19.2 Flashcards

(50 cards)

1
Q

19.2 the anti-emetic action of aprepitant is via receptors for
a) serotonin
b) dopamine
c) Nmda
d) Neurokin A
e) Substance P

A

Subs P

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2
Q

19.2 In patients with cephalosporin cross reactivity to penicillin, what is the causative component?
a) Thiazolidine ring
b) Beta lactam ring
c) R1 chain on the beta lactam ring
d) R2 chain on the thiazelidine ring
e) Dihydrothiazine ring

A
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3
Q

19.2 Commonest cause of peri-operative stroke
a) Hypotensive
b) Embolic
c) Thrombotic
d) Hypertensive
e) Haemorrhagic

A
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4
Q

19.2 Which has the highest capacity to absorb infrared radiation in the atmosphere?
a) Nitrous oxide
b) Sevoflurane
c) Desflurane
d) Isoflurane
e) CO2

A
  1. Desflurane
    DINS
    CO2 = reference gas (1)
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5
Q

19.2 When do spinal reflexes normally return after an acute spinal injury?

A. 1-3 days
B. 7 days
C. 28-40 days
D. 120 days
E. 365 days

A

1-3 d

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6
Q

19.2 What are the minimum PACU nurse to patient ratios?
a) 1 nurse of each patient that has not regained airway reflexes, 1 nurse for 2 awake patients who have regained airway reflexes
b) 1 nurse of each patient that has not regained airway reflexes, 1 nurse for 3 awake patients who have regained airway reflexes
c) 1 nurse of each patient that has not regained airway reflexes, 1 nurse for 4 awake patients who have regained airway reflexes
d) 1 nurse of 2 patients that has not regained airway reflexes, 1 nurse for 2 awake patients who have regained airway reflexes
e) 1 nurse of 2 patients that has not regained airway reflexes, 1 nurse for 3 awake patients who have regained airway reflexes

A

A
M1:1 for any patient who has not regained protective airway reflexes
(i.e., still sedated, obstructing risk, opioid-loaded, residual NMB etc.)
• 1:2 for awake, stable patients who have regained airway reflexes

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7
Q

19.2 The backboard of the anaesthetic machine is on fire.
What is the best way to put it out?
a) CO2
b) Fire blanket
c) Wet chemical powder
d) Foam
e) Water

A

CO2

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8
Q

19.2 20 year old man has suffered a TBI. What SBP (mmHg) would you aim for?
a) 90
b) 100
c) 110
d) 120
e) 140

A

110 outside this

100 for 50-70 y

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9
Q

19.2 The substance that should be avoided in a patient with history of anaphylaxis to MMR vaccine is?
a) Penicillin
b) Gelofusin
c) Sulphonamides
d) Hydrolase

A

Gelofusin

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10
Q

19.2 Thirteen year old boy playing sport collapses. Sweaty, abdominal pain, headache, palpitations and hyperglycaemic.
What is the most likely cause?
a) Phaeochromocytoma
b) Insulinoma
c) Hyperthyroidism
d) Hypothyroidism
e) Carcinoid syndrome

A

A

Not
Insulinoma

→ Causes hypoglycaemia, not hyperglycaemia.

Hyperthyroidism

Can cause palpitations + sweating but not sudden collapse with severe hyperglycaemia.

Hypothyroidism

Bradycardic, cold, lethargic — nothing like this.

Carcinoid syndrome

Typically flushing + diarrhoea, not hyperglycaemia, palpitations, or exercise-triggered collapse.

