at Northern Blvd. 4. Ladder 500 should transmit 10-84 when they arrive at 94 St. (A) 1, 3 only (B) 1,4 only (C) 3, 4 only (D) 2, 3 only

9. Ladder 212 discovers that their apparatus radio is not operating. Which choice contains an incorrect action to take? (p. 30) (A) The Officer of Ladder 212 shall notify the Battalion and Division and call the dispatcher requesting the response of the radio mechanic. (B) The Division shall supply Ladder 212 with a portable citywide radio. Once the citywide radio is received, the Officer of Ladder 212 shall request a 10-11 radio test count from the borough dispatcher. (C) Ladder 212 shall be placed out of service until they receive a portable citywide radio from the Division. (D) When Ladder 212 receives a portable citywide radio, it shall remain in the front cab of the apparatus and not be carried or worn by the Officer.

1. A basic understanding of the SCBA is necessary to ensure a safe operation. Which choice contains incorrect information? (Sec. 2.1.2, 2.1.3, 2.1.7, 2.2.3, 2.3.1,2.4.1) (A) Because the facepiece does not cover the ears, airborne contaminants can enter the respiratory tract through a punctured or ruptured eardrum. (B) If a member runs out of air, the member should remove the regulator from the facepiece but keep the facepiece donned. (C) All members entering a confined space shall operate with SCBA donned until the space is deemed safe. (D) Contact lenses may not be worn with the SCBA due to the SCBA not protecting against exposure to flame or heat. (E) The SCBA is never to be used underwater.

2. While performing an inspection of their SCBAs after the roll call for the 6x9 tour on 2/3/19, several Firefighters ask you whether their SCBA cylinder can be used on the upcoming tour. Which one is the only one that may be used that tour? (Sec. 3.2.3, 3.2.4, 3.2.5,3.2.15,3.3.1) (A) The Date of Manufacture on the SCOTT label reads 6/05 (B) The number 112 is found on the top of a cylinder. (C) The number found in the round Hydro Recertified label glued to it reads 10/11 (D) The cylinder has a blue top and a polymer protective sleeve. (E) The remote gauge is not in the green area.

3. SCOTT 4.5 SCBAs are fitted with a Universal Air Connection (UAC) System which permits emergency replenishment of an approved SCBA breathing air supply cylinder on a user’s SCBA from an approved air supply source while in use. Choose the incorrect point concerning the UAC. (Sec. 3.5.1, 3.5.2) (A) The UAC is a Quick Charge attachment that may be used for routine recharging of the air cylinder or buddy breathing. (B) The UAC is for emergency use only when the SCBA user is incapacitated within the hazardous atmosphere. (C) The supply pressure from the High Pressure Coupling of the emergency air supply to be connected to the UAC must not exceed 4500 psi. (D) The UAC Connection must have its protective dust cover in place. An SCBA with a missing UAC dust cover shall be placed out of service.

4. The Pressure Reducer Assembly (PRA), mounted on the left side of the backframe, reduces the high pressure breathing air received from the cylinder. Which choice about the PRA is incorrect? (Sec. 3.6.1, 3.6.2, 3.6.3) (A) The PRA normally reduces the operating pressure to 100 psi before entering the regulator’s low pressure hose. The regulator then controls the pressure within the facepiece to slightly above atmospheric pressure. (B) When there is a malfunction of the PRA’s primary system, the operating pressure will only be reduced to 150 psi and cause the vibralert alarm to activate. (C) A failure of both the primary and secondary systems in the open position will activate a relief valve in the PRA, which will rapidly discharge all pressure in excess of 185 psi into the atmosphere. (D) When the primary and secondary systems both fail in the open position, the cylinder valve should be partially closed, allowing only a minimal amount of air to release. (E) When the primary and secondary systems fail in the open position, the member must notify their Officer and immediately leave the contaminated area while being accompanied to a safe area by another member using a SCBA. These precautions are not necessary to take when only the primary system fails.

