1
Q
If 0.05 s was selected for a particular exposure, what mA would be necessary to produce 30 mAs?
A
600 mA
2
Q
Focusing distance is associated with which of the following?
A
Magnification radiography
3
Q
The steeper the straight-line portion of a characteristic curve for a particular film, the
A
Higher the film contrast
4
Q
Which of the following tests is performed to evaluate screen contact?
A
Wire mesh test
5
Q
A film emulsion having wide latitude is likely to exhibit
A
low contrast
6
Q
The area of blurriness seen in the upper part of the radiograph shown in Figure 4-15 is most likely due to
A
Poor screen / film contract
7
Q
What is the best way to reduce magnification distortion?
A
Decrease the OID
8
Q
A lateral radiograph of the lumbar spine was made using 200 mA, 1 s exposure, and 90 kVp. If the exposure factors
were changed to 200 mA, 1/2 s, and 104 kVp, there would be an obvious change in which of the following?
A
Scale of radiographic cpntrast
9
Q
The relationship between the height of a grid’s lead strips and the distance between them is referred to as grid
A
Ratio
10
Q
Which of the following will contribute to the production of longer-scale radiographic contrast?
A
An increase in kV
An increase in photon energy
11
Q
A film emulsion having wide latitude is likely to exhibit
A
low contrast
12
Q
The cause of films coming from the automatic processor still damp can be
A
Insufficient hardening action
13
Q
Base-plus fog is a result of
A
blue-tinted film base
chemical development
the manufacturing process
14
Q
Which of the following can cause poor screen / film contact?
A
Damage Image receptor frame
foreign body in image receptor
warped image receptor front
15
Q
The term latitude describes
A
An emulsion’s ability to record a range of densities
The degree of error tolerated with given exposure factors.
16
Q
The microswitch for controlling the amount of replenishment used in an automatic processor is located at the
A
Entrance roller
17
Q
The reduction in x-ray photon intensity as the photon passes through material is termed
A
Attenuation
18
Q
A satisfactory radiograph of the abdomen was made at a 42-in SID using 300 mA, 0.06 s exposure, and 80 kVp. If the
distance is changed to 38 in, what new exposure time would be required?
A
0.05 s
19
Q
Of the following groups of technical factors, which will produce the greatest radiographic density?
A
10 mAs, 74 kVp, 36-in SID
20
Q
What apparatus is needed for the construction of a sensitometric curve?
A
Penetrometer
Densitometer
21
Q
An increase in kVp will have which of the following effects?
A
More scatter radiation will be produced.
the exposure rate will increase.
22
Q
The major function of filtration is to reduce
A
patient dose
23
Q
Why is a very short exposure time essential in chest radiography?
A
To minimize involuntary motion
24
Q
The absorption of useful radiation by a grid is called
A
grid cutoff
25
A lateral radiograph of the cervical spine was made at 40 in using 100 mA and 0.1 s exposure. If it is desired to
increase the distance to 72 in, what should be the new mA, all other factors remaining the same? the distance to 72 in,
what should be the new mA, all other factors remaining the same?
400 mA
26
Which of the following is (are) characteristic(s) of a 16:1 grid?
It absorbs a high percentage of scattered radiation.
It has little positioning latitude
It is used with high-KVp exposures.
27
Exposure rate increases with an increase in
mA
KVp
28
If a 4-in collimated field is changed to a 14-in collimated field, with no other changes, the radiographic image will
possess
more density
29
Which of the following is an abnormal intensifying-screen action?
Lag
30
X-ray photon energy is inversely related to
photon wavelength
31
Slow-speed screens are used
to image fine anatomic details
32
Film base is currently made of which of the following materials?
Polyester
33
Which of the following may be used to reduce the effect of scattered radiation on the finished radiograph?
Grids
Collimators
Compression bands
34
The primary source of scattered radiation is the
Patient
35
Use of high-ratio grids is associated with
increased patient dose
higher contrast
36
Which of the following is (are) tested as part of a QA program?
Beam alignment
Reproducibility
Linearity
37
In order to produce a just perceptible increase in radiographic density. the radiographer must increase the
mAs by 15 percent
38
All of the following affect the exposure rate of the primary beam except
field size
39
The function(s) of automatic beam limitation devices include
reducing the production of scattered radiation
40
Which of the following is (are) characteristic(s) of mammography film emulsion?
High contrast
fine grain
single emulsion
41
When involuntary motion must be considered, the exposure time may be cut in half if the KVp is
increased by 15 percent
42
Which of the following groups of exposure factors would be most effective in eliminating prominent pulmonary
vascular markings in an RAO position of the sternum?
