2 - 2 Pleural Effusion Flashcards

(40 cards)

1
Q
  1. Which primary symptom is most commonly reported by clients with pleural effusion?
    A. Dyspnea on exertion or at rest
    D. Productive cough with green sputum
    C. Sudden hemoptysis
    B. Inspiratory stridor
A

Dyspnea occurs due to fluid compression of lung tissue, reducing lung expansion. Cough and stridor are less typical.

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2
Q
  1. A client with pleural effusion reports sharp chest pain that worsens with inspiration. What is this symptom called?
    A. Pleuritic pain
    D. Visceral pain
    C. Musculoskeletal pain
    B. Radiating cardiac pain
A

Pleuritic pain is sharp and increases with deep breathing or coughing due to inflamed pleura.

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3
Q
  1. Upon chest percussion, what sound indicates the presence of fluid in the pleural space?
    A. Dullness
    D. Resonance
    C. Hyperresonance
    B. Tympany
A

Dullness is heard over fluid-filled areas, unlike resonance over normal lung tissue.

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4
Q
  1. Which breath sound finding is typical in pleural effusion?
    A. Diminished or absent breath sounds over the affected area
    D. Crackles and rhonchi bilaterally
    C. Wheezing in all lobes
    B. Harsh bronchial sounds
A

Decreased or absent sounds occur because fluid blocks transmission of breath sounds.

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5
Q
  1. Which diagnostic imaging test is most commonly used to confirm pleural effusion?
    A. Chest X-ray
    D. PET scan
    C. Echocardiogram
    B. Ultrasound only
A

Chest X-ray is the first-line tool; it shows fluid accumulation and blunting of the costophrenic angle.

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6
Q
  1. On a chest X-ray, what characteristic finding indicates pleural effusion?
    A. Blunting of costophrenic angle
    D. Hyperinflated lung fields
    C. Honeycomb pattern
    B. Patchy consolidation
A

Blunting of the costophrenic angle and meniscus sign are hallmark X-ray findings.

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7
Q
  1. A nurse notes that the trachea is deviated away from the affected side. This indicates:
    A. Large pleural effusion causing mediastinal shift
    D. Simple pneumothorax
    C. Atelectasis on same side
    B. Normal finding
A

A massive effusion can push mediastinal structures away from the fluid-filled side.

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8
Q
  1. What is the expected finding on tactile fremitus in a patient with moderate pleural effusion?
    A. Decreased or absent fremitus over fluid area
    D. Increased fremitus
    C. Normal vibration
    B. Bilateral symmetry
A

Fluid dampens vibrations, leading to decreased fremitus over affected areas.

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9
Q
  1. Which test definitively determines whether a pleural effusion is transudative or exudative?
    A. Pleural fluid analysis using Light’s criteria
    D. Chest CT
    C. ECG
    B. Spirometry
A

Light’s criteria compare pleural and serum protein/LDH to classify effusion type.

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10
Q
  1. Which finding on pleural fluid analysis indicates an exudative effusion?
    A. Pleural fluid protein/serum protein ratio > 0.5
    D. Pleural fluid glucose > 60 mg/dL
    C. pH 7.4
    B. Low LDH level
A

An elevated protein ratio (>0.5) and high LDH are diagnostic of exudates.

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11
Q
  1. Which bedside diagnostic procedure both removes and analyzes pleural fluid?
    A. Thoracentesis
    D. Bronchoscopy
    C. Mediastinoscopy
    B. Thoracotomy
A

Thoracentesis is used for both diagnostic and therapeutic pleural fluid removal.

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12
Q
  1. A client with a small effusion may have which auscultatory finding at lung bases?
    A. Diminished breath sounds
    D. Fine crackles
    C. Wheezing
    B. Bronchial sounds
A

Small effusions often present with decreased sounds due to early fluid buildup.

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13
Q
  1. A nurse is assessing a client with suspected pleural effusion. Which finding supports the diagnosis?
    A. Decreased chest expansion on the affected side
    D. Increased tactile fremitus
    C. Equal chest excursion
    B. Loud vesicular sounds
A

Chest expansion decreases on the fluid-filled side because of restricted lung movement.

