Which of the following is a core assessment finding in out-of-hospital cardiac arrest?
A) Reactive pupils
B) Unresponsive and pulseless
C) Stable blood pressure
D) Regular breathing
Correct Answer: B) Unresponsive and pulseless
Explanation:
Cardiac arrest is defined by lack of responsiveness and absence of pulses (both central and peripheral).
A: Pupillary response is not the primary assessment in cardiac arrest.
C: Patients are hypotensive or have no measurable blood pressure during arrest.
D: Breathing is absent or abnormal, not regular.
Which respiratory pattern is most characteristic during the initial phase of cardiac arrest?
A) Eupnea
B) Kussmaul breathing
C) Apnea or agonal gasping
D) Hyperventilation
Correct Answer: C) Apnea or agonal gasping
Explanation:
During cardiac arrest, victims commonly present with either apnea or agonal (gasping) breathing, which signals brainstem reflex activity and requires immediate resuscitation.
A: Normal breathing is never seen.
B: Kussmaul is associated with metabolic acidosis, not arrest.
D: Hyperventilation cannot occur in pulseless states.
What is the most common underlying cause of out-of-hospital cardiac arrest worldwide?
A) Pulmonary embolism
B) Coronary artery disease
C) Trauma
D) Congenital heart disease
Correct Answer: B) Coronary artery disease
Explanation:
Ischemic heart disease (IHD)/coronary artery disease (CAD) is the leading global cause of out-of-hospital cardiac arrest, accounting for the majority of cases, especially in adults over 35.
A: PE is a less common cause.
C: Trauma is less frequent globally.
D: Congenital heart disease is a rare etiology in adults.
Which of the following most correctly indicates the need to initiate CPR in a person found outside the hospital setting?
A) Gasping but conscious, strong pulse
B) Unresponsive, pulseless, apnea/agonal breaths
C) Responds to painful stimuli, pulse present
D) Shallow breathing, pulse present
Answer: B) Unresponsive, pulseless, apnea/agonal breaths
The most common cause of sudden cardiac arrest in adults over 35 years of age is:
A) Cardiomyopathy
B) Myocarditis
C) Coronary artery disease
D) Severe electrolyte disturbance
Answer: C) Coronary artery disease
What should a bystander do if a person is unresponsive, pulse is absent, and gasping/apnea is present?
A) Wait for emergency services before any intervention
B) Start CPR and call for help immediately
C) Place in recovery position
D) Give water and monitor
Answer: B) Start CPR and call for help immediately
Which of the following is classified as a shockable rhythm in the management of cardiac arrest?
A) Asystole
B) Pulseless electrical activity (PEA)
C) Ventricular fibrillation (VF)
D) Sinus tachycardia
Correct Answer: C) Ventricular fibrillation (VF)
Explanation:
Ventricular fibrillation and pulseless ventricular tachycardia are the two shockable rhythms in cardiac arrest, and can be treated with defibrillation. Asystole and PEA are not responsive to shock and require high-quality CPR and identification of reversible causes
What is the primary reason for the lower survival rates in non-shockable rhythms compared to shockable rhythms?
A) Non-shockable rhythms are always reversible
B) Defibrillation is ineffective for non-shockable rhythms
C) Non-shockable rhythms have higher cardiac output
D) Survival rates are equal for both rhythm types
Correct Answer: B) Defibrillation is ineffective for non-shockable rhythms
Explanation:
Defibrillation is not effective for asystole and PEA, the non-shockable rhythms. These require CPR, epinephrine, and rapid management of underlying causes, leading to lower survival rates. Shockable rhythms are more likely to be reversed if defibrillation is performed promptly.
Which statement regarding pulseless cardiac arrest rhythms is TRUE?
A) Ventricular tachycardia is always non-shockable
B) Asystole has a higher survival rate than VF
C) Pulseless VT/VF can convert to asystole without treatment
D) Defibrillation is indicated in all cardiac arrest rhythms
Correct Answer: C) Pulseless VT/VF can convert to asystole without treatment
Explanation:
Untreated shockable rhythms such as VF or pulseless VT can deteriorate to asystole, the flatline non-shockable rhythm. Defibrillation should be targeted only at VF and pulseless VT, not PEA/asystole
Which rhythm is NOT shockable in cardiac arrest management?
A) Ventricular fibrillation
B) Pulseless ventricular tachycardia
C) Pulseless electrical activity
D) Torsades de Pointes
Answer: C) Pulseless electrical activity (PEA)
A patient in cardiac arrest shows a flat-line ECG. What is the immediate management?
A) Attempt defibrillation
B) Provide high-quality CPR and identify reversible causes
C) Administer adenosine
D) Rapid synchronized cardioversion
Answer: B) Provide high-quality CPR and identify reversible causes
Which of the following is most likely to improve survival in shockable rhythms compared to non-shockable rhythms?
A) Early defibrillation
B) Only intravenous fluids
C) Atropine administration
D) Hyperventilation
Answer: A) Early defibrillation
What is the first step when encountering a possible victim of cardiac arrest in any setting?
A) Activate emergency response
B) Start chest compressions
C) Check scene safety
D) Check for a pulse
Correct Answer: C) Check scene safety
Explanation:
Always ensure that the environment is safe for rescuers and victims before proceeding to additional steps in basic life support (BLS).
A: Activation comes after ensuring safety.
B: Chest compressions come after confirming cardiac arrest.
D: Pulse check is important but not the first step.
What is the recommended compression-to-ventilation ratio for adult CPR during single-rescuer BLS?