500 mA, 1/30 s, 70 kVp
43
If the developer temperature in the automatic processor is higher than normal, what will be the effect on the
finished radiograph?
Loss of contrast
Increased density
44
All of the following are related to recorded detail except
Grid ratio
45
X-ray photon beam attenuation is influenced by
tissue type
subject thickness
photon quality
46
What effect will a stained intensifying screen have on the finished radiograph?
Decreased density
47
Why are a single intensifying screen and single-emulsion film used for select radiographic examinations?
For better recorded detail
48
Which of the following terms refers to light being reflected from one intensifying screen, through the film, to the
opposite emulsion and screen?
Crossover
49
Which of the following will influence recorded detail?
Screen speed
Screen/film contact
Focal spot
50
The essential function of a phototimer is to
terminate the x-ray exposure once the IR is correctly exposed
51
A slit camera is used to measure
focal-spot size
52
What pixel size has a 512x 512 matrix with a 20-cm field of view (FOV)
0.40 mm/pixel
53
Which of the following will improve the spatial resolution of image-intensified images?
A very thin coating of cesium iodide on the input phosphor
A smaller-diameter input screen
54
The advantages of collimators over aperture diaphragms and flare cones include
the variety of field sizes available
more efficient beam restriction
55
Which of the following occurs during Bremsstrahlung (Brems) radiation production?
An electron approaching a positive nuclear charge changes direction and loses energy
56
Characteristics of the metallic element tungsten include
ready dissipation of heat
high melting point
high atomic number
57
The voltage ripple associated with a three-phase, six-pulse rectified generator is about
32 %
58
The device that receives the remnant beam, converts it into light, and then increases the brightness of that light is
the
image intensifier
59
A high-speed electron entering the tungsten target is attracted to the positive nucleus of a tungsten atom and, in the
process is decelerated. This results in
Bremsstrahlung radiation
60
All the following are components of the image intensifier except
the TV monitors
61
Components of digital imaging include
computer manipulation of the image
formation of an electronic image on the radiation detector
62
Which of the following is used in digital fluoroscopy, replacing the image intensifier's television camera tube?
Charge-coupled device
63
A three-phase timer can be tested for accuracy using a synchronous spinning
top. The resulting image looks like a
solid arc, with the angle (in degrees) representative of the exposure time
64
The regular measurement and evaluation of radiographic equipment components and their perform is most
accurately termed as
quality control
65
The procedure whose basic operation involves reciprocal motion of the x-ray tube and Sim is
tomography
66
In fluoroscopy, the automatic brightness control is used to adjust the
kilovoltage (KV) and milliamperage (mA)
67
When the radiographer selects klovaitago on the control panel, which device is adjusted?
Autotransformer
68
Star and wys configurations are related to
three-phase banstormers
69
What is the device that directs the light emitted from the image intensifer to various viewing and imaging
apparatus?
Beam splitter
70
As electrons impinge on the anode surface, less than 1% of their kinetic energy is changed to
x-rays
71
Which of the following contribute(s) to inherent filtration?
X-ray tube glass envelope
X-ray tube port window
72
a quality-control (QC) program includes checks on which of the following radiographic equipment conditions?
Reproducibility
Linearity
Positive beam limitation/automatic collimation
73
All the following x rey circuit devices are located between the incoming power supply and the primary coll of the high-voltage
transformer except
The mill amperage meter
74
Which of the following systems function(s) to compensate for changing patient/part thicknesses during fluoroscopic
procedures?
Automatic brightness control
75
Disadvantages of moving grids aver stationary grids include which of the following?
They can prohibit the use of very short exposure times
They can prohibit the use of very short exposure times
They can cause phantom images when anatomic parts parallel their motion.
76
The functions of a picture archiving and communication system (PACS) Include:
Boquisition of digital images
storage of digital images
77
How many half-value layers will it take to reduce an x-ray beam whose intensity is 78 R/min to an intensity of less
than R/min?
4
78
The KV settings on radiographic equipment must be tested annually and must be accurate to within
+/-4 KV
79
An incorrect relationship between the primary beam and the center of a focused grid results in
Grid cutoff
Insufficient radiographic density
80
The total brightness gain of an image intensifier is the product of
Flux gain
mindication gain
81
Which of the following information is necessary to determine the maximum safe kitovoltage using the appropriate
x-ray tube rating chart?
milliampere and exposure time
Focal-spot size
82
A spinning-top device can be used
Timer accuracy
Rectifier failure
83
A device used to ensure reproducible radiographs, regardless of tissue density variations, is the?
automatic exposure control
84
The device used to change alternating current to unidirectional current is
a solid-state diode
85
If the distance from the focal spot to the center of the collimator's mirror is 6 in, what
distance should the bulb be from the center of the mirror?
