9. developmental pathologies Flashcards

(56 cards)

1
Q

what percentage of fertilised eggs result in healthy outcomes

A

~33%

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2
Q

what percentage of fertilised eggs do not implant

A

~40%

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3
Q

how many babies born in NZ are affected by birth defects

A

~2-3%

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4
Q

most common birth defect in NZ

A

congenital heart defects

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5
Q

cryptorchidism

A

undescended testes

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6
Q

malformation

A

a structural defect of a part of or an entire organ or body region
- primary errors of morphogenesis
- intrinsically abnormal developmental process

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7
Q

disruption

A

a defect in an organ or body part caused by process that interferes with an originally normal development
- extrinsic disturbance

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8
Q

deformation

A

a structural abnormality caused by mechanical forces
- extrinsic disturbance

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9
Q

dysplasia

A

an abnormality of a tissue caused by an abnormal intrinsic developmental process

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10
Q

sequence

A

a cascade of anomalies triggered by one initiating aberration

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11
Q

syndrome

A

a group of malformations of different structures
- due to a single primary cause acting through multiple developmental pathways

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12
Q

aneuploidy

A

abnormal chromosome number

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13
Q

polyploidy

A

higher multiple than 2x haploid number of chromosomes
- not viable

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14
Q

triploidy

A

3x 23 chromosomes likely due to
- fertilisation by more than one sperm
- lack of seperation of oocyte polar body

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15
Q

monosomy

A

lack of one member of a chromosome pair

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16
Q

trisomy

A

a triplet instead of a pair of chromosomes

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17
Q

cause of Cri du chat

A

short arm of chromosome 5 missing

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18
Q

transcervical infections

A

around time of birth

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19
Q

transplacental infections

A

most parasitic and viral infections can cross the placenta
- can occur at any point

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20
Q

high androgens during pregnancy

A
  • masculinisation of female offspring
  • accelerated genital development in male offspring
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21
Q

synthetic estrogen in pregnancy

A
  • cervical and uterine abnormalities
  • cryptochordism in males
  • cancers
  • third generation effects?
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22
Q

what percentage of natural pregnancies result in twins

A

~3%

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23
Q

preconception diagnosis

A

carrier screening

24
Q

pre implantation diagnosis

A
  • genetic screening (PGS)
  • genetic diagnosis (PGD)
25
prenatal diagnosis
- amniocentesis or chorionic villus sampling - ultrasound - maternal blood test
26
neonatal diagnosis
apgar test and guthrie test
27
how does a fetus acquire a transcervical infection
- inhaling infected amniotic fluid - from infected birth canal during delivery
28
common result of transcervical infections
preterm birth - damage and rupture of amniotic sac due to inflammation - infiltrating neutrophils releasing prostaglandins
29
when are transcervical infections most commonly transmitted to the fetus
very late in pregnancy
30
when do transplacental infections most commonly get transmitted to the fetus
at any time during gestation
31
CRS risk over pregnancy
reduces over the course of
32
maternal infection of rubella in first trimester
fetal infection rate is ~85%
33
maternal infection of rubella after 16 weeks
fetal infection rate ~50%
34
maternal rubella infection results
- abortion - stillbirth - fetal growth restriction - CRS
35
CRS congenital malformations
defects in - ocular - auditory - CVS - CNS
36
prevention of CRS
immunisation prior to pregnancy
37
covid-19 risks in pregnancy
mostly to mother, not to the fetus
38
when does the neural tube anterior pore close
day 25
39
when does the neural tube posterior pore close
day 28
40
how common is neural tube pore fusion failure
~1/1000 births
41
what are some causes of NTD
- genetic mutations - maternal infections - irradiation - maternal diabetes - low folic acid
42
anencephaly
underdeveloped brain and incomplete skull
43
spina bifida
spinal cord fails to develop and close normally
44
when are fetuses most susceptible to NTD
first month of gestation when neural tube is forming and closing
45
types of spina bifida
- spina bifida occulta - meningocele - myelomeningocele
46
folic acid
essential B vitamin - synthesis of nucleotides for DNA synthesis, repair and methylation
47
how many GDM mothers develop type II diabetes
50%
48
results of GDM
fetal macrosomia birthing complications
49
FASD discriminating craniofacial anomalies
- microcephaly - short palpebral fissures - smooth philtrum - thin upper lip
50
foetal alcohol spectrum disorder
an umbrella term for a range of disabilities that result from exposure to alcohol during pregnancy
51
amniocentesis time frame
15 to 20 weeks
52
chorionic villus sampling time frame
10 to 14 weeks
53
class I and II CFTR variants
little to no CFTR proteins
54
Class III CFTR variants
gating defects
55
Class IV CFTR variants
conductance defect
56
Class V and VI CFTR variants
reduced CFTR proteins