5.9 FLIGHT CONTROL Flashcards

(58 cards)

1
Q

What does the normal light mean on tail & wing switches (flight control surfaces)?

A

The respective flight control surfaces are unlocked.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What does the lock amber lights mean on tail & wing switches (flight control surfaces)?

A

The flight control surface are locked, automatically unlocks when ground speed
exceeds 40 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When will flight control surfaces FAIL light illuminate?

A

When a lock switch is in the lock position and any of the associated Surfaces are not
locked.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How many flight control mode dose the aircraft have?

A

Normal , Secondary & Direct.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How many flight control computers do B787 have?

A

3 PFC’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How many actuators control electronics?

A

4 ACE’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The PFC’s use informations from other airplane system what are they?

A

o IRU(lnertial reference unit )
o Slats & Flaps position
o ADR (air data reference)
o Radio altitude
o Engine thrust.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What will cause the primary flight control to switch to secondary Mode?

A

When inertial or air data is insufficient to support normal mode or when all slat and flap
position data is unavailable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

In the event of loss of all hydraulic power, what flight controls are available?

A

The electrically actuated stabilizer and 2 spoiler pairs, through the trim switches and
control wheel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

If there is a complete loss of flight control signaling, what flight controls are available?

A

Direct wiring to the stabilizer and 1 spoiler pair, through the alternate pitch trim and
control wheel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the Envelope protection?

A

Stall protection, Overspeed protection, Bank angle protection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the 3 flaps modes?

A

Primary, Secondary, Alternate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When do the flaps and slats operate in secondary mode?

A

o When the Center hydraulic system has failed OR
o Control surface travel at less than 50% of the normal hydraulic rate OR
o Flaps or slats disagree is detected OR
o Flaps or slats primary control failure OR
o Primary mode fails to move the flaps and slats to the selected position OR
o Uncommand flaps or slats motion is detected.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the difference between flaps and slats Primary, Secondary and Alternate
operations?

A

o Primary: Hydraulic
o Secondary : Electric or Hydraulic
o Alternate: Electric
Electric Operation is considerably slower

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

When is primary pitch trim inhibited?

A

When autopilot engaged.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which has priority, Primary or Alternate pitch trim?

A

Alternate pitch trim.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

On ground, Moving the pitch trim moves which control surface?

A

Stabilizer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

In normal mode, moving the pitch trim does what in flight?

A

It makes inputs to the PFCs to change the trim reference speed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the power sources for the horizontal stabilizer?

A

L2 & R2 AC buses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

During flight, moving the pitch trim while in Secondary or Direct mode moves what
control surface?

A

The Stabilizer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

In which mode is Flight Envelope Protection available?

A

Normal Mode.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Can the crew select secondary mode manually?

A

No.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

In Secondary mode, what type of command do the 3 PFCs compute flight control surface
commands? Are the ACE’s fully functional?

A

The PFC’s use simplified commands and the ACE’s are fully functional

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What functions are not available in the Secondary and Direct modes?

A

o Autopilot.
o Auto speedbrakes.
o Flight Envelope Protection.
o Tail strike protection.
o Gust suppression.
o Pitch Compensation.
o Roll/Yaw asymmetry compensation.