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11
Q

19.2 What is the corrected QTc for someone with QT interval of 420ms at a rate of 60bpm?
a) 360 ms
b) 380 ms
c) 420 ms
d) 460 ms
e) 480 ms

A

QTc = QT/✔️RR

At 60 bpm, RR = 1.0 sec

QTc = 420/✔️1 = 420ms

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12
Q

19.2 What is the cause?
a) Hypothermia
b) Hypocalcaemia
c) Hypomagnesaemia
d) Hyponatraemia
e) Hypothyroid

A

Hypothermia J wave
Also occur with hypERcalcaemia

•	Normal variants (young, athletic patients)
•	Early repolarisation pattern
•	Brugada syndrome
•	Hypercalcaemia
•	Ischaemia
•	Hypothermia (→ Osborn wave subtype)

👉 J-wave = umbrella term

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13
Q

19.2 An 80-year-old woman is admitted to hospital with respiratory failure. Her arterial blood gas on oxygen 4 litres per minute via a Hudson mask is as follows: Ph 7.2
P02 91
Pc02 84
BE 16
HCO3 43
NA 145

Which of the following most accurately describes this blood gas result?
a) Metabolic alkalosis, acute resp acidosis + normal AG
b) Metabolic alkalosis resp acidaemia + abnormal AG
c) Mixed acidaemia
d) Respiratory Acidosis with incomplete compensation
e) Compensated Respiratory acidosis

A

e) Compensated respiratory acidosis

Quick breakdown:

pH 7.20 → acidaemia

PaCO₂ 84 mmHg → very high → primary respiratory acidosis

HCO₃⁻ 43 mmol/L, BE +16 → markedly elevated → metabolic compensation, not acidosis

No chloride given → you can’t comment on anion gap, so (a) and (b) are out.

Mixed acidaemia (c) would require low HCO₃⁻, not 43.

Check expected compensation:

ΔCO₂ = 84 − 40 = 44 mmHg

For chronic resp acidosis, HCO₃⁻ ↑ ≈ 3.5–4 mmol/L per 10 mmHg →
Expected HCO₃⁻ ≈ 24 + (4 × 4.4) ≈ 24 + 17.6 ≈ 41–42

Actual HCO₃⁻ 43 → fits chronic (compensated) respiratory acidosis, not acute/incomplete.

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14
Q

19.2 A 65 year old female is having a knee arthroplasty. What is the most predictive factor for chronic post operative pain?
a) Anxiety
b) Catastrophising
c) Depression
d) Female
e) Pain at other sites

A

Catastrophising is the strongest psychological predictor of developing chronic postoperative pain.

It outperforms:

Anxiety

Depression

Female sex

Pre-operative pain at other sites

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15
Q

19.2 A size 9 SLT is closest in external diameter to what size DLT?
a) 27Fr
b) 35Fr
c) 37Fr
d) 39Fr
e) 41Fr

A

37Fr / 3 = 12.3mm ED

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16
Q

19.2 Soon after a peribulbar block, the patient’s eye rapidly becomes proptosed and tense, and the visual acuity is markedly decreased. A lateral canthotomy is indicated to:
a) Allow globe to continue to swell
b) Drain blood from behind eyeball
c) Allow the eye to proptose
d) Reduce pressure on the optic nerve

A

c) Allow the eye to proptose

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17
Q

19.2 Patient had a hysteroscopy and is now woken up in PACU. ABG done with Na 118, K 3.1. Patient is orientated to person but not to time and place. What is the best management?

A. Frusemide 40mg IV stat
B. Potassium 40mmol over 4 hours
C. 500ml normal saline
D. 100ml 3% saline
E. Fluid restrict

A

D. 100ml 3% saline
Symptomatic hyponatraemia

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18
Q

19.2 A stroke patient presenting for clot retrieval with a right hemisensory loss and right homonymous hemianopia most likely has occlusion of the left .

a.anterior cerebral artery
b.anterior inferior cerebellar artery
c.posterior cerebral artery
d.posterior inferior cerebellar artery
e.superior cerebral artery

A

left posterior cerebral artery (PCA)

left occipital lobe (visual cortex)
* Nasal retinal fibres cross in the optic chiasm
* Temporal fibres stay ipsilateral
* Both sets project to the contralateral lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN)
* Then to the contralateral occipital lobe

left thalamus (VPL nucleus)
* Spinothalamic + dorsal column pathways
* Ascend to the contralateral thalamus (VPL nucleus)
* Then to the contralateral sensory cortex

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19
Q

19.2 If a women being treated for neuropathic pain becomes pregnant, what is the safest neuropathic analgesic to use in pregnancy?