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14
Q
  1. When analyzing pleural fluid, a milky white appearance indicates:
    A. Chylothorax (lymphatic fluid leakage)
    D. Empyema
    C. Transudative effusion
    B. Malignant effusion
A

Chylothorax occurs when lymphatic fluid enters the pleural space, producing a milky appearance.

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15
Q
  1. Which pleural fluid characteristic indicates possible infection or empyema?
    A. Purulent or foul-smelling appearance
    D. Clear, straw-colored fluid
    C. Bloody effusion
    B. Milky white
A

Purulent or foul-smelling fluid signifies infection or empyema formation.

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16
Q
  1. Which noninvasive imaging tool is best for guiding thoracentesis?
    A. Ultrasound
    D. MRI
    C. PET scan
    B. Fluoroscopy
A

Ultrasound safely localizes fluid and reduces procedure risk during thoracentesis.

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17
Q
  1. Which clinical sign differentiates pleural effusion from pulmonary edema?
    A. Dullness to percussion and reduced breath sounds localized to one side
    D. Bilateral crackles with frothy sputum
    C. Wheezing with cough
    B. Pink sputum
A

Pleural effusion causes localized dullness; pulmonary edema presents bilaterally.

18
Q
  1. Which laboratory test may identify infection as the cause of effusion?
    A. Pleural fluid culture and Gram stain
    D. Serum LDH
    C. Arterial blood gases
    B. CBC alone
A

Pleural fluid culture identifies bacterial pathogens confirming empyema.

19
Q
  1. Which patient complaint suggests increasing pleural effusion volume?
    A. Worsening shortness of breath and orthopnea
    D. Decreased fatigue
    C. Relief with deep breathing
    B. Loud productive cough
A

Dyspnea and orthopnea progress as fluid compresses the lung further.

20
Q
  1. What is a typical finding on chest auscultation above the level of the effusion?
    A. Bronchial breath sounds
    D. Crackles
    C. Wheezes
    B. Pleural rub
A

Bronchial breath sounds may be heard above fluid due to lung compression.

21
Q
  1. Which diagnostic tool best quantifies pleural fluid volume and detects small effusions?
    A. Chest CT scan
    D. Chest X-ray (PA view)
    C. Ultrasound only
    B. Spirometry
A

CT scanning provides accurate assessment of fluid location and volume.

22
Q
  1. Which pleural fluid characteristic is consistent with malignancy?
    A. Presence of cancer cells on cytology
    D. High glucose level
    C. Clear straw color
    B. Low LDH
A

Cytology showing malignant cells confirms malignant effusion.

23
Q
  1. What is the expected finding in severe pleural effusion on inspection?
    A. Asymmetrical chest expansion with lag on affected side
    D. Barrel chest
    C. Use of accessory muscles bilaterally
    B. Tracheal tugging
A

Fluid restricts expansion, causing uneven chest movement.

24
Q
  1. When listening to breath sounds in a patient with pleural effusion, the nurse may note:
    A. Decreased or absent sounds with egophony above fluid level
    D. Fine crackles throughout lungs
    C. Wheezes only
    B. Normal vesicular sounds
A

Absent sounds over fluid with egophony above it are hallmark findings.