6 In
86
To maintain image clarity in an image-intensifier system, the path of electron flow from the photocathode to the
phosphor is controlled by
the accelerating anode
87
The image-intensifier tube's input phosphor functions to convert
x-rays to light
88
Which of the following equipment is mandatory for performance of a myelogram?
Titting x-ray table
89
Deposition of vaporized tungsten on the inner surface of the x-ray tube glass window
Acts as additional filtration
90
Design characteristics of x-ray tube targets that determine heat capacity include the
rotation of the anode
diameter of the anode
91
Which of the following terms describes the amount of electric charge flowing per second?
Current
92
The brightness level of the fluoroscopic image can vary with
miliamperage
kilovoltage
patient thickness
93
Component parts of a CT imaging system include a(n)
High frequency generator
X-ray tube
Operator console
94
With what frequency must radiographic equipment be checked for linearity and reproducibility?
annually
95
Which part of an induction motor la located within the x-ray tube glass envelope?Photocell(s) used
2. Optimum kilovoltage
3. Backup time
rotor
96
A technique chart should be prepared for each ABC x-ray unit and should contain which of the following information
for each type of examination?
Photocell(s) used
Optimum kilovoltage
Backup time
97
Which part of an induction motor is located outside the x-ray tube glass envelope?
stator
98
The projectile electron interacts to the inner shell electron and ionizes the atom. This will result to:
Emission of characteristic radiation
L-Electron cascades to the K-shell
99
This happens when incident photon interacts with an outer shell electron, knocking out the outer shell electron
and continuing in a slightly different direction, which creates a hole in the outer shell, making the shell unstable.
Compton Scattering
99
During bremsstrahlung interaction, as the electron gets closer to the nucleus, what occurs?
Photon energy increases
Larger electron deflection
100
Increasing x-ray energy will decrease the:
Contrast
101
Precisely fixed energies are representative of what type of photon?
characteristic rad’n
101
The stream of electron passes from cathode to anode because of ________ passing through the x ray tube
kilovoltage
101
X rays are produced as incident electrons interact with inner shell electrons in target atoms by a process called
Characteristic
101
Overall blackness that produced after film processing and is controlled by the milliampere and exposure time
selected?
Radiographic Density
101
What interaction creates unwanted density known as fog?
Compton Scattering
102
Which of the following statements is true regarding the differences between primary and secondary radiation?
Secondary radiation requires less shielding material
102
At 60kVp, the expected electron interaction with mater is
100% bremsstrahlung
102
affected by an increase in kVp?
increase density
102
Ms. Trixia is comparing two exposures exposed with different kVp. The first radiograph used 73 kVp and the other
is 88. In comparison, 88 kVp will produce?
Decrease patient dose
102
Increase in the intensity of primary beam is a result of?
Increase mAs
Increase kVp
102
Secondary radiation has greatest effect on which of the following radiographic qualities
contrast
102
The number of x-ray photons delivered to the patient in a given period of time is primarily regulated by
mAs
103
How are mAs and radiographic density related in the process of image formation?
ii. mAs and radiographic density are directly proportional.
103
The reduction in x-ray photon intensity as the photon passes through material is termed
attenuation
104
The exposure factors of 300 mA, 0.017 s, and 79 kV would produce a milliapere second value of?
5
105
When involuntary motion must be considered, the mAs may be cut in half if the kVp is
increased by 15 percent.
106
How is SID related to radiographic density and mAs in maintaining the density?
As SID increases, radiographic density decreases and mAs increases.
106
mAs directly controls
the quantity of x rays produced
107
The relationship between kVp and density may be described as
Governed by the 15% rule
108
The 15% rule states that
Density may be halved by decreasing kVp by 15%
109
Which of the following has a direct effect on radiographic density
Processing temperature
110
If SID is doubled, what may be said about radiographic density
Density is reduced to 1⁄4
111
Penetration of the anatomical part by the x ray beam can best be controlled
kVp
112
Grids primarily attenuate which of the following types of photon arising from the patient?
Compton scatter
113
Increased energy will:
i. Increased the photoelectric effect
ii. increased the patient dose
iii. Decreased scattering
None of the choices
113
A radiograph that demonstrates too much black and white exhibits a?
Short scale of contrast
114
An exposure was made using 45 kVp, 30 mAs. The resulting patient dose is too high. What should the repeat
technique be that will results to same OD?