A. Carbamazepine
B. Lamotrigine
C. Gabapentin
D. Sodium valproate
E. Phenytoin

A

Lamotrigine

Lowest teratogenic risk among antiepileptics

Major congenital malformation (MCM) rate ≈ 2–3%, similar to background

No increased risk of neural tube defects

Widely considered the drug of choice for women of child-bearing age when an anticonvulsant is required

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20
Q

19.2 When to medically intervene in seizure post ECT?

A. 30 seconds
B. 60 seconds
C. 90 seconds
D. 120 seconds
E. 150 seconds

A

120s

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21
Q

19.2 WHO essential services criteria (i.e. procedures that are an indication of provision of services include…

A. Manual removal of placenta
B. Laparotomy
C. Cleft palate
D. Skin grafts
E. Cataracts

A

Lancet Commission (Lancet 2015;386:569–624):

The Commission identifies three operations that act as indicators of a health system’s surgical capability:

Laparotomy

Caesarean delivery

Management of open fractures

22
Q

19.2 When using ROTEM, the APTEM relates to:

A. Clotting factors
B. Hypofibrinoginaemia
C. Direct thrombin inhibition
D. Decreased platelets
E. Fibrinolysis

A

Fibrinolysis
Aprotinin or TXA added
- plasmin inhibitor

TXA attaches to lysine-binding sites on plasminogen preventing binding og tissue plasminogen activator
^MCQ asking where TXA binds

23
Q

19.2 Where is the tip of this PICC line?

A. Azygous vein
B. Coronary sinus
C. RA
D. LA
E. SVC

A

Azygous vein

Radiographics review – Central Venous Catheter Malposition

(Radiographics 2014;34:1528–1545)

A catheter entering the azygos vein typically turns medially then ascends, creating a curved or upward-directed tip at the right mediastinal border.