5. The Manual Shutoff Switch, Purge Valve, Spray Bar and Vibralert Alarm are components of the Regulator Assembly. Which choice is incorrect concerning these components? (Sec. 3.8.2, 3.8.4, 3.8.5, 3.8.8) (A) If the Manual Shutoff Switch is not pressed, a full 45 minute cylinder can be depleted in approximately 4 minutes. (B) The Purge valve can be used in an emergency when the regulator fails in either the open or closed position. (C) The Vibralert Alarm is an End of Service Time Indicator that activates at approximately 33% of the cylinders air capacity, alerting the member to exit the contaminated area. (D) A spray bar, comprised of 9 small holes, surrounds the upper part of the regulator assembly.

6. The Heads-up display (HUD) is an independent End of Service Time Indicator that provides a visual monitor of the air supply in the cylinder. A member would be operating correctly in all of the following situations with the exception of which one? (Sec. 3.8.9) (A) The member continued using the mask when two green rectangular lights and then one green rectangular light was glowing. When a yellow rectangular light began flashing slowly, the member continued operating. (B) When one rectangular red light on the HUD began flashing rapidly, the member notified their Officer and immediately left the contaminated area while being escorted by another member using a SCBA as required. (C) The member remembered that the HUD and Vibralert alarm work independently and may not activate at the same time. (D) When the round rectangular light at the far right of the HUD began flashing slowly, the member notified their Officer and immediately left the contaminated area while being escorted by another member using a SCBA as required.

7. SCBAs must be inspected to ensure safe operation. Choose the incorrect point concerning inspections. (Sec. 4.1.1) (A) SCBAs must be inspected after the 0900 and 1800 hour roll calls. (B) SCBAs must be inspected immediately before the start of Multi Unit Drill. (C) Following contamination from the products of combustion, the SCBA cylinder must be removed from the harness assembly and the cylinder and harness assembly must be cleaned using warm soapy water and a brush. (D) SCBAs must be inspected after each use, unless another response is received while the unit is returning to quarters.

8. Facepiece inspection is a key part of the SCBA inspection. Which choice is incorrect when the nose cup assembly or voicemitter is found to be damaged or missing during inspection? (Sec. 4.2.3) (A) The facepiece shall be placed out of service and forwarded to the Mask Service Unit for repair. (B) The Company Commander must forward a report directly to the Chief of Department. (C) The forwarded report shall include the name of the member discovering the facepiece and name of the member who last used and/or inspected the facepiece. (D) The Officer shall interview all members involved in order to ascertain how the nose cup or voicemitter became damaged or missing.

9. What would be an incorrect procedure to take when a member cannot obtain a facepiece seal while inspecting the facepiece, and another member is able to obtain a proper seal with a standard facepiece using the same unit? (Sec. 4.2.3) (A) Have the member attempt to obtain a proper seal with a small or extra-large facepiece obtained from the Division or Mask Service Unit. (B) If the member cannot obtain a proper seal with any facepiece, notify the Safety Command and Mask Service Unit immediately by telephone. (C) If a member cannot obtain a proper seal with any facepiece, the Company Commander shall forward a report to the Bureau of Operations. (D) If a member cannot obtain a proper facepiece seal with any facepiece, the unit must be placed out of service until the problem is resolved.

10. There are several Emergency Procedures that members may have to perform while operating with an SCBA. Which one of the following requires the transmission of a Mayday? (Sec. 6, 6.1,6.2, 6.3, 6.4) 1. A Quick Release Escape is performed when an OV FF’s SCBA assembly becomes entangled in the rear while searching an attic of a private dwelling. 2. While crawling through a heavy clutter condition, a Squad FF performs the bow Profile Maneuver. 3. While attempting to move along a fire escape to perform needed ventilation, the OV FF uses the Reduced Profile Maneuver. 4. In an attempt to pass between wall studs after breaching a wall to extinguish fire in an adjoining Row Frame building, the Nozzle FF uses the Swim Move. (A) 1,2,3 (B) 1,2, 3, 4 (C) 1 only (D) 1 and 2 only

11. If a member suffers a damaged facepiece while operating, there are several actions that can betaken. Which is not one of them? (Sec. 6.5, 6.5.1, 6.5.2, 6.5.3, 6.5.5) (A) Ueave the facepiece on and cover the damaged area with one hand. (B) If the facepiece lens is bubbling, attempt to cover the bubbling area with your hand to limit the damage. (C) If a leak is more than can be covered with one hand, continue to cover as much of the damaged area as possible and press the manual shut-off switch after each breath. (D) If the damaged area is too large to allow the regulator shut-off to release, then use the purge valve in an ON and OFF motion for each breath.