A) 15:2
B) 20:1
C) 30:2
D) 5:1
Correct Answer: C) 30:2
Explanation:
The appropriate compression-to-breath ratio for adults (and for children with a single rescuer) is 30 compressions to 2 rescue breaths.
A: 15:2 is for two-rescuer child/infant.
B, D: Not recommended ratios for any age group.
What should you do if a cardiac arrest victim has no pulse and is not breathing, and an AED is available?
A) Start CPR, attach AED, follow AED prompts
B) Give only rescue breaths
C) Place in recovery position
D) Start CPR and check pulse every 30 seconds
Correct Answer: A) Start CPR, attach AED, follow AED prompts
Explanation:
CPR should be started immediately, and the AED should be used as soon as available, following its voice and visual prompts, to improve survival.
B: Not appropriate if no pulse.
C: Recovery position is for stable, breathing patients.
D: CPR cycle is checked every 2 minutes, not 30 seconds.
Rescue breaths for a patient with a pulse but no normal breathing should be given at what rate?
A) 1 breath every 3 seconds
B) 1 breath every 5-6 seconds
C) 1 breath every 10 seconds
D) 1 breath every 30 seconds
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
For adults, when a pulse is present but no normal breathing, give a rescue breath every 5-6 seconds (10-12 per min),
Where should you check for a pulse in an unresponsive adult before starting CPR?
A) Brachial artery
B) Carotid artery
C) Femoral artery
D) Popliteal artery
Answer: B) Carotid artery
What is the correct next step if you find a person unresponsive, not breathing, and with no pulse?
A) Wait for an AED before intervening
B) Start CPR immediately
C) Give rescue breaths only
D) Place in the recovery position
Answer: B) Start CPR immediately
After every 2 minutes (about 5 cycles) of CPR, what is the next recommended action?
A) Check pulse and rhythm
B) Change the position of the patient
C) Continue uninterrupted CPR
D) Give 5 rescue breaths
Answer: A) Check pulse and rhythm
During AED use, where should the right and left electrode pads be placed for optimal defibrillation during cardiac arrest?
A) Right pad: lower abdomen; Left pad: apex of the heart
B) Right pad: right upper sternal border (2nd intercostal space); Left pad: mid-axillary line (5th intercostal space)
C) Both pads on upper sternum
D) Right pad: left clavicle; Left pad: right axilla
Correct Answer: B) Right pad: right upper sternal border (2nd intercostal space); Left pad: mid-axillary line (5th intercostal space)
Explanation:
For effective defibrillation, the right pad goes just below the clavicle on the right sternal border, while the left pad should be placed lateral to the apex of heart at the 5th intercostal space or in the mid-axillary line.
What is the appropriate chest compression rate and depth for adult CPR?
A) 60–80/min, 2–3 cm
B) 100–120/min, 5–6 cm
C) 120–160/min, 2 cm
D) 80–100/min, 4–5 cm
orrect Answer: B) 100–120/min, 5–6 cm
Explanation:
For high quality adult CPR, compress at a rate of 100-120 per minute and a depth of 5-6 cm to allow for adequate perfusion and elastic recoil.
Where should chest compressions be performed during CPR?
A) Middle third of sternum
B) Over xiphisternum
C) Lower third of sternum
D) Right costal margin
Correct Answer: C) Lower third of sternum
Explanation:
Chest compressions should be delivered over the lower third of the sternum, avoiding the xiphisternum to prevent injury.
Which ribs are most commonly fractured during CPR and why?
A) 7th–9th, less angular
B) 4th–6th, more angulated
C) First rib, due to its position
D) None, rib fracture is rare in CPR
Correct Answer: B) 4th–6th, more angulated
Explanation:
Fractures during CPR typically occur in 4th–6th ribs as they are more angulated, receiving maximum force during chest compressions
In bag and mask ventilation for airway management, which device is most appropriate for providing positive pressure ventilation?
A) Ambu bag
B) Nasal cannula
C) CPAP mask
D) Nebulizer
Correct Answer: A) Ambu bag
Explanation:
The Ambu (Artificial Manual Breathing Unit) bag is standard for manual positive pressure ventilation in CPR settings
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1. Mitral Valve Prolapse54
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2. Percutaneous Coronary Intervention (PCI)30
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3. Heart Sounds 181
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4. Heart sound 2137
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5. Heart sounds 387
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6. Mitral Valve Prolapse62
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7. Mitral Regurgitation (MR)43
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8. Aortic Stenosis58
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9. Aortic Regurgitation87
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10. Tricuspid stenosis old27
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11. Tricuspid Regurgitation old80
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12. Murmurs old110
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13. Takotsubo Cardiomyopathy51
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14. ECG & Arrhythmias 1219
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15. ECG & Arrhythmias 2154
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17. Ischemic Heart Disease390
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21. Metabolic Syndrome X and Z26
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22. Hypertension157
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23. Diseases of the pericardium87
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Med 3 - undergoing edit82
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24. Congestive heart failure115
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25. Bundle Branch Block74
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26. Rheumatic Heart Disease36
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33. BLS114
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MED 1180
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MED 1351
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MED 14219
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10. Tricuspid stenosis27
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11. Tricuspid Regurgitation80
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12. Murmurs110
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29. Cardiomyopathies26
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27. Infective Endocarditis183
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26. Rheumatic Heart Disease95
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30. Multifocal Atrial Tachycardia27
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32. BLS42
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33. Pulseless Electrical Activity61
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34. ACLS48
