101-151

Question 1

101. cocaine

For questions 98 to 104, match the toxin with the description. Each response may be
used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. binds to the ACh receptor
B. blocks reuptake of dopamine
C. blocks voltage-gated K+ channels
D. blocks voltage-gated Na+ channels
E. depletes norepinephrine (NE) from vesicles
F. inhibits GTP hydrolysis
G. prevents presynaptic release of quanta of ACh

Answer 1

B

Question 2

102. reserpine

For questions 98 to 104, match the toxin with the description. Each response may be
used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. binds to the ACh receptor
B. blocks reuptake of dopamine
C. blocks voltage-gated K+ channels
D. blocks voltage-gated Na+ channels
E. depletes norepinephrine (NE) from vesicles
F. inhibits GTP hydrolysis
G. prevents presynaptic release of quanta of ACh

Answer 2

E

Question 3

103. tetraethylammonium (TEA)

For questions 98 to 104, match the toxin with the description. Each response may be
used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. binds to the ACh receptor
B. blocks reuptake of dopamine
C. blocks voltage-gated K+ channels
D. blocks voltage-gated Na+ channels
E. depletes norepinephrine (NE) from vesicles
F. inhibits GTP hydrolysis
G. prevents presynaptic release of quanta of ACh

Answer 3

C. blocks voltage-gated K+ channels

Question 4

104. tetrodotoxin

For questions 98 to 104, match the toxin with the description. Each response may be
used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. binds to the ACh receptor
B. blocks reuptake of dopamine
C. blocks voltage-gated K+ channels
D. blocks voltage-gated Na+ channels
E. depletes norepinephrine (NE) from vesicles
F. inhibits GTP hydrolysis
G. prevents presynaptic release of quanta of ACh

Answer 4

D

Question 5

105. At the equilibrium potential of potassium,
     A. The electrical force equals the chemical force.
     B. The net electrical force is zero.
     C. The net chemical force is zero.
     D. There is no movement of K+ ions across the membrane.
     E. none of the above

Answer 5

A

Hall p. 35. At the equilibrium potential, the chemical and electrical forces are
equal. There is no net movement of K ions across the membrane.

Question 6

106. Each of the following is true of G protein activation and deactivation except
     A. Activation of any G protein will inhibit the activation of other G proteins
     in the membrane.
     B. Hydrolysis of bound GTP to GDP inactivates a G protein.
     C. The py subunit stabilizes the binding of GDP.
     D. The py subunit stabilizes the binding of GTP.
     E. When activated, the a subunit’s affinity for the py subunit decreases

Answer 6

D

Hall p. 189. The py subunit inhibits activation by both stabilizing the binding
of GDP and inhibiting the binding of GTP.

Question 7

107. The effect of succinylcholine at the neuromuscular junction is
     A. amplified by increased muscle temperature
     B. hyperpolarization
     C. not reversed by anticholinesterase agents
     D. not similar to that of decamethonium
     E. similar to that of D-tubocurarine

Answer 7

C

G&G pp. 199-203. Succinylcholine and decamethonium cause depolarizing
neuromuscular blockade. The effect is not reversed by anticholinesterase
agents and is amplified by decreased muscle temperature.

Question 8

108. muscle stretch receptors in deep tissue

For questions 108 to 111, match the area in the somatic sensory cortex with the
receptors. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. area 1
B. area 2
C. area 3a
D. area 3b

Answer 8

C

For questions 108-111 see K&S pp. 457-458.

Question 9

109. pressure and joint position in deep tissue

For questions 108 to 111, match the area in the somatic sensory cortex with the
receptors. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. area 1
B. area 2
C. area 3a
D. area 3b

Answer 9

B

Question 10

110. slowly and rapidly adapting receptors in the skin

For questions 108 to 111, match the area in the somatic sensory cortex with the
receptors. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. area 1
B. area 2
C. area 3a
D. area 3b

Answer 10

D. area 3b

Question 11

111. rapidly adapting receptors in the skin

For questions 108 to 111, match the area in the somatic sensory cortex with the
receptors. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. area 1
B. area 2
C. area 3a
D. area 3b

Answer 11

A

Question 12

112. Each of the following is true of the dorsal-column medial lemniscal system except
     A. Proprioception from the leg is relayed in the dorsal columns.
     B. Second-order neurons cross the midline in the medial lemniscus
     C. Thalamic neurons project to the primary somatic sensory cortex (St).
     D. Thalamic neurons project to the secondary somatic sensory cortex (SII).
     E. Touch and vibration sense from the arm is relayed in the dorsal columns

Answer 12

A

K&S pp. 446-448. Proprioception from the leg is relayed in the lateral column
by axons of neurons in Clarke’s column. In addition to sending axons to the
primary somatic sensory cortex (St), thalamic neurons send a sparse projection
to the secondary somatic sensory cortex (SII).