12. There are times when members encounter other members or civilians who are in a contaminated atmosphere without respiratory protection. Choose an incorrect action to take. (Sec. 6.6.1, 6.6.2, 6.6.3) (A) Facepiece sharing with other members is allowed if a member runs out of air. (B) Facepiece sharing with civilians is prohibited. (C) If a member cannot be removed from the contaminated atmosphere, the nearest available FAST Pak can be used. (D) If a civilian cannot be removed from a contaminated atmosphere, a FAST Pak other than the one assigned to the FAST Unit can be used. (E) If a member or civilian cannot be removed from a contaminated atmosphere, a spare SCBA can be used to provide air strictly to the trapped member or civilian.

13. All members must be aware of emergency situations that can be encountered while using SCBAs. Fill in the blanks in the following two statements. (Sec. 7.4.1, 7.5) 1. When one member strikes another member withdistinct blows on the shoulder and then pulls that member in a specific direction, the second member will recognize that the other member knows of an emergency and should follow in that direction. 2. When a PASS Alarm is activated in the full cycle forseconds, the member hearing the alarm should immediately notify the IC. An immediate investigation of the alarm must be made to determine the cause, and the results of the investigation must be transmitted to the IC as soon as possible. (A) 2,5 (B) 4,10 (C) 3,15 (D) 5,20

14. SCBAS shall be disinfected and cleaned during roll call inspection, after members have been assigned an SCBA for the tour, and after each use. A proper action can be found in which choice? (Sec. 8.2.1, 8.2.2, 8.2.3, 8.5.3, 8.6.1, 8.6.5) (A) A hypochlorite solution consisting of one-quarter cup of household chlorine bleach to one gallon of water (1:100) is prepared, by mixing one package of bleach obtained from Technical Service with one gallon of water. (B) The SCBA facepiece is immersed in the hypochlorite solution for 5 minutes, unless there is gross contamination. If the SCBA is grossly contaminated, it can be immersed in the hypochlorite solution for up to 10 minutes. (C) If there is gross decontamination of the SCBA facepiece, the concentration of household bleach in the dilution can be increased to !4 cup of bleach to one gallon of water. (D) Glass cleaner can be used effectively to clean a SCBA facepiece. (E) The SCBA Regulator shall be cleaned with a 70 % Isopropyl Alcohol and water mixture. A minimum of 3 full pumps of the solution shall be sprayed into the regulator opening, including the spray bar ports, and wait 5 minutes before disinfecting.

15. BC Question - One of the duties of a Battalion Chief is to maintain and account for Battalion Spare SCBAs. A BC would be incorrect in performing which action? ;Sec. 9.1.4, 9.1.6, 9.2) (A) Battalion Spares 1, 2, 3 should have an RT-2 attached to them stating annual PMP and be forwarded to the Mask Service Unit on January 1. (B) Battalion assigned SCBAs are forwarded to MSU with the Battalion Spares for annual PMP. (C) The Battalion Commander shall forward an SCBA Status Report annually by November 1. Any SCBA that has not had PMP performed by MSU for that calendar year shall be forwarded to MSU. (D) The status and PMP date of each Battalion Spare shall be included on the SCBA status report.

16. While attempting to remove an unconscious member from a cellar in a commercial building, the IC asks the FAST Unit if they can identify the member. The Officer of the FAST Unit notes that there is a red label with 200-5 in white numerals on the downed member’s Pressure Reducer Assembly. The Officer correctly identified the downed member as? (Sec. 10) (A) The Control FF from Engine 200. (B) The Irons FF from Ladder 200. (C) The Hook FF from Rescue 200.