25
When will the Flight Control System revert to Direct mode?
When all 3 PFC's have failed or loss of communication between the PFC's and ACE's. It can also be selected by disconnecting the PFC switch to DISC.
26
What functions are still available in Secondary and Direct modes?
Full airplane control is available, All Flight Control Surfaces are operable.
27
In Normal mode, what control surface is moved when the pitch trim is applied?
The Elevator is moved, then the Stabilizer is streamlined with the Elevator.
28
If the Stabilizer is shut down, what does the pitch trim do?
It changes the trim reference speed by utilizing the Elevators.
29
Where and when is the stabilizer postion indecation displayed?
o It is displayed on the EICAS and Flight Control Synoptic . o From power up: until 10 sec after gear up OR 60 sec after liftoff. o After landing : any pair of pitch trim switches are used or ground speed less than 40kts. o On the flight Control Synoptic it’s constantly displayed.
30
When does the STAB GREENBAND EICAS massage appear?
o The computed green band disagrees with the pressure transducer data o The 2-transducer value are not within the set tolerance o Either transducer has failed
31
What does the stabilizer green band compare for the correct stab trim?
It compares the FMC calculated stab trim data and the pressure transducer data.
32
What is the default range of the stab green band?
The green band is shown from 4 to 9 units.
33
How does the stall protection system operate?
The system limits the speed at which the airplane can be trimmed.
34
Does the B787 have asymmetry for loss of thrust?
Yes, the Roll and Yaw asymmetry is controlled by the flight control system. Automatic rudder input is provided, and the rudder pedals move to give feedback to the pilots.
35
In flight, what does movement of the rudder pedals command in normal mode?
It commands a sideslip maneuver, which commands a rudder input.
36
How does the flight control system maintain yaw on ground?
On ground and speed above 60 kts the system commands rudder to counter the yaw due to an engine failure.
37
After initial input, how does the system offload any lateral control input?
The system transfers any steady state lateral control input to the rudder, resulting in a small side slip.
38
What is the wheel to rudder cross-tie and when is it available?
o Its available in secondary and direct mode. o It reduces maximum side slip and fin loads.
39
What provides turn co-ordination and Dutch roll damping in the normal mode?
Roll/Yaw control laws.
40
How many rudder trim rates are available?
2 rates, a low rate, and a high rate.
41
When are any manual rudder trim inputs automatically zeroed?
o During the takeoff roll when ground speed exceeds 30 kts. o During Landing when the airplane transitions from air mode to ground mode.
42
Where is rudder trim displayed?
On the EICAS and on the synoptic page.
43
In secondary mode, rudder pedals sends what command to the rudder?
It commands a rudder deflection instead of a maneuver command.
44
What is the purpose of the Rudder Ratio Changer? What is it based on in Secondary and Direct mode?
o It automatically reduces the sideslip command as airspeed increases, while pedal forces do not change. o In Secondary and Direct mode, the rudder ratio is based on flap position.
45
What is auto drag and when is it used?
o It deflects the ailerons upward and raises the 2 most outboard spoilers, while maintaining airspeed, to assist in glideslope/glidepath capture when the airplane is on or above the vertical path. o Autodrag also functions when the aircraft carries out an approach in V/S or FPA mode. o It is available ONLY in the landing configuration flap 25 or 30 and the thrust levers are at idle . o The deflection is gradually removed below 500' AGL. o Available in normal mode only.
46
Which control surfaces are locked out at high speed?
The ailerons are locked out. Flaps & Slats are also locked out above 260 kts.
47
Are all spoilers hydraulicly controlled?
No, 2 pairs are electrically controlled.
48
When will the speed brake retract automatically ?
o On the ground, when either thrust, levers move to take off range, or o On the ground, if there is transition to in the air, or o In the air, when either thrust lever is beyond 70% full travel
49
When will the speed brakes automatically extend?
o When not ARMED: ▪ On ground, with ground speed above 85 kts and both thrust levers previously in takeoff range, then moved to IDLE range ( rejected Takeoff ). ▪ On ground when both reverse levers are moved to reverse IDLE. o When ARMED: ▪ On landing when main gear trucks untilt and both thrust levers are not in takeoff range.
50
Describe the Cruise Flaps function?
The system is fully automated. It moves the flaps, ailerons, flaperons and spoilers to enhance the wing camber and reduce drag. They are only available in normal mode above 25000' between 0.54 Mach & 0.87 Mach.
51
When will the EICAS advisory massage (Cruise Flaps SYS) display?
If the system fails with the flaps in an increased drag condition.
52
What Hydraulic systems power the Flight Controls?
All 3 Hydraulic systems.
53
When is Flap Load Relief available?
In the primary mode, the Flap load relief system protects the flaps from excessive air loads. If a flap airspeed placard limits are exceeded with flaps in the 15 through 30 position , LOAD RELIEF is dislayed and the flap automatically retract to a safe position appropriate to the airspeed.
54
When is Slat Load Relief available?
It is available in Secondary mode, If airspeed exceeds 240 kts with Slats fully extended, they retract to the MID position. Then return to fully extended when speed is below 240 kts.
55
What is the Slats and Flaps sequence?
o Flaps 1: Slats MID, Flaps 0 o Flaps 5,10,15,17,18 and 20: Slats MID, Flaps to selected position. o Flaps 25: Slats FULL , Flaps do not move. o Flaps 30: Slats FULL, Flaps Landing position.
56
How are the Alternate Flaps/Slats powered? What is the maximum extension available?
By the 3 position Alternate Flap Selector. Slats MID position , Flaps 20.
57
In the slats and flaps alternate mode what kind of protection is lost?
o Asymmetry/skew and un commanded motion protection. o Slat autogap and pregap. o Flaps and slats load relief.
58
What is the difference between slat autogap and slat pregap?
o Autogap: Available in primary mode when the slats are middle position and speed is below 240 knots . At high angle of attack ( AOA ), autogap fully extends the slats to increase the wing camber, thus increasing the lift and margin to stall . The slats return to the middle position after angle of attack decreases. The autogap trip threshold is a function of Angle of attack ( AOA ) , Airspeed and Flap position. o Pregap: In the secondary mode the system is too slow to respond to an autogap request , so a pregap function exists. The slats automatically move to the fully extended position from middle position when the flaps lever is not UP and the speed is less than 240 kts. The slats remain in the extended position until the flap lever is the UP position or airspeed is above 240 KIAS .