Question 13

113. truncal ataxia

For questions 113 to 121, match the region of the cerebellum with the clinical sign or
symptom. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. cerebellar hemisphere, intermediate part (interposed nuclei)
B. cerebellar hemisphere, lateral part (dentate nuclei)
C. flocculonodular (lateral vestibular nucleus)
D. vermis (fastigial nucleus)
E. none of the above

Answer 13

D

For questions 113-121 see K&S pp. 849-850.

Question 14

114. appendicular ataxia

For questions 113 to 121, match the region of the cerebellum with the clinical sign or
symptom. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. cerebellar hemisphere, intermediate part (interposed nuclei)
B. cerebellar hemisphere, lateral part (dentate nuclei)
C. flocculonodular (lateral vestibular nucleus)
D. vermis (fastigial nucleus)
E. none of the above

Answer 14

A

Question 15

115. terminal tremor

For questions 113 to 121, match the region of the cerebellum with the clinical sign or
symptom. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. cerebellar hemisphere, intermediate part (interposed nuclei)
B. cerebellar hemisphere, lateral part (dentate nuclei)
C. flocculonodular (lateral vestibular nucleus)
D. vermis (fastigial nucleus)
E. none of the above

Answer 15

B

Question 16

116. nystagmus

For questions 113 to 121, match the region of the cerebellum with the clinical sign or
symptom. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. cerebellar hemisphere, intermediate part (interposed nuclei)
B. cerebellar hemisphere, lateral part (dentate nuclei)
C. flocculonodular (lateral vestibular nucleus)
D. vermis (fastigial nucleus)
E. none of the above

Answer 16

C

Question 17

117. scanning speech

For questions 113 to 121, match the region of the cerebellum with the clinical sign or
symptom. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. cerebellar hemisphere, intermediate part (interposed nuclei)
B. cerebellar hemisphere, lateral part (dentate nuclei)
C. flocculonodular (lateral vestibular nucleus)
D. vermis (fastigial nucleus)
E. none of the above

Answer 17

D

Question 18

118. hypertonia

For questions 113 to 121, match the region of the cerebellum with the clinical sign or
symptom. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. cerebellar hemisphere, intermediate part (interposed nuclei)
B. cerebellar hemisphere, lateral part (dentate nuclei)
C. flocculonodular (lateral vestibular nucleus)
D. vermis (fastigial nucleus)
E. none of the above

Answer 18

E

Question 19

119. Hypotonia is seen in lesions of the interposed nuclei or of this portion.

For questions 113 to 121, match the region of the cerebellum with the clinical sign or
symptom. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. cerebellar hemisphere, intermediate part (interposed nuclei)
B. cerebellar hemisphere, lateral part (dentate nuclei)
C. flocculonodular (lateral vestibular nucleus)
D. vermis (fastigial nucleus)
E. none of the above

Answer 19

D. vermis (fastigial nucleus)

Question 20

120. decomposition of multijoint movements

For questions 113 to 121, match the region of the cerebellum with the clinical sign or
symptom. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. cerebellar hemisphere, intermediate part (interposed nuclei)
B. cerebellar hemisphere, lateral part (dentate nuclei)
C. flocculonodular (lateral vestibular nucleus)
D. vermis (fastigial nucleus)
E. none of the above

Answer 20

B

Question 21

121. delay in initiating movements

For questions 113 to 121, match the region of the cerebellum with the clinical sign or
symptom. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. cerebellar hemisphere, intermediate part (interposed nuclei)
B. cerebellar hemisphere, lateral part (dentate nuclei)
C. flocculonodular (lateral vestibular nucleus)
D. vermis (fastigial nucleus)
E. none of the above

Answer 21

B

Question 22

122. In the formation of nitric oxide, nitric oxide synthetase acts on the substrate
     A. arginine
     B. citrulline
     C. lysine
     D. ornithine
     E. tyrosine

Answer 22

A

G&G p. 911. Nitric oxide production in neurons is from L-arginine by nitric oxide
synthetase acting in conjunction with the cofactor, reduced nicotinamide
adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADPH), and Ca2+ ions. The arginine is
converted to citrulline.G&G p. 911. Nitric oxide production in neurons is from L-arginine by nitric oxide
synthetase acting in conjunction with the cofactor, reduced nicotinamide
adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADPH), and Ca2+ ions. The arginine is
converted to citrulline.

Question 23

123. The pineal gland synthesizes melatonin from
     A. acetylcholine
     B. dopamine
     C. histidine
     D. norepinephrine
     E. serotonh

Answer 23

E

Carp p. 253. The pineal gland synthesizes melatonin from serotonin by the
action of two enzymes sensitive to variations of diurnal light. The rhythmic
fluctuations in melatonin synthesis are directly related to the daily light cycle.