52 kVp, 300 mA,0.05s
114
The spectral emission of calcium tungstate phosphors is in what range?
Blue-violet
115
Recorded detail will decrease when using intensifying screens constructed with a
Reflective layer
115
What is the primary purpose for using intensifying screens in film-screen radiography?
Decrease patient dose
116
Maintaining consistent densities when the SID is altered requires that the mAs be adjusted to compensate using
the formula on
Direct Square Law
116
The low level density that is present on all radiographic film, even that which has not been exposed to light or x-
rays, is referred to as
Base plus fog density
117
Patient motion can be controlled by
Decreasing exposure time
117
How does an increase in kVp affect density?
I. It increases the penetrability of the beam
II. It increases the photon ‘s scattered radiation
III. It increases the number of photons produce
1, 2, and 3
118
Low kVp produces which of the following?
i. High contrast
ii. Few gray tones
iii. Long-scale contrast
iv. Short-scale contrast
v. Low contrast
vi. Many gray tones
1, 2, 4
118
A posteroanterior chest examination using 120 kVp and 3 mAs with x-ray imaging system taken at 300 cm SID.
The exposure in the image receptor accounts for 1225mR. if the same technique is used at a 150cm SID, what will
be the xray exposure?
4900mR
119
If the constant of the machine and part thickness is given, how will you determine the kVp?
Th x 2 + k
120
Which of the following statements is/are true concerning the role of kVp in radiograph production?
I. As kVp is increased, penetrating ability of the x-rays increases
II. As kVp is increased, more x-rays exit the patient to strike the IR
III. As kVp is decreased, wavelength and density decrease
IV. As kVp increases, radiographic density increases
V. As kVp decreases, radiographic density remains constant because mAs controls density
1, 2 & 4
121
An exposure was made using 45 kVp, 30 mAs. The resulting patient dose is too high. What should the repeat
technique be that will results to same OD?
52 kVp, 100 mA, 150ms
122
The exposure factors of 300 mA, 0.06 s, and 95 kVp were used to produce a particular radiographic density and
contrast. A similar radiograph can be produced using 500 mA, 81 kVp, and
0.07 s.
123
kVp affects:
I. the wavelength of the x-ray beam
II. the scatter radiation production
III. the density of the radiograph
1, 2 and 3
124
If a satisfactory radiograph is produced at 100 mA and 0.12 sec but the image exhibits patient motion, requiring
the time to be changed to 0.06 sec, what is required to produce a similar density?
200
125
What effect does a relatively long wavelength beam have on image quality?
Decreases density
126
A change of mAs in the exposure factors will change the
I. Average photon wavelength
II. Number of photons
III. Radiation intensity
2 and 3
127
If a RadTech increases the kVp by 15% this would mean
An increase in density by 100%
127
Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the effect of distance(SID)?
Distance affects the quality of x-ray beam.
128
If 500 mA has been selected for a particular exposure, what exposure time would be required to produce 20 mAs?
1/25 s
129
As the tissue thickness becomes greater:
Its attenuation to x-ray beam is naturally greater thus density decreases.
129
The exposure from an x-ray tube operated at 70 kVp, 200 mAs is 400 mR at 80cm. what will be the exposure at
160 cm?
100 mR
130
If the mAs is increases, which of the following may decrease?
A. Patient dose C. X-ray Quantity
B. Radiation Intensity D.None of the choices
None of the choices
130
From which of the following components do most silver recovery systems reclaim the silver?
Fixer solution
131
Recorded detail will decrease when using intensifying screens constructed with a
Reflective layer
131
What is the primary purpose for using intensifying screens in film-screen radiography?
Decrease patient dose
132
The base layer of the film is nearly transparent to light, so that there is no unwanted pattern or shading on the
film caused by the base material. This property of the base pertains to:
Optical Lucency
133
Polyester base is formed through:
High temperature and low pressure
133
Low If the electron returns to its normal state with the emission of light within one revolution following
stimulation, it had occurred?
Fluoresence
134
Which of the following will produce the highest speed?
Thick terbium-doped activated gadolinium oxysulfide phosphor
134
As light emitted from the IS crosses over the opposite emulsion of an x-ray film, it results to a significant
unsharpness of the image. To reduce the effect of this phenomena, which of the following would is used?
Adding a dye onto the base layer
135
Which of the following is an appropriate time-temperature for manual processing?
6 mins., 64 deg F
136
Which of the following conditions must be met to ensure proper storage of radiographic film?
