1
Q
What drug-induced state is defined by a calm patient who is reluctant to move and aware of, but unconcerned about, its surroundings?
A
Tranquilization
2
Q
What term refers to the reduction of anxiety, often used for home administration before clinical procedures?
A
Anxiolysis
3
Q
According to the American College of Veterinary Anesthesia and Analgesia (ACVAA), why is it critical to record all drugs administered in the perianesthetic period?
A
To maintain a legal record of significant events and enhance trend recognition.
4
Q
What specific patient identification detail must be confirmed before any anesthetic procedure to prevent medication errors?
A
Body Weight
5
Q
In a Physical Examination (PE), what does the acronym ‘EENT’ represent?
A
Eyes, ears, nose, and throat (oral cavity).
6
Q
What is the clinical term for a patient possessing pupils of unequal sizes?
A
Anisocoria
7
Q
When checking a Pupillary Light Reflex (PLR), what is the term for the constriction of the pupil in the eye NOT receiving the light beam?
A
Consensual reflex
8
Q
What is the medical term for pupil constriction?
A
Miosis
9
Q
Which ASA Physical Status classification is assigned to a patient with severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life, such as a ruptured bladder?
A
PS4
10
Q
A moribund patient not expected to survive without an operation, such as one with severe head trauma, is classified as which ASA Physical Status?
A
PS5
11
Q
What ASA Physical Status classification is appropriate for an obese patient or one with mild dehydration?
A
PS2
12
Q
What is the primary benefit of IV catheterization regarding the administration of emergency drugs like epinephrine?
A
It allows for rapid administration.
13
Q
Define the term ‘Constant Rate Infusion’ (CRI).
A
The slow, continuous administration of a drug at a rate sufficient to achieve a desired effect.
14
Q
What percentage of total body weight in a healthy animal is comprised of water?
A
60\%
15
Q
Body water is divided into two main compartments: intracellular fluid (ICF) and _____ fluid (ECF).
A
Extracellular
16
Q
Approximately what fraction of total body water is found in the intracellular fluid (ICF) compartment?
A
Two-thirds
17
Q
Which sub-compartment of the extracellular fluid (ECF) consists of the fluid within the vascular system?
A
Intravascular compartment
18
Q
What is the term for positively charged ions like $Na^{+}$ and $K^{+}$ in body fluids?
A
Cations
19
Q
What is the term for negatively charged ions like $Cl^{-}$ and $HCO_{3}^{-}$ in body fluids?
A
Anions
20
Q
In health, what is the approximate maintenance osmolarity of all body fluids?
A
$300\text{ mOsm/L}$
21
Q
Which type of fluid contains large-molecular-weight solutes, such as albumin or hetastarch, that remain in the intravascular space?
A
Colloids
22
Q
What is ‘preemptive analgesia’?
A
The administration of pain medication before a painful procedure to improve recovery.
23
Q
Under the Controlled Substances Act, which schedule describes drugs with no currently accepted medical use?
A
Schedule I
24
Q
Morphine, hydromorphone, and fentanyl are classified under which DEA schedule?
A
Schedule II
25
Buprenorphine and Ketamine are examples of drugs in which DEA schedule?
Schedule III
26
What is the name of the DEA's electronic system used for ordering Schedule II controlled substances?
CSOS (Controlled Substance Ordering System)
27
Why must the commercial oral solution of Gabapentin (Neurontin) be avoided in dogs?
It contains xylitol, which is toxic to dogs.
28
What rare but serious adverse effect can occur when Trazodone is administered with other behavior-modifying drugs like SSRIs?
Serotonin syndrome
29
Name three clinical signs of serotonin syndrome in veterinary patients.
Changes in heart rate/rhythm, hypertension, and hyperthermia.
30
How does Medetomidine's potency compare to pure Dexmedetomidine?
It is approximately one-half the potency.
31
What is the purpose of Vatinoxan hydrochloride in the combination drug Zenalpha?
It blocks the peripheral adverse effects of medetomidine, such as bradycardia and vasoconstriction.
32
Why should alpha2-agonists like dexmedetomidine be handled with extreme care by hospital staff?
They can be absorbed through skin abrasions or mucous membranes, causing hypotension and sedation in humans.
