1
Q
Who adopted the Incident Management system? When?
A
a. Broward County Fire Chief’s Association
b. Spring 1996
2
Q
What is the intent of the Incident Management Manual?
A
Serve as a reference and instructional guide
3
Q
The incident management system was designed to meet the requirements of NFPA:
A
1561
4
Q
The ultimate control and direction of all resources falls under:
A
Incident Commander, except for a unified command
5
Q
How is the ICS structured?
A
a. Not rank structured
b. Filled from positions that are best suited
6
Q
The ICS organizational structure develops in a:
A
Modular fashion based on kind and size of incident
7
Q
What does modular escalation allow?
A
Manageable span of control for all participants throughout the incident
8
Q
Define span of control
A
The number of subordinates one supervisor can manage effectively
9
Q
What is the acceptable limit in emergency situations?
A
5
10
Q
What are the four sections under command?
A
a. Finance/Administration
b. Logistics
c. Operations
d. Planning
11
Q
Define operations:
A
All activities directed toward hazard reduction and control
12
Q
Define planning:
A
Collection, evaluation, and dissemination of information
13
Q
Define logistics:
A
Provides support needs to the incident
14
Q
Define finance/administration
A
Responsible for all cost incurred at the incident
15
Q
Who is included in the Command Staff? (5)
A
a. Safety officer
b. Liaison officer
c. PIO
d. IC aide
e. FLOP
16
Q
Define command sequence:
A
Standardized sequential thought process
17
Q
What are the four parts of the command sequence?
A
a. Incident priorities
b. size up
c. goals and objectives
d. tactical operations
18
Q
What are the incident priorities?
A
a. Life safety
b. incident stabilization
c. property conservation
19
Q
Define life safety:
A
Actions which reduce the threat of life or injury
20
Q
Define incident stabilization:
A
activities designed to stop the escalation of the incident
21
Q
Define property conservation:
A
efforts to reduce the long-term economic and social impact
22
Q
What are the goals in relation to incident priorities:
A
Rescue Exposure Confinement Extinguishment Overhaul
23
Q
What is considered to be the solutions to the problems?
A
tactical operations
24
Q
What is the designation of the Command post?
A
CP
25
What is also located in the Command Post?
a. Planning function
| b. Field communication center
26
What can be co-located with the command post?
The incident base if communications requirements can be met
27
What is the incident base?
a. location where primary support personnel activities are performed
b. Houses all equipment and personnel support operations
28
What may also be located at the incident base?
a. logistics section
29
Can the incident base be re-located?
normally not
30
The staging area is established by whom?
Operations section officer
31
Who assigns a staging area manager?
Operations section officer
32
What is the staging area manager responsible for? (3)
a. Checking in of resources
b. Dispatching of resources
c. Requests for services from Logistics section
33
In a multi-jurisdictional incident, key officials from each jurisdiction contribute to the process of: (5)
a. Determining incident objectives
b. Selection of strategies
c. Joint planning
d. Integrated operations
e. Maximum use of resources
34
The implementation of the action plan will be done under the direction of:
Operations section officer
35
The operations section officer is normally drawn from:
Agency having greatest jurisdictional involvement
36
What is a landing zone?
Temporary locations where helicopters can land and take off
37
What is a heli-base?
Location where helicopters are staged for possible action
38
What does a single resource consist of?
a. Apparatus
b. Personnel
c. Communications
39
What is a task force?
combination of resources with common communication and a leader
40
What is a strike team?
Set number of resources of the same kind and type and a leader
41
Position: Incident Commander - Title:
Incident Commander
42
Position: Command Staff - Title
Officer
43
Position: Section - Title:
Section Officer
44
Position: Branch - Title:
Director
45
Position: Division - Title:
Supervisor
46
Position: Group - Title:
Supervisor
47
Position: Task Force - Title:
Leader
48
Position: Strike Team - Title:
Leader
49
Position: Single resource - Title:
Company officer
50
Who determines the initial need for Group and Divisions?