Humidity 40-60 percent, temperature <70 degrees F, protection from electromagnetic radiation
137
Silver halide crystals are the radiation and light sensitive areas of the emulsion. Which of the following are the
properties of the crystals?
Negative ions are found mostly in the surface of the crystals
Sensitivity speck is a positive charge
137
The method in which a film is fed into the processor in maintaining processing efficiency is because of:
The replenishment system is activated as each film is fed into the processor
138
The developer temperature in a 90-s automatic processor is usually about
90 to 95oF.
138
Which of the following statement(s) is(are) function of accelerators in the developer?
i. Helps in swelling of emulsion
ii. Controls the hydrogen ions
iii. Maintains the alkalinity
1,2,3
139
A film processed in longer time than the recommended, results to;
a radiograph with high density
140
How do the temperatures of the developer, fixer and wash water compare?
Developer temperature is higher than fixer and wash water temperatures
141
Which of the following will increase recorded detail?
i. Decreased FFD
ii. Decreased F/S speed
iii. Decreased OFD
2 and 3
142
What role does ammonium thiosulfate have in radiographic processing?
Removes the crystals unaffected during developing
143
The role of the activator in the fixing phase of processing is to
Maintain acidic pH (4.2-4.5)
144
Underdevelopment of a radiograph may be due to
Replenishment rates too low
145
The purpose of the automatic processor's circulation system is to
agitate, mix, and filter solutions.
146
When an automatic processor is started up at the beginning of the day, or restarted after an extended standby
period, the technologist should process an
unexposed, undeveloped 14 × 17-in film.
147
Exposed silver halide crystals are changed to black metallic silver by the
reducers.
148
The function(s) of the fixer in film processing is (are) to
i. remove the unexposed silver bromide crystals.
ii. change the unexposed silver bromide crystals to black metallic silver.
iii. harden the emulsion.
1 and 3 only
149
Which of the following is the correct order of radiographic film processing?
a. Developer, wash, fixer, dry C. Developer, fixer, wash, dry
b. Fixer, wash, developer, dry D. Fixer, developer, wash, dry
C. Developer, fixer, wash, dry
150
Chemical agent that provides the necessary alkalinity an serves as an activator by swelling the gelatin emulsion
so that the reducing agents are better able to penetrate the emulsion and reach the exposed silver halide
crystals.
Sodium hydroxide
151
If a radiograph turns yellow during storage, this is most likely result of which of the following?
Incomplete washing
152
Spinning top test deals to ensure the specificity of the exposure timer used in an x-ray machine. Which of the
following is/ are correct?
i. 1/30 sec will produce an arc size of 72 in a 3-phase generator
ii. 1/20 sec will produce 4 dots in a single phase half wave generator
iii. 1/60 sec will produce 5 dots in a 3-phase 6-pulse generator
1 only
153
Given a focal spot size of 1.5 mm, an OID of 30 cm and SID of 90 cm, what will the spread of penumbra or
unsharpness measure?
0.75 mm
154
X-ray film emulsion is MOST sensitive to safelight fog
after exposure.
155
Its function is to control processing by controlling the time the film is immersed in each wet chemical.
Transport system
156
It preserves both the quantity and quality of the chemicals in the processor.
Replenishment system
157
What is the replenishment rate of the fixer solution?
7 – 8 cc for every inch of film
158
The presence of oxygen in air or water in the developer may adversely affect the reducers by:
Weakens and oxidized the developer solution
158
Arrange the following events in a chronological order.
I. Washing of the film with water
II. Excess moisture on film removed through the drying process
III. The film is placed in a solution called fixer
IV. The film will be placed in a developer solution.
IV, III, I and II
159
SEQUENCING. Arrange the following anatomical structures from blackest to whitest.
9 | P a g e
I. Thoracic Spine
II. Left lung
III. Kidney
IV. Metallic implants
V. Teeth
VI. Fundus filled with air
VII. Fatty tissues
6, 2, 7, 3, 1, 5, 4
160
What is the effective atomic number of bromine?
35
161
The color of light emitted by a safelight filter that would produce safe condition for darkroom illumination with
blue-sensitive film is:
Red-Yellow
162
Which of the following materials used as a radiographic film base had caused browning of the film and
disintegration over short periods of time?
Cellulose Nitrate
163
Which of the following best describes fluorescence?
The emission of light as being exposed to x-ray
164
If the light intensity emitted by the phosphor interacts to the both sides of a duplitized film this will caused:
Increases unsharpness of the image
164
Which is/are classified as rare earth phosphors?