33
What common side effect of alpha2-agonists seen in dogs and cats does NOT occur in small mammals like rabbits?
Vomiting
34
What is the primary role of Guaifenesin (GG) when used in large animal anesthesia?
It acts as a skeletal muscle relaxant to facilitate intubation and induction.
35
The anesthetic product Telazol is a combination of which two drugs?
Tiletamine and Zolazepam
36
Why might a pulse oximeter provide a false normal reading in a patient with carbon monoxide poisoning?
It cannot differentiate between oxyhemoglobin and carboxyhemoglobin.
37
According to US standards, what color is an oxygen compressed gas cylinder?
Green
38
According to ISO standards, medical gas cylinders indicate the specific gas by the color of which part of the tank?
The shoulder
39
What is the US color code for Nitrous Oxide ($N_{2}O$) cylinders?
Blue
40
What substance inside an oxygen concentrator is responsible for binding nitrogen from the air?
Zeolite
41
What are the primary chemical products of the reaction between exhaled $CO_{2}$ and the absorbent granules in a canister?
Calcium carbonate ($CaCO_{3}$), heat, and water.
42
What device is used to passively heat and humidify inspired gases by capturing exhaled water vapor?
HME (Heat and Moisture Exchanger)
43
To test the integrity of the inner fresh gas tube of a Bain coaxial system, what should the indicator do when the patient end is occluded with a syringe plunger?
The ball or bobbin indicator should drop slightly.
44
List three short-term symptoms reported by personnel exposed to high levels of waste anesthetic gas (WAG).
Fatigue, headache, and nausea.
45
What is the OSHA permissible limit for halogenated anesthetic gas exposure?
$2\text{ ppm}$
46
What is a 'passive dosimeter' in the context of anesthetic safety?
A badge worn by personnel to monitor anesthetic gas exposure levels over a timed period.
47
In ECG interpretation, what does the R-R interval measure?
The distance (and consistency) between successive R waves to determine heart rhythm.
48
How does using a blood pressure cuff that is too narrow affect the reading?
It gives falsely high readings.
49
For how many days does a single application of Zorbium (transdermal buprenorphine) provide analgesia in cats?
4 days
50
What is the duration of action for the liposome-encapsulated local anesthetic Nocita?
Up to 3 days
51
What is the maximum recommended time for a tourniquet to be in place during a Bier block to avoid tissue hypoxia?
$90\text{ minutes}$
52
What is the normal physiologic trigger for the respiratory center to initiate inspiration?
Increased arterial carbon dioxide ($PaCO_{2}$).
53
In the nociception pathway, what is the term for the conversion of noxious stimuli into electrical signals by sensory receptors?
Transduction
54
Which phase of nociception involves the conduction of sensory impulses to the spinal cord via peripheral nerve fibers?
Transmission
55
What is 'modulation' in the context of the pain pathway?
The amplification or suppression of pain impulses within the spinal cord.
56
Which phase of nociception occurs when impulses are processed and recognized by the brain?
Perception
57
What is the clinical term for the CNS hypersensitivity that manifests as pain from a normally non-noxious stimulus near an injury site?
Allodynia
58
Which CNS receptor is specifically activated during 'windup' pain (secondary hyperalgesia) but not in physiologic pain?
NMDA (N-methyl-d-aspartate) receptor
59
What is the mechanism of action for Frunevetmab (Solensia)?
It is a monoclonal antibody that binds to and neutralizes nerve growth factor (NGF).
60
Why is acetaminophen-codeine strictly contraindicated in cats?
Acetaminophen is toxic to cats.
61
According to the RECOVER guidelines, what is the compression-to-ventilation ratio for a single person performing CPR?
30:2
62
In basic life support, should chest compressions be stopped when breaths are delivered?
No, they should be delivered simultaneously.
63
Brain damage is highly likely to occur after how many minutes of inadequate tissue oxygenation?
4 minutes
64
What dangerous condition can occur if an APL valve is left fully closed while the oxygen flow is high and the patient is attached?
Increased intrathoracic pressure leading to decreased cardiac output or pneumothorax.
65
What is the red/black discharge seen around the eyes and nose of stressed rats called?
Porphyrin secretions
66
Why should rabbits not be recovered in a room where cats are present?