Question 24

124. binds ACh

For questions 124 to 128, match the receptor with the description. Each response may
be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. muscarinic receptor
B. nicotinic receptor
C. .
D. neither

Answer 24

C. both

For questions 124-128 see K&S pp. 187-189, 241-242. The nicotinic and
muscarinic receptors both bind acetylcholine and are found in sympathetic
neurons, whereas the directly gated receptors in skeletal muscle are muscarinic.
Hexamethonium selectively blocks nicotinic ACh receptors. Muscarinic receptors
activate a second messenger system that closes a K+ channel (called the
M channel).

Question 25

125. found in skeletal muscle For questions 124 to 128, match the receptor with the description. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all. A. muscarinic receptor B. nicotinic receptor C. both D. neither

Answer 25

B

Question 26

126. found in sympathetic neurons or questions 124 to 128, match the receptor with the description. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all. A. muscarinic receptor B. nicotinic receptor C. both D. neither

Answer 26

C

Question 27

127. blocked by hexamethonium For questions 124 to 128, match the receptor with the description. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all. A. muscarinic receptor B. nicotinic receptor C. both D. neither

Answer 27

B

Question 28

128. activates a second messenger system that closes a K+ channel For questions 124 to 128, match the receptor with the description. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all. A. muscarinic receptor B. nicotinic receptor C. both D. neither

Answer 28

A. muscarinic receptor

Question 29

129. The EPSP in spinal motor neurons results from the opening of A. CI- channels only B. Cl- and Na+ channels C. K+ channels only D. Na+ and K+ channels E. Na+ and Cl- channels

Answer 29

D K&S p. 210.

Question 30

130. The response of the carotid sinus to an increase in blood pressure is a I. decrease in peripheral resistence II. decrease in heart rate III. decrease in force of contraction IV. decrease in blood pressure A. I, II,III B. I, III C. II, IV D. IV E. all of the above

Answer 30

E. I. decrease in peripheral resistence II. decrease in heart rate III. decrease in force of contraction IV. decrease in blood pressure K&S p. 967.

Question 31

131. contains actin For questions 131 to 137, match the description with the structure. A. thick filaments B. thin filaments C. both D. neither

Answer 31

B For questions 131-137 see K&S pp. 676-679.

Question 32

132. contains myosin For questions 131 to 137, match the description with the structure. A. thick filaments B. thin filaments C. both D. neither

Answer 32

A

Question 33

133. contains tropomysin For questions 131 to 137, match the description with the structure. A. thick filaments B. thin filaments C. both D. neither

Answer 33

B

Question 34

134. contains troponin For questions 131 to 137, match the description with the structure. A. thick filaments B. thin filaments C. both D. neither

Answer 34

B. thin filaments

Question 35

135. binds ADP during rest For questions 131 to 137, match the description with the structure. A. thick filaments B. thin filaments C. both D. neither

Answer 35

A

Question 36

136. Sarcomeres contain them. For questions 131 to 137, match the description with the structure. A. thick filaments B. thin filaments C. both D. neither

Answer 36

C

Question 37

137. attached to the Z disks For questions 131 to 137, match the description with the structure. A. thick filaments B. thin filaments C. both D. neither

Answer 37

B

Question 38

138. Which of the following is true of skeletal muscle contraction? A. Calcium binds to tropomysin. B. Rotation of myosin heads pulls thin filaments toward the center of the sarcomere. C. The detachment of cross bridges does not require ATP. D. The dissociation of aain from myosin uses energy from the hydrolysis of GTP. E. When muscle relaxes, calcium diffuses into the sarcoplasmic reticulum from the intracellular space.

Answer 38

B. Rotation of myosin heads pulls thin filaments toward the center of the sarcomere. K&S pp. 678-679. During skeletal muscle contraction, calcium binds to troponin. Both the association and detachment of cross bridges require ATP (not GTP). During relaxation, Ca2+ is actively pumped out of the intracellular space and back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

Question 39

139. The resting potential of a neuron is approximately A. -90 mV B. -65 mV C. -50 mV D. +50 mV E. +65 mV

Answer 39

B K&S p.217

Question 40

140. Each of the following agents promote alcohol dehydrogenase (ADH) release except A. alcohol B. angiotensin II C. decreased blood volume D. vomiting E. warmth of skin

Answer 40

A K&S pp. 1006-1007. Alcohol decreases the release of ADH

Question 41

141. Each of the following is a criterion that a chemical messenger should fulfill to be considered a transmitter except A. A specific mechanism exists for removing it from its site of action. B. It is present in the presynaptic terminal and is released in amounts sufficient to exert its action on the postsynaptic neuron or effector organ. C. It is synthesized in the neuron. D. The enzymes that catalyzes the steps in its synthesis are cytoplasmic. E. The exogenously applied substance should mimic the action of the endogenously released transmitter.