I. Lanthanum oxybromide
II. Gadolinium oxysulfide
III. Cesium iodide
1 and 2
165
Restricts the development of unexposed silver halide crystals
Restrainers
166
Which of the following is not true regarding the sensitivity of the film?
Thicker emulsion films exhibits slow response to light and/or x-rays.
167
In 1933, the light absorbing dye is added into the base layer of the film. The dye is used to:
c. 1 and 2
168
What is the actual size of a lung mass that casts a shadow 1.5 cm wide on a PA chest radiograph produced
at 180 cm when the mass is located 10.4 cm from the film?
1.4 cm
169
Which of the following has an effect on distortion?
a. SID c. Angulation of the XRT
b. Angulation of the part d. All of the above
All of the above
170
The function/s of automatic beam limitation devises include:
I. Changes the quality of the x-ray beam
II. Absorption of the scattered radiation
III. Increase the contrast resolution
3
171
The addition of new solution’s strength and number into the processing tanks of the automatic processor
is determined by:
I
I. Size of the film
II. Position of film into the feed tray
III. Length of time required for film to enter processor
172
Which of the following is true regarding the placement of the film in the automatic processor?
The shorter side of the film is placed against the feed tray
173
Reducing agents are used to:
I. Change exposed silver halide crystals into black metallic silver
II. Provides negative charges to neutralize the exposed crystals
III. Provides the black, gray and white tones of the radiograph
1 and 2
173
Quantum mottle would be greatest in
Rare-earth screens
173
Which of the following are considered NOT TRUE regarding latent image formation?
I. Frankel defects are considered site of latent image formation
II. During the Gurney Mott theory, free electrons migrate into the sensitivity specks
III. Free electrons are ejected from bromine and iodine ions.
1
174
Proper darkroom conditions include:
i. Using Kodak GBX filter to a terbium-doped-activated-gadolinium-oxysulfide-sensitive film
ii. Protected from any source of secondary radiation
iii. Temperature of about 20 degrees Fahrenheit
1 and 2
175
Air gap technique is used as an alternative to grid. This technique will:
Result to increase 10% in every centimeters of OID.
176
The thickness of a polyester film base is about:
7 mils
177
Which of the following systems of automatic processing will contribute to continuous mixing of chemicals?
i. Transport system
ii. Replenishment system
iii. Recirculation system
1 and 3
178
The function/s of beam limiting device is/are to:
Improve image contrast
179
Which of the following will produce the magnification of image, EXCEPT?
A. Long OFD
B. Short FOD
C. Short FFD
D. Short OFD
D. Short OFD
180
To demonstrate difference of film speed, one must?
Placing the half of both films in one cassette with same exposure factors
181
which of the following scatter radiation will have the GREATEST energy level?
Scatter radiations that are emitted in a forward direction
182
In order to check if there is appropriate amount of filtration exist, one should perform
HVL test
183
Linearity test should have a minimum variance of how many percent?
10%
183
The light field and radiation filed congruency should not vary by
±2% of 40 in SID
184
Using the pinhole camera test, the variance of focal spot size should be
±50%
185
Placing four coins inside the collimated area and the other four coins outside the collimated area will test
the congruency of
Light - radiation field
186
Which of the exposure technique chart has the advantage of providing maximum overall reductions in
patient exposure dose?
Fixed kVp
187
Which of the following statements comparing ionization chamber AEC systems with phototimers are true
a. Ionization chamber systems are accurately called phototiming
b. Ionization chamber systems measure radiation before it interacts with the image receptor
c. Phototimers are more modern
d. Phototimers measures radiation before it interacts with the image receptor
Phototimers measures radiation before it interacts with the image receptor
188
Which of the following factors affect radiographic image density?
1. beam restriction
2. film/screen combination
3. filtration
a. 1 & 2 only
b. 1 & 3 only
c. 2 & 3 only
d. 1, 2, & 3
d. 1, 2, & 3
189
Increasing the OFD will
i. Increased the magnification
ii. Improved the detail
iii. Higher contrast
1 and 3
190
If a dye is added to the intensifying screen, this is used to:
It keeps the emitted dye from spreading thereby increasing the resolution.
191
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of single coated emulsion and a film constructed with small
silver halide grains?
i. Slow speed
ii. Low detail
iii. High contrast
iv. Narrow latitude
2 only
192
In H and D curve, at intermediate exposure levels shows an small changes in exposure but results in
large changes in optical density and is a region for proper exposure. This refers to the
Straight-line portion
193
Why does the manufacturer would principally use metal foil as a packaging for x-ray films?