The presence of a predator causes extreme stress and can mask signs of pain.
67
In the metric system, what is the weight-to-volume equivalent for $1\text{ gram}$ of water at $4^{\circ}C$?
$1\text{ cubic centimeter (cc)}$
68
What does a 'Train-of-four' (TOF) monitor assess during anesthesia?
The degree of neuromuscular blockade.
69
What term describes the phenomenon where peripheral pain receptors have a lowered threshold due to tissue damage?
Primary hyperalgesia
70
In an ECG, if the wave of electrical depolarization is traveling toward a positive electrode, which direction will the waveform deflect?
Upward (above the baseline)
71
What is the clinical significance of finding 'tented' T waves on an ECG in an obstructed patient?
It is indicative of hyperkalemia (high potassium).
72
Why is 'to effect' administration of induction agents necessary?
The required dose is unpredictable for individual patients and most agents have narrow therapeutic indices.
73
What is the primary function of an activated charcoal canister in an anesthetic circuit?
To scavenge and absorb waste anesthetic gases.
74
In CPR, what drug is typically administered as a first-line treatment for asystole?
Epinephrine
75
What is the definition of 'borborygmus'?
Intestinal noises caused by gas moving through the intestinal tract.
76
What is the term for the loss of muscle mass and general debilitation accompanying chronic disease?
Cachexia
77
When using a Doppler blood flow detector, what is the sound heard converted from?
The motion of red blood cells in small arteries into ultrasound frequency.
78
Why must the vaporizer cap be tightly closed after filling?
To prevent the leakage of waste anesthetic gas into the room.
79
What is the primary drawback of using a simple descriptive pain scale?
They are subjective and lack specific descriptions of behaviors to look for.
80
What is the defining characteristic of a 'Schedule II' drug regarding abuse potential?
High potential for abuse.
81
Name the specific nerve group at the caudal end of the spinal canal that resembles a horse's tail.
Cauda equina
82
What effect does untreated pain have on the immune system?
It suppresses the immune response, predisposing the patient to infection.
83
Why does untreated pain increase anesthetic risk during surgery?
Higher doses of anesthetic drugs are required to maintain a stable plane of anesthesia.
84
In cattle, which behavioral sign is a common indicator of pain?
Arched back
85
Which local anesthetic formulation allows for extended release up to 72 hours?
Nocita (liposome-encapsulated bupivacaine)
86
What is the primary action of an anticholinergic drug like Atropine?
To prevent or treat bradycardia and decrease secretions.
87
What is 'macroemulsion' in the context of Propofol?
An emulsion where particles are large enough to scatter light, making the liquid look cloudy.
88
What does a 'scavenging system' do?
It collects waste anesthetic gases from the machine and disposes of them outside the building.
89
Under what circumstance should IV fluids be AVOIDED during CPR according to the source?
In patients with euvolemia or hypervolemia.
90
What is the definition of 'tachypnea'?
Rapid respiratory rate.
91
What is the defining characteristic of tranquilization?
A drug-induced state of calm where the patient is aware of but unconcerned about its surroundings.
92
How is anxiolysis defined in the context of veterinary medicine?
The reduction of anxiety, typically synonymous with light tranquilization.
93
In a preanesthetic diagnostic workup, what does a PCV (packed cell volume) specifically measure?
The percentage of whole blood that is made up of red blood cells.
94
What condition is characterized by pupils of unequal sizes?
Anisocoria
95
Which ASA Physical Status classification is assigned to a patient with severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life?
PS4
96
A moribund patient not expected to survive without surgery is classified under which ASA Physical Status?
PS5
97
A patient with mild systemic disease, such as mild dehydration or obesity, is assigned which ASA Physical Status?
PS2
98
What percentage of total body weight is typically comprised of water in a healthy adult animal?
60%
99
Approximately what percentage of total body weight is made up of intracellular fluid (ICF)?
40%
100
Extracellular fluid (ECF) is divided into what two main sub-compartments?
Interstitial fluid and intravascular fluid (plasma).
101
What is the maintained osmolarity of all body fluids in a healthy animal?
Approximately $300\text{ mOsm/L}$.
102
Which major cation is found in higher concentrations in extracellular fluid than in intracellular fluid?