Incident Commander
51
Who recommends to the IC the need for additional Divisions/Groups?
Section officers
52
What is the primary reason for using Divisions and Groups?
a. Safety of personnel
| b. Maintaining span of control
53
Divisions are assigned to specific:
Geographical locations
54
Structural situations for sides of building will be designated by:
Letter system
55
Structural divisions will be designed by numbers for:
Floors
56
Groups will be identified by:
The function they perform (salvage group)
57
When are branches implemented?
a. Span of control begins to become complex
| b. The incident has two or more distinctly different operations (fire, hazmat)
58
Branches report to who?
a. Section officers
| b. Should communicate to operations on a different channel
59
Define RIT: (3)
a. two fresh firefighters
b. Staged at CP
c. May stage near the various divisions
60
What should the RIT be equipped with? (4)
a. radios
b. lights
c. search line
d. forcible entry tools
61
The first unit to arrive at the scene of an incident must transmit:
An arrival and size-up report along with establishment of command
62
The initial Incident Commander shall remain in Command until:
a. Command is transferred or passed
| b. Incident is stabilized and terminated
63
The first arriving unit activates the Command process by giving:
An initial radio report
64
Identification and location of Command shall be by:
Geographical location or well-known landmark
65
Can unit numbered command locations be used?
No
66
Single company incident:
Can be single unit or Engine and Rescue
67
If two incidents on the same street, what is command designator?
"hundred block"
68
The establishment of a Command post is top priority for the following units:
a. Chief officer
| b. Member or unit without tactical capabilities
69
Four modes of Command:
a. Nothing showing mode
b. Fast attack mode
c. Command mode
d. Defensive mode
70
What is nothing showing mode?
a. Generally requires investigation
| b. Utilize portable radio to command incident
71
What is Fast attack mode?
a. Situation that require immediate action to stabilize and requires company officer assistance
b. Fast attack should not last more than a few minutes
72
Fast attack mode ends with one of the following:
a. situation is stabilized
b. situation is not stabilized and company officer must withdraw
c. Command is transferred
73
What are examples of why fast attack mode would be chosen? (3)
a. Offensive fire attack
b. Critical life situation
c. Incident where the safety and welfare of firefighters is a major concern
74
What is defensive mode?
When conditions or hazards preclude direct entry into the hazard zone
75
The declaration of defensive mode signals:
That complex operations will be involved
76
What is command mode?
Incident by virtue of size, complexity, or potential for rapid escalation requires immediate, strong, direct, overall command
77
Agency representatives from responding agencies shall report to:
The liaison officer at the command post
78
Define unity of command:
Each individual being responsible to one supervisor
79
How is command transferred?
Can be transferred by radio, but should be done face to face
80
The transfer of command briefing should include: (4)
a. current situation
b. current unit placement
c. assignments
d. review of the tactical worksheet
81
Assumption of command is based on these factors: (4)
a. potential escalation of the incident
b. personnel considerations
c. IC capabilities
d. etc.
82
It may be advantageous to have the officer being relieved of command remain with the new IC, in the role of:
IC aide or Operations section officer
83
The formal process for transfer of command shall be used bot as:
Emergency escalates and in demobilization phase
84
When is passing of command advantageous?
When initial commitment of the first arriving company requires a full crew and another company is in position to assume command
85
The passing of command to a unit not on scene:
a. Not advisable
b. Creates a gap in the command process and compromises incident management
c. It is preferable to have the initial arriving company officer continue to operate in the fast attack mode until Command can be passed to an on-scene unit
86
Should a situation occur where a later arriving company or chief officer cannot locate or communicate with command:
They will assume command and announce this over the radio
87
Level 1 staging:
a. Occurs automatically
b. about 1 block away to avoid blocking in
c. second due engine stages at hydrant
d. no staging officer
88
Level 2 staging:
a. more formalized and organized
b. staging officer is assigned
c. located several blocks away
89
When is an incident commander activated? (3)
a. situation requiring two or more units
b. the judgment of the on-scene ranking officer
c. implemented for concerns of safety and scene control
90
The incident commander provides:
comprehensive leadership and direction
91
What position is the focal point of all facets of the operation?