1. It is important for all FDNY members to be familiar with the various types of nozzles in use, and the necessary requirements to maintain them in working order. All of the following are correct except which one? (Sec. 2.2.5, 2.3.1, 2.3.1, 3.4, 3.9) (A) A working nozzle is any nozzle carried attached to hose in the hose bed of the apparatus. (B) With a variable flow fog nozzle, more water is generally delivered in the straight stream position than in the fog position. (C) Nozzles should be washed out and thoroughly checked for defects before being placed back in service following use. (D) Identifying letters and numbers placed on nozzles and components shall be stamped on the coupling along the hub, adjacent to the coupling lug.

2. After a nozzle that was sent for repair was returned, what would be a correct action to take? (Sec. 3.15,3.16) (A) 100’ of hose was stretched from the pumper, the nozzle was attached, and water was started and sufficient pressure developed to attain an effective stream. (B) The nozzle was placed on the rig immediately. Only nozzles newly issued require testing. (C) The nozzle was placed on the rig immediately. Nozzles only require testing annually in August and whenever deemed necessary by the Division Commander. (D) Attach the nozzle to one length of hose, and after supplying it with water, open and close the shut off only once in order to break it in gradually.

1. The Officer of Engine 300, the 5 th due Engine assigned on a 10-77, mentally reviews key points of the High Rise Nozzle (HRN) Procedures while responding. Engine 300 is not equipped with a HRN. Which point was correct? (Sec. 2.3) (A) Engine 300 will not be operating the HRN due to it not being equipped with the HRN. (B) While responding, the Officer should contact the dispatcher for the identity of the Engine Company equipped with a HRN assigned on the box. (C) Upon arrival, after obtaining the HRN, Engine 300 will report directly to the floor below the fire with the HRN, one length of 2 A” hose per firefighter, and the standpipe kit with controlling nozzle. (D) Due to it being the responsibility of the 4 th due Engine assigned on a 10-77 to bring the HRN to the Command Post, Engine 300 does not need to consider the operation of the HRN at this incident.

2. The HRN is an eight-foot long aluminum pipe with a 68 degree two-foot bend to provide the proper angle for the water stream. Which choice correctly describes features of the HRN? (Sec. 4.1, 4.2, 4.3) (A) The HRN is attached to a standard 2 14” FDNY shut-off, which is removed when the HRN is not being used. (B) A 1 1/8” Main Stream Tip (MST) is permanently attached to the outlet of the HRN. (C) Supplied by a 2 14” hoseline, the HRN will produce flows of 200-225 gpm at 50 psi nozzle pressure with water flowing. i D) As a general rule when supplying the HRN with 3 lengths of 2 14” hose, the pressure at the outlet gauge should be 80 psi with water flowing and 70 psi when using 4 lengths.

3. At a wind impacted fire, an Engine Company is ordered to place the HRN into operation. Which action taken by the Engine Company is incorrect? (Sec. 5.5, 5.6, 5.8, 5.9, 5.10, 5.11, 5.14) (A) A spotter, equipped with a HT on the appropriate frequency and a pair of binoculars, will provide direction and progress reports to the IC and members operating. The Officer supervising the HRN use will initiate and maintain HT contact with the spotter. (B) Putting the nozzle into operation will require the services of two engine companies equipped with roll-ups, standpipe kits, forcible entry tools including the rabbit tool and the HRN. (C) Companies must gain access to the apartment below the fire apartment and must remove the proper window to operate the nozzle effectively. (D) The supply line must be attached to the HRN before the nozzle is slid out on the window sill for use. (E) A shut-off shall be placed in the line one length back from the nozzle.