Protect it from moisture
194
Changing to rare earth screens over a calcium tungstate screen will:
Decrease the patient exposure dose
195
Gross controlled temperature system for automatic processor uses:
Use of warm water to regulate the processor’s temperature
196
Overagitation of chemicals in a developer solution may result to:
Air bell artifact
197
If the focused grid is farther from the specified focal distance, the image is said to be:
Underexposed towards the lateral edge of the image
198
A thoracic radiograph results to poor image contrast using 120 kVp, 250 mA, and 1/10 sec 12:1. If a
repeat requested is to be done in order to improve the image contrast using 16:1 grid ratio, what will be the new
exposure factors to be used?
300 mA, 1/10 sec
199
Which of the following creates the GREATEST shape distortion:
Radiographing a thick body organ
199
When image-forming light passes through a film and into the air beyond it, some of the light is reflected
back onto the film, causing the image to be unsharp. This effect is called as __.
Halation
200
Developer and fixer solution had an unfavorable temperature with each other and that the water
temperature was too cold. After manually developing the films, a network of minute grooves appeared in the film
surface. What type of artifact would have caused this?
Reticulation marks
201
Type of dental film used in the examination of the entire mouth is __________
Panoramic
202
Which of the following principally contributes to the increased speed of rare earth screens?
Phosphor thickness
203
The fog level of unprocessed film is approximately how many mR?
0.2 mR
204
What chemical is ceasing the reduction during automatic processor?
Acetic Acid
205
Compared with calcium tungstate, the rare earth screen has a __________
Higher xray absorption in the diagnostic range
206
Which of the following radiographic technique would produce a radiograph with the longest scale
contrast?
200 mA, 1⁄2 sec, 85 kVp
207
Its prime function is to shrink and stiffens the emulsion. It will also makes the finish film more rigid.
Chromium alum
208
The standard measurement of the darkroom sink is about:
60 cm wide and 40 cm deep
209
In which of the following phosphor material will respond to low kVp setting?
Zinc cadmium sulfide
210
If an edetate is place on film processing chemicals its function would be?
Reduced the metallic ions in wet chemistries
211
A radiograph of flower is best imaged using
Small focal spot
212
It is the primary solution for eliminating
voluntary motion.
Proper instructions
213
Characteristics of a radiograph must not include
I. Adequate exposure factors
II. Insufficient radiographic density and
contrast
III. Properly positioned anatomy and
physiology
IV. Appropriate sizes of field
2 and 3
213
What is the recommended height of a safelight
when measured from the loading bench?
4ft
214
It is the recommended floor size of a darkroom
for small clinics and school x-ray laboratory.
8x8 ft
215
What color is used to paint the walls of the
darkroom so as to reflect safelight illumination?
Ivory color
216
One statement is TRUE regarding darkroom.
a. The processing tanks must be stainless steel
to prevent it from corrosion.
b. It is best to leave the processing room with
opened bottles to add further density to
film.
c. The walls must be painted with black color
to absorb light from red safelight.
d. NOTA
a. The processing tanks must be stainless steel
to prevent it from corrosion.
217
If a darkroom wall must be radiation-proof,
what is the recommended layer of shielding
used?
1.5 mm Pb
218
Which of the following is considered violation of
proper practice inside the darkroom?
Sliding the film into the IS rather than
placing it over the screen.
219
A radiographic darkroom must be strategically
located near in which of the following room?
I. Near the exposure room
II. Near the viewing room
III. Near the rest room
1 and 2
220
Which of the following best describes ideal
storage condition/s for x-ray film?
Protected from radiation, fumes outdating
220
What is the proper humidity level to be
maintained inside the darkroom?
30-60%
221
Quick access into the darkroom is offered by
Revolving
222
Easy to clean and durable wall is the
characteristics of
Epoxy
222
Darkroom Environment must be checked
daily
223
It is the light used for QAQC purposes.
white light
224
If the safelight made in Tungsten is used for
12/7 hours/day, it would offer
2 years usage
225
It is the device used to measure humidity.
Psychrometer
225
How many years an original radiograph is
stored?
3-5
226
Radiography begins in the darkroom and end in
Darkroom again
227
Prevents/protects film from exposure to white
light and ionizing radiation during handling and
processing
Darkroom
228
t or f. Exposed film is less sensitive compare to
unexposed film.
f
229
What is the allowed background radiation for
the darkroom?
7 mR/hr
230
Archival quality of film is
5-7 years
231
X-ray film is packaged in a foil bag to protect
from
Excessive humidity
232
Collagen fiber used in Gelatin came from what
process?