Incident Commander
92
Who authorizes release of information to the media?
Incident Commander
93
What are the roles of the Incident Commander Aide? (4)
a. provide administrative and operational assistance
b. Mange the command area
c. Process information that does not require the attention of the IC
d. May be assigned accountability during early stages of incident
94
Who encompass the majority of incident mitigation activities?
Operations section officer
95
Who assigns a Rehab officer?
Operations section officer
96
The branch director reports to Operations officer when: (4)
a. incident action plan needs to be modified
b. additional resources are needed
c. surplus of resources are available
d. hazardous or significant event occurred
97
What is the purpose of the Division/Group Supervisor?
To supervise the operations of up to 5 resources
98
Safety Officer recommended staffing: (3)
a. NFPA Safety Officer 1521
b. Florida Fire Officer 1
c. ICS level
99
At a hazmat scene, who is the safety officer?
Must be a Hazmat Tech
100
Who does the initial investigation of accidents that have occurred at an incident?
Safety Officer
101
Who insures that a RIT has been established?
Safety officer
102
How many PIOs should be involved when a unified command post is activated?
Only one PIO should represent all agencies
103
Who is able to act as the Rehab officer?
any medically trained person appointed by Command
104
Why do personnel remove their protective clothing when they arrive at Rehab?
expedite the cooling process
105
What does the initial assessment at Rehab include? (5)
a. Pupils
b. Skin color and temp
c. Respirations
d. Ability to communicate
e. Pulse
106
Personnel who suffer _____ shall be monitored and not allowed to return from Rehab.
a. SOB, CP, or other medical condition
| b. in the opinion of the Rehab Officer
107
When are vital signs assessed in Rehab?
a. Expended two bottles of air or more
| b. includes pulse, respirations, BP and lung sounds
108
When is Rehab deactivated?
During demobilization when determined by command
109
The planning section officer is located:
On scene or at EOC
110
When is the planning section officer activated?
When the IC cannot effectively forecast the future action plan
111
Who serves as the "clearing house" for information?
Planning Section
112
Who can be assigned as a Finance/Administrative Officer?
Any qualified or trained individual appointed by command (may be a civilian)
113
Where is the Logistics Section Officer located?
On scene or at EOC
114
When is the logistics section officer activated?
Any incident requiring move ups or mutual aid coverage
115
Who does the staging officer report to?
Operations or Command
116
If a potential evacuation condition is noticed, who is notified?
IC immediately
117
Who makes the decision to evacuate a building or area?
IC
118
What is the Emergency Evacuation Procedure?
a. IC will announce "Emergency Traffic" and have dispatch sound the alert tone
b. State "all personnel evacuate the building or area immediately" then repeat twice
c. Order all units to blow air horns for 30 seconds (one second on, one second off)
d. Conduct a PAR
119
If personnel are missing, how is the report given?
Face to face or telephone, no report will be announced over the radio
120
What is air?
Helicopter or fixed wing
121
What is ambulance?
BLS transport capable unit
122
What is attack?
mini pumper
123
What is brush?
off-road vehicle with water tank and a pump
124
What is Engine?
NFPA compliant Class A pumper
125
What is foam?
vehicle or trailer other than crash truck with minimum 50 gallons of foam
126
That is ladder?
straight aerial ladder of at least 75 feet
127
What is medical?
ALS transport capable unit with civilian staffing
128
What is platform?
Telescopic boom with platform of at least 75 feet
129
What is Quint
NFPA compliant Class A pumper with at least 75 straight aerial
130
What is rescue?