4. If multiple rooms are involved at a wind-driven fire, it will be necessary to reposition the HRN to ensure complete knockdown of the fire. Which choice is incorrect concerning the repositioning of the HRN? (Sec. 5.1, 5.12, 5.13, 5.14) (A) When there are multiple rooms involved, operate the HRN into the window that the wind is blowing into and extinguish the fire in this room first. (B) Company Officers must anticipate and make sure that the next window(s) that will be used for operation of the HRN is cleared of window gates, bars, etc. to speed up the repositioning. (C) When repositioning of the HRN is required, the supply line should be shut down at the shut-off located one length back and the nozzle opened to bleed the line. (D) When the HRN is repositioned, the Engine Company Officer shall order the operation of the HRN into the next window after consulting with the spotter.

1. Choose the incorrect point about the Cockloft Nozzle. (Sec. 1.1, 1.2, 1.3, 1.4) (A) The Cockloft Nozzle is a 6’3” aluminum pipe with two ’A” Outer Stream Tips (OSTs). (B) The reach of the Cockloft Nozzle stream is in excess of 60 feet. (C) The discharge rate of the Cockloft Nozzle is approximately 125 gpm. (D) The Cockloft Nozzle is to be supplied by a 2 A” handline with the same pressure normally supplied to a 2 ’A” handline.

2. BC Question - Upon arrival as the 1 st BC at a fire in the cockloft of a taxpayer, you contemplate putting the Cockloft Nozzle into operation. Which thought was correct? (Sec. 2.1, 2.2, 3.2, 4.1) (A) In extreme circumstances, the Cockloft Nozzle may be used as the initial handline only when a back up line is in the process of being stretched. (B) The Cockloft Nozzle is carried by all Rescue, Squad and Division vehicles. (C) Prior to using a Cockloft Nozzle in a Non-fireproof MD, consideration shall be given to cutting a vent hole over the main body of fire. (D) The Cockloft Nozzle shall only be placed into operation at the direction of the IC, who may be the first arriving Officer. (E) The use of the Cockloft Nozzle eliminates the need of pulling ceilings for final extinguishment and washdown.

3. After being ordered to place the Cockloft Nozzle into operation at a cockloft fire in a 6 story Non-fireproof “H type” multiple dwelling, Engine 500 took several actions. Which one was correct? (Sec. 3.1, 3.3, 3.4, 3.5) (A) The Cockloft Nozzle was attached to the handline by removing the Main Stream Tip of the controlling nozzle, and then connecting the 1 \*A” female coupling of the cockloft nozzle to the shut-off. (B) Engine 500 operated the Cockloft Nozzle outside the apartment door in the public hallway. (C) A 3”x3” hole was punched in the ceiling in order for the Cockloft Nozzle to fit. The clearing between the top of the ceiling joists and the bottom of the roof joists must be a minimum of 4 feet. (D) The Cockloft Nozzle should be inserted into the cockloft between the joists, and rotated in a continuous counter-clockwise direction.

. The Combination Nozzle System combines the High Rise Nozzle and the Cockloft Nozzle into one compact kit. Which point about this tool is incorrect? (Sec. 1.1, 1.2, 1.3, 1.4) i A) The Combination Nozzle System provides the advantage of two different nozzles, both of which can be attached to the base pipe. B) The two piece compact system allows for the selected nozzle and base pipe to be carried nto confined locations and elevators if needed. C) The assembly process is easy and can quickly be accomplished in deteriorating conditions. The quick connect assembly allows failsafe rapid assembly. (D) The Combination Nozzle System shall be safely secured in a compartment on the apparatus.

A proper understanding of the Combination Nozzle is kit is shown in which choice? (Sec. 2.1, 2.2, 2.3, 4.1) (A) A 1 x 2 \*/2 ” increaser shall be stored in the same compartment that the Base pipe is stored in for ease of location when needed. (B) The Base pipe, High Rise Nozzle Tip, and Cockloft Nozzle Tip have a V2” support rod attached with a %” quick connect. (C) Companies equipped with the Combination Nozzle shall remove the original one piece High Rise Nozzle from their apparatus. (D) One of the two 'A” Outer Stream Nozzle Tips (OSTs) can be removed from the Cockloft Nozzle Tip if it is not necessary to direct the stream in two directions (i.e. a comer building). (E) The Combination Nozzle System shall be visually inspected quarterly.

WEEK 3 Flashcards

(69 cards)