24
Q

19.2 Which brachial plexus block has the highest chance of a paralysed hemidiaphgram?

A. Interscalene
B. Supraclavicular
C. Infraclavicular
D. Axillary
E. Cervical

25
19.2 69-year-old lady has a right heart catheter for new onset dyspnoea. PCWP 10mmHg. [Waveform showing PAP 74/28 consistently throughout cycle] What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Aortic stenosis B. Mitral regurgitation C. Mitral stenosis D. Pulmonary embolism E. Emphysema
PE
26
19.2 Post scoliosis repair, decreased movement in legs bilaterally with decreased pain and temperature sensation. Spared proprioception and vibration sense. What is at fault? A. Posterior spinal arteries B. Anterior spinal arteries C. Epidural haematoma D. Misplaced pedicle screw E. Lateral cord syndrome
Anterior spinal artery
27
19.2 Which of the following drugs does not decrease mortality in heart failure? A. ACE inhibitors B. Beta blockers C. Angiotensin receptor blockers D. Spironolactone E. Digoxin
DIG Trial — NEJM 1997;336:525–533 Digoxin did not reduce all-cause mortality; it reduced hospitalisations for worsening HF but had no mortality benefit.
28
19.2 ? year old male on digoxin 125mcg daily for AF having ?surgery. Bronchospasm post induction so given salbutamol via ETT successfully. Shortly thereafter in AF with rapid ventricular rate (or just ‘tachycardic’) rate of 120bpm BP 90/60mmHg with EtCO2 40mmHg. What do you use to treat? a. Amiodarone 150/300 mg over 20 minutes then 0.5-1mg/minute b. Cardioversion at 50J c. Digoxin 250/500microg over 20 minutes d. Esmolol 500 mcg and then run an infusion at 50mcg/kg/min e. Metoprolol (something bolus and infusion rate) f. Lignocaine also an option?
Amiodarone 150–300 mg over 20–30 minutes, followed by infusion 0.5–1 mg/min. Safest and guideline-supported option for AF with marginal BP i.e. β-blockers and CCBs are contraindicated. B. Cardioversion 50J Not indicated unless severe instability. BP 90/60 + normal EtCO₂ = not unstable enough. C. Digoxin bolus Already taking so wouldn't load. Slow onset D. Esmolol Hypotension: avoid with BP 90/60. E. Metoprolol Same issue as esmolol F. Lignocaine Not a rate-control agent in AF. Ventricular arrhythmias.
29
19.2 A 29 year old otherwise fit healthy man has the following anaesthetic: Propofol 180mg / Rocuronium 50mg / Cefazolin 2g / Morphine 8mg Immediately after he develops tachycardia, hypotension, red rash on chest and lip swelling. Initial blood results: Tryptase at 1 hour 321 >11 Tryptase at 3 hours 58 >11 RAST Morphine 29 >15 Serum IgE 88 <300 A. IgE mediated anaphylaxis to cefazolin B. IgE mediated anaphylaxis to morphine C. IgE mediated anaphylaxis to rocuronium D. Opioid induced histamine release E. Mastocytosis
Roc most likely Cef next most likely RAST-morphine is meaningless - Morphine IgE tests are often false-positive in NMBA-sensitised patients due to cross-reactivity at the IgE binding site.
30
19.2 What is the outcome for early use of tranexamic acid in trauma patients? A. No change in all-cause mortality, no change in transfusion rates B. No change in all-cause mortality, decreased transfusion rates C. Decreased mortality of all cause, no change in transfusion rates D. Decreased mortality from bleeding but not all cause, no change in transfusion rates E. Decreased mortality of all cause, decreased transfusion rates
C CRASH2 Dec all mortality No change in transfusion
31
19.2 During endovascular repair of an aneurysm the proceduralist expresses concern about rupturing the aneurysm. Each of the following could be part of your management except? A. Mannitol B. Protamine C. Mild induction of hypotension D. Immediately transfer to theatre E. Continue coiling
D. Several steps before transfer to OT SNACC guidelines also don’t advocate for hypotension - just say “aim for baseline, then consider increasing BP once control gained as ICP likely high”
32
19.2 Dental damage risk to be determined in your department. 100 cases reviewed, zero cases of dental damage. What is the 95% confidence interval? A. 0/100 B. 1/100 C. 3/100 D. 5/100 E. 9/100
3/n =3/100
33
19.2 What does this ECG show? A. Viral myocarditis B. HOCM C. Acute inferior ischaemia
HOCM - atypical variant, deep TWI no Qwave
34
19.2 What is the estimated RVSP? CVP is 5mmHg (Picture had velocity of 3 m/s) A. 39 mmHg B. 41 mmHg C. 45 mmHg D. 50 mmHg E. 61 mmHg
Use modified Bernoulli for TR jet: \text{RVSP} \approx 4V^2 + \text{RAP (≈CVP)} Given V = 3.0 m/s and CVP = 5 mmHg: • 4 \times 3^2 = 4 \times 9 = 36 mmHg • 36 + 5 = 41 mmHg Answer: B. 41 mmHg
35
19.2 4-year-old having a tracheostomy – what structure is most likely to be damaged? 18B-099 What structure are you most likely to damage in elective tracheostomy in a 4 yo? A. Brachiocephalic artery B. Phrenic nerve C. Vagus nerve D. Vertebral artery E. Thoracic duct
Brachiocephalic a
36
19.2 Which of the following is associated with increased risk of AFE? A. LSCS B. Induction of labour C. Oxytocin infusion D. Forceps delivery E. Pre-eclampsia
Technically all but IOL has strongest evidence
37
19.2 When performing a breast block, what structure is marked X? A. Pectoralis minor B. Latissimus dorsi C. Serratus anterior D. Pectoralis major E. Teres major F. Teres minor
PECS II Block - pec major
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