ALS transport capable unit with cross trained firefighters
131
What is snorkel
articulating platform device
132
What is squad?
Heavy, medium, light rescue or personnel carrier
133
What is squirt?
Class A pumper with 55-70 foot aerial/water tower
134
What is support?
SCBA refill truck
135
What is Tanker?
apparatus with minimum 1500 gallons of on-board water
136
What is tender?
apparatus with minimum 1000 gallons of foam
137
What is truck?
airport crash truck with foam
138
What is utility?
Light/generator/ventilation vehicle
139
OSHA 29 CFR 1090.134 states that during interior structural firefighting, among other things, the employer shall insure that:
a. 2 employees enter IDLH and remain in visual or voice contact
b. 2 employees are located outside the IDLH
c. All employees engaged in interior structural firefighting use SCBA
140
When is it acceptable to not have RIT in place prior to commencement of firefighting?
a. The fire is in incipient stage
| b. Rescue of trapped occupants
141
The RIT team shall be equipped with: (6)
a. Bunker gear, SCBA and PASS
b. One flashlight per person
c. Search rope
d. Haligan and flat headed axe
e. Spare air pack with mask
f. Radio
142
On larger buildings, how long should the search rope be?
300 feet or consider attaching two search ropes together
143
Upon the deployment of RIT, the IC shall immediately:
assign a secondary (backup) RIT
144
Command shall continue to staff a RIT throughout the _____ phase.
Mitigation
145
RIT will be in position until the:
possibility of danger has been eliminated
146
PASS activation procedure:
a. State "Emergency Traffic" and attempt to contact downed firefighter twice
b. Two failed attempts to contact will activate RIT
147
The Mutual Aid system within Broward County uses:
a. Mutual Aid phone circuit (MARS system)
b. 800 MHz radio system
c. Regular telephone line
148
What is the primary method of requesting mutual aid?
MARS circuit
149
What is reaction time?
Amount of time to start units to an incident
150
What is the specific talk group for requesting mutual aid?
System 12, Talk Group 'A' (800 MHz)
151
How many levels of redundancy are there to assure that mutual aid is requested?
3
152
The 800 MHz "system" has how many talk groups dedicated to mutual aid?
a. 15, A-O
| b. B-O are tactical channels
153
What is the mutual aid calling channel?
System 12, Talk group 'A'
154
Define special operations:
Any response to emergencies requiring specialized equipment or personnel
155
Define Hazardous Materials:
Any incident involving the leak, fire, or spill of any radioactive, chemical, or biological
156
Define rope rescue:
Any rescue attempt that requires rope and related equipment
157
Define confined space:
a. Areas that are not intended for continual occupancy
b. Limited means of egress
c. Potential for physical, chemical, or atmospheric engulfment
158
Define trench rescue:
a. rescue operation in a narrow excavation where the depth is greater than the width
b. no greater than 15 feet wide
159
Define structural collapse:
structural collapse or failure
160
Different events that can cause a structural collapse:
a. Natural occurrences (hurricane, tornado)
b. Fire or Explosion
c. Engineering errors
d. Human factors (malicious damage, terrorist)
161
Define water rescue:
Rescue attempt that requires water rescue gear
162
What is the final consideration for each mission?
Risk/Benefit factor
163
Who investigates and responds to a Hazmat incident that is a category I or II?
a. first responder initially investigate
| b. if needed, one regional team will assist
164
Who investigates and responds to a Hazmat incident that is a category III or IV?
a. automatic response of two regional teams
165
Who investigates and responds to a confined space incident?
Confirmed active incident, two teams respond
166
Who investigates and responds to a non-technical rope rescue incident?
a. first responder initially investigates
| b. if needed, one regional team will assist
167
Who investigates and responds to a technical rope rescue incident?
a. automatic response of two regional teams
168
What is a non-technical evacuation?
evacuation that are less than 40 degrees inclination
169
What is a technical evacuation?