Answer 41

D K&S pp. 280-281. The enzymes that catalyze the synthesis of the low molecular weight transmitters are usually cytoplasmic (dopamine-p-hydroxylase is an exception), but this is not a criterion that must be fulfilled for a chemical to be considered a transmitter.

Question 42

142. Each of the following is considered a neurotransmitter except A. epinephrine B. glycine C. histamille D. serotonin E. vasoactive intestinal polypeptide (VIP)

Answer 42

E. vasoactive intestinal polypeptide (VIP) K&S pp. 281, 290. VIP is considered a neuroactive peptide, not a neurotransmitter.

Question 43

143. Each of the following organs is innervated by both the sympathetic and parasympathetic systems except the A. gastrointestinal tract B. heart C lungs and bronchi D. salivary glands E. sweat glands

Answer 43

E K&S p. 964. The sweat glands are innervated by the sympathetic system only.

Question 44

144. Each of the following is true of gamma motor neurons except A. Their activation during active muscle contraction allows muscle spindles to sense changes in length. B. Their activity is increased after lesions of the spinocerebellum. C. They innervate intrafusal fibers. D. Dynamic gamma motor neurons innervate dynamic nuclear bag fibers only. E. Static gamma motor neurons innervate nuclear chain fibers and static nuclear bag fibers.

Answer 44

B. Their activity is increased after lesions of the spinocerebellum. K&S pp. 718-719. The activity of y motor neurons is profoundly reduced by lesions in the cerebellum.

Question 45

145. Neurotransmitters that are found in major descending pain pathways from the pons and medulla are I. dopamine II. norepinephrine III. acetylcholine IV. serotonin A. I, II,III B. I, III C. II. IV D. IV E. all of the above

Answer 45

C.ii. norepinephrine, K&S pp. 483-486. Descending serotonergic pathways (from rostroventral medullary neurons) and noradrenergic pathways (from the pons) are important links in the supraspinal modulation of nociceptive transmission.

Question 46

146. Cell groups that have concentric receptive fields include I. retinal ganglion cells II. simple cells of the primary visual cortex III. lateral geniculate cells IV. complex cells of the primary visual cortex A. I, II, III B. I, Ill C II, IV D. IV E. all of the above

Answer 46

B. I. retinal ganglion cells, K&S pp.529,533-534. Cells of the retina and lateral geniculate nucleus have concentric receptive fields that fall into two classes: on-center or off-center. Simple cells of the visual cortex have rectangular receptive fields. The receptive field of a complex cell in the primary visual cortex has no clearly distinct excitatory or inhibitory zones. Orientation but not position of the light stimulus is important.

Question 47

147. a subcutaneous, slowly adapting receptor For questions 147 to 151. match the sensory receptor with the description. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all. A. free nerve endings B. Meissner's corpuscles C. Merkel's receptors D. pacinian corpuscles E. Ruffini's corpuscles

Answer 47

E For questions 147-151 see K&S pp. 432-435. Meissner's corpuscles and Merkel's receptors are both found superficially in the dermal papillae and have small receptive fields. Pacinian and Ruffini's corpuscles are found in the deeper subcutaneous tissue and have large receptive fields. Both Merkel's receptors and Ruffini's corpuscles are slowly adapting and subserve pressure sensation. Pacinian corpuscles are more sensitive to low- than high-frequency stimuli and transmit flutter. Pain sensation is transmitted by free nerve endings.

Question 48

148.a rapidly adapting receptor found in the dermal papillae A. free nerve endings B. Meissner's corpuscles C. Merkel's receptors D. pacinian corpuscles E. Ruffini's corpuscles

Answer 48

B. Meissner's corpuscles

Question 49

149. a receptor subsewing pressure and with a small receptive field A. free nerve endings B. Meissner's corpuscles C. Merkel's receptors D. pacinian corpuscles E. Ruffini's corpuscles

Answer 49

C. Merkel's receptors

Question 50

150. a rapidly adapting receptor more sensitive to high-frequency stimulation than low-frequency stimulation A. free nerve endings B. Meissner's corpuscles C. Merkel's receptors D. pacinian corpuscles E. Ruffini's corpuscles

Answer 50

D. pacinian corpuscles

Question 51

151. a nociceptor A. free nerve endings B. Meissner's corpuscles C. Merkel's receptors D. pacinian corpuscles E. Ruffini's corpuscles

Answer 51

A. free nerve endings