Hydrolysis
233
Which statement is INCORRECT?
a. Manifest image is composed of silver halide
b. Manifest image is composed of metallic
silver crystals
c. Blue dye is added to the base of film
Manifest image is composed of silver halide
234
Medium that converts x-ray beam into visible
image.
Image Receptor
235
Thickness of film base
150-300 μm
236
Mils of radiographic film base
7 mils
236
Ability of film base not to be easily torn
High Tensile Strength
237
Provides mechanical support for silver halide
crystals
Gelatin
238
Considered “seat of life” of radiographic film
Emulsion
239
Disadvantage of duplitized film
Parallax Effect
240
Atomic number of Bromine
35
241
One statement is TRUE regarding Eastman
Kodak.
Safety Film
242
Film base during World War I
Glass Plates
243
Polyester is the product of
Ethylene Glycol and Dimethyl Terephtalate
244
Non-screen film is sensitive to
90-99 % x-ray
244
OSHA requires Radtech to wear face mask
during processing
Fumes are carcinogenic
245
Sign when darkroom is in use
Light outside the door
246
Maximum storage of film
30-45 days at 21 degrees celcius
247
Temperature in the darkroom is too high
Fog level increases
248
Considered positive density marks on film
Static Artifacts
249
Relative sensitivity of film to a given amount of
radiation
Film Speed
250
Silver halide crystal lattice contains
Ions
250
Base and fog densities reduce
contrast
251
Useful Optical Density range
0.25-2.5
251
Film-contrast is related to the
Slope of straight-line portion of curve
252
t or f. Toe gradient is probably more important than
average gradient for general radiography
t
253
Photofluographic film has another term
Abreugraphic
254
Gloves to be used in processing the film.
Nitrile
255
Latent image is invisible due to few silver ions
have been changed to metallic silver and
deposited at
Sensitivity Center
256
Required electrons for latent image formation.
4-10
257
First automatic processor was introduced in
1942 by
pako
258
This swells the emulsion to permit subsequent
chemical penetration.
Wetting
259
Manual developing has an approximate time of
5 mins
260
Removes remaining silver halide from emulsion
and hardens gelatin.
Fixing
260
Refers to the permanence of the radiograph.
Archival Quality
260
Redox reaction that produces an electron.
Oxidation
260
This is added in the developer to control
oxidation of developing agent by air.
Preservative
260
Redox reaction that uses an electron.
Reduction
260
When sodium sulphite is used as an x-ray
processing chemical, it is
Preservative
261
The function of this system is to provide
continuous mixing of chemicals.
Recirculation
261
To process radiographs, one must maintain rigid
control of
Temperature
261
What developing agent helps to provide upper
scale density?
Hydroquinone
261
What agent is the activator in the developer or a
source of alkali?
Hydroxide
261
The principal purpose of circular system is to
Agitate the chemistry
261
Sodium Hydroxide has a pH value of
9.6-10.6
261
Which of the following can cause oxidation of
the developer diminishing its chemistry?
Exhaustion
262
Proper method of mixing concentrated film
processing solutions
Add concentrated chemicals to water
262
Most of latent image on film is formed by
Light from IS phosphors produced in
response to exit rays
263
The pH environment required for proper
development of exposed film is
Alkaline
264
Double capacity can process a film
180 s
265
This chemical neutralizes developer solution
remaining in the wet solution
Ammonia Thiosulfate
266
When fixer solution entered developing tank, it
will cause
Fogged films
267
If the developer temp is set at 90 degrees
Fahrenheit, the water wash temp should be set
at
85 degrees F
268
In Mitchell Theory, silver is the first one to be
trapped.
a. True
b. False
t
269
In Gurney-Mott Theory, electron is the first one
to be trapped.
a. True
b. False
t
270
“Extended Processing” has a duration of
3 mins
271
In automatic process, the duration of stop bath
is
0
272
Devices used to reduce amount of low-energy
radiation absorbed by patient.
Filters
273
This degrades image quality and must be
controlled by radiographers.
Secondary Radiation
274
Radiation produced as a result of Compton
interaction.
Scatter
275
Filtration that includes collimator structures,
mirror, and thin sheets of aluminum?
Added Filtration
276
Wedge filter has special application to
compensate
Varying tissue densities
277
Range of anode heel
8-20 degrees
278
To overcome focal spot blooming
Reduce mA, Increase kV
279
Aluminum is commonly used material
for filters because
Efficient tool in low energy photons
removal
279
t or f. As kilovoltage increases, radiation absorbed by
patient will decrease.
t
280
Which of the following best describes mA?
Influences focal-spot blooming
cluster 1
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