Evacuation that are more than 40 degrees inclination
170
Who investigates and responds to a trench rescue incident?
automatic two team response
171
Who investigates and responds to a suspected structural collapse?
Response of one regional team
172
Who investigates and responds to an active structural collapse?
response of two regional teams
173
Who responds for the purpose of shoring and securing the integrity of a structure after a fire has weakened the structure?
Response of one regional team
174
Who responds to a water rescue incident that is in rescue mode?
one regional team if requested
175
Who respond to a water rescue incident that is in recovery mode?
one regional team if requested
176
What is rescue mode?
Submersion time of up to one hour
177
What is recovery mode?
Submersion time of greater than one hour
178
Define hazard zone:
a. any area that requires an SCBA
| b. any area in which a firefighter can become lost, trapped, or injured
179
What is a major element in strategy for command?
Accountability
180
What is a minimum crew size defined as?
Two members and a radio will be required
181
What is the minimum rank to supervise all crews entering a hazard zone?
Lieutenant or higher
182
If a radio fails while in the hazard zone:
The crew will exit unless there is another working radio with the crew
183
Who can be an accountability officer? (3)
a. Driver
b. Division/group officer
c. Designated accountability officer
184
What is the size of the nametag?
1" x 2"
185
What is engraved on the nametag?
member's last name and first two initials of first name
186
Where is the nametag stored?
a. collar of bunker coat
b. helmet
c. similar location
187
What does a white passport mean?
Chief officer
188
What does a red passport mean?
Company officer
189
What does a yellow passport mean?
Driver/Paramedic/Firefighter/Other
190
What is the size of the passport unit?
2" x 3"
191
What is engraved on the passport unit?
apparatus or unit number
192
Where is the passport unit located?
at or near the center of the dashboard
193
Where is status boards located? (3)
a. Battalion Chief
b. Duty Chief
c. Other designated supervisors
194
When is a PAR required? (6)
a. Missing or trapped firefighter (initiated by command)
b. Change Offensive to Defense (initiated by command)
c. Sudden hazardous event (initiated by command)
d. Report of "ALL Clear" after primary search
e. Every 30 minutes
f. Report of "Fire under Control"
195
Passport system will be implemented at any incident that:
requires the use of SCBA
196
What is the objective of the passport system?
have passports at command and kept accurate
197
Where are the passports located for a single company incident?
a. remain on the apparatus dash
| b. D/O assumes accountability responsibilities
198
Where are the passports located for multi-company operations?
Delivered to the command post or accountability officer
199
What does an upside down passport indicate?
Member is not in the hazard zone
200
The accountability system will be implemented at any incident requiring:
entry into the hazard zone
201
How is the initial accountability location determined?
The first unit on each geographical side of the incident will be the initial accountability location for that side
202
When a crew has completed its assignment in the hazard zone, what is done with the passport unit?
Returned to company officer for entry into rehab or reassignment
203
When is the passport system terminated?
a. Report of "fire under control" or "incident under control"
b. command will determine whether to continue passport use
204
Who developed the Mayday procedural guidelines?
Mutual aid committee of the fire chief's association of broward county
205
The mayday procedure is intended to prevent what?
Fire rescue personnel from being injured or killed while performing their duties
206
When is the Mayday supposed to be used?
encounter an immediately perilous situation
207
How do units initiate the Mayday procedure?
verbally broadcasting the term Mayday over their radio
208
What is the MAYDAY procedure? (7)
a. Unit announces their unit number followed by MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY
b. IC will gather all necessary information (Location, Unit, Nature, Air, Resources)
c. Advise dispatch to initiate MAYDAY protocol and sound alert tone
d. Repeat information one time
e. Activate RIT
f. Move all other units to secondary channel
g. Conduct PAR
209
What is the focus once a mayday is announced?
Resources shall be devoted to location, protection, and extrication of the endangered personnel