25
25. Which diagnostic test helps assess pleural thickening or tumor infiltration after effusion? A. CT or pleural biopsy D. ABG analysis C. Chest X-ray only B. Sputum test
CT and pleural biopsy detect malignant or fibrotic pleural changes after effusion.
26
1. Which class of medications is commonly prescribed to reduce pleural effusion caused by congestive heart failure? A. Diuretics (e.g., furosemide) D. Antibiotics C. Corticosteroids B. Anticoagulants
Diuretics relieve fluid overload and reduce hydrostatic pressure, decreasing transudative effusion formation in CHF.
27
2. What is the primary purpose of administering antibiotics in pleural effusion? A. Treat underlying infectious cause such as pneumonia or empyema D. Increase fluid reabsorption C. Prevent pulmonary embolism B. Reduce inflammation only
Antibiotics treat bacterial infections responsible for parapneumonic effusion or empyema.
28
3. Which medication may be used to reduce inflammation in autoimmune or malignant pleural effusion? A. Corticosteroids D. Loop diuretics C. Bronchodilators B. Antihistamines
Corticosteroids decrease pleural inflammation in autoimmune and certain malignant effusions.
29
4. What is the purpose of pleurodesis in recurrent pleural effusions? A. Obliterate pleural space to prevent fluid reaccumulation D. Drain fluid temporarily C. Replace pleural fluid B. Improve lymphatic flow
Pleurodesis fuses pleural layers using agents (e.g., talc), preventing recurrent effusions.
30
5. Which pharmacologic agent is commonly used for chemical pleurodesis? A. Talc slurry D. Furosemide C. Heparin B. Ceftriaxone
Talc induces pleural inflammation and adhesion, effectively preventing recurrence.
31
6. Which type of effusion typically requires both antibiotics and chest tube drainage? A. Empyema (infected pleural fluid) D. Transudative CHF effusion C. Hepatic hydrothorax B. Chylothorax
Empyema requires antibiotics and chest tube drainage to remove pus and infection.
32
7. What is the therapeutic goal of thoracentesis? A. Relieve dyspnea and obtain diagnostic fluid sample D. Expand alveoli permanently C. Replace fluid B. Prevent cough reflex
Thoracentesis removes fluid to relieve compression and allows analysis of pleural fluid.
33
8. Which analgesic intervention best supports comfort during pleural effusion treatment? A. Administer prescribed pain medication before deep-breathing exercises D. Avoid all narcotics C. Encourage fasting B. Apply ice pack only
Administering analgesia before breathing exercises encourages participation and reduces pain.
34
9. Which medication may be given before pleurodesis to manage discomfort? A. Local anesthetic or systemic analgesic D. Antibiotic prophylaxis C. Diuretic B. Bronchodilator
Analgesics or anesthetics are administered to manage pleuritic pain during pleurodesis.
35
10. For patients with malignant pleural effusion, which treatment provides long-term symptom relief? A. Indwelling pleural catheter placement D. Frequent thoracentesis only C. High-dose diuretics B. Chest physiotherapy
Indwelling pleural catheters allow continuous outpatient drainage for recurrent malignant effusions.
36
11. Why is fluid removal during thoracentesis limited to 1–1.5 liters at a time? A. Prevent re-expansion pulmonary edema D. Prevent dehydration C. Avoid hypotension only B. Reduce risk of infection
Rapid large-volume removal may cause re-expansion pulmonary edema and hemodynamic instability.
37
12. Which medication supports pleural effusion treatment related to tuberculosis? A. Anti-tuberculosis drugs (e.g., isoniazid, rifampin) D. Antifungals C. Corticosteroids alone B. Antivirals
Anti-TB medications eradicate Mycobacterium tuberculosis, treating the effusion’s underlying cause.
38
13. In a patient with heart failure–related effusion, which combined treatment approach is appropriate? A. Diuretics and sodium restriction D. Antibiotics and bronchodilators C. Pleurodesis only B. Steroids and hydration
Diuretics plus sodium restriction reduce circulating volume and venous pressure, limiting fluid buildup.
39
14. What immediate nursing action should be taken if hypotension develops during thoracentesis? A. Stop procedure and assess for signs of hypovolemia D. Lower head of bed C. Continue and drain faster B. Administer diuretics
Stopping the procedure prevents further volume loss and allows assessment for shock.
40
15. Which treatment is indicated when pleural effusion recurs frequently despite thoracentesis? A. Pleurodesis or indwelling pleural catheter D. Continuous antibiotic therapy C. Antihypertensive therapy B. Bronchodilators only
Pleurodesis or indwelling catheter offers long-term management to prevent repeated fluid buildup.