Sodium ($Na^{+}$)
103
Which major cation is found in higher concentrations in intracellular fluid than in intravascular fluid?
Potassium ($K^{+}$)
104
What is the term for the state of electrical balance maintained in any fluid compartment?
Electroneutrality
105
What is the primary function of albumin in the blood regarding fluid balance?
Regulating blood pressure by providing oncotic pressure.
106
What is the defining difference between a crystalloid and a colloid solution?
Crystalloids contain small solutes that pass through membranes, while colloids contain large molecules that stay in the vascular space.
107
What is the standard drip rate for a macrodrip administration set?
$10\text{ to }15\text{ gtt/mL}$ (or $20\text{ gtt/mL}$ in some brands).
108
What is the standard drip rate for a microdrip administration set?
$60\text{ gtt/mL}$
109
Which synthetic colloid is most commonly used in veterinary patients?
Hetastarch
110
The administration of pain medication before a painful stimulus occurs is known as _____.
Preemptive analgesia
111
In the United States, which agency regulates the purchase, storage, and use of controlled substances?
The Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA).
112
Under the Controlled Substances Act, which schedule is reserved for drugs with no currently accepted medical use?
Schedule I
113
Ketamine and Buprenorphine belong to which DEA schedule of controlled substances?
Schedule III
114
Diazepam and Midazolam belong to which DEA schedule of controlled substances?
Schedule IV
115
Morphine, Fentanyl, and Hydromorphone belong to which DEA schedule of controlled substances?
Schedule II
116
Why should the commercial oral solution of gabapentin (Neurontin) be avoided in dogs?
It contains xylitol, which causes life-threatening hypoglycemia and liver toxicity in dogs.
117
What rare but serious adverse effect can occur if trazodone is administered with other serotonin-modifying drugs?
Serotonin syndrome
118
What is the primary pharmacological effect of anticholinergics like atropine?
Blocking the action of acetylcholine at muscarinic receptors to prevent bradycardia.
119
Which species is particularly sensitive to xylazine, requiring only one-tenth the equine dose?
Cattle
120
What are the two active components in the combination drug Zenalpha?
Medetomidine and vatinoxan hydrochloride.
121
How does vatinoxan hydrochloride benefit a patient receiving medetomidine in the Zenalpha protocol?
It selectively blocks peripheral alpha2-receptors to reduce adverse cardiovascular effects like bradycardia and hypertension.
122
What is the main advantage of administering injectable anesthetics 'to effect'?
It ensures only the minimum amount of drug needed for unconsciousness is given, accounting for individual variation.
123
Propofol is classified as what type of anesthetic agent?
An ultra-short-acting nonbarbiturate anesthetic.
124
Why should Alfaxalone be administered slowly in dogs and cats?
To avoid respiratory depression or apnea during induction.
125
Which drug is used as a muscle relaxant in large animals but lacks anesthetic or analgesic properties?
Guaifenesin
126
What two drugs are combined in the product Telazol?
Tiletamine and zolazepam.
127
In the US, what color are compressed oxygen cylinders?
Green
128
In the US, what color are compressed nitrous oxide cylinders?
Blue
129
According to ISO standards, what is the body color for all medical gas cylinders?
White
130
What is the function of a pressure-reducing valve on an anesthetic machine?
It reduces high tank pressure to a constant lower pressure of $40\text{ to }50\text{ psi}$.
131
What does a flowmeter indicate on an anesthetic machine?
The amount of carrier gas ($L/min$) being delivered to the patient.
132
Which type of vaporizer must be used for anesthetic agents with low vapor pressure or those requiring precise concentration?
Precision vaporizer
133
What is the main chemical byproduct of the reaction between $CO_2$ and soda lime in an absorber canister?
Calcium carbonate ($CaCO_{3}$)
134
When using a Bain coaxial system, how is the integrity of the inner fresh gas tube tested?
Occlude the inner tube at the patient end while oxygen is flowing and watch for the flowmeter bobbin to drop.
135
What device is used to passively heat and humidify inspired gases by capturing exhaled water vapor?
Heat and moisture exchanger (HME).
136
What is the recommended exposure limit (REL) for halogenated anesthetic agents according to NIOSH?
$2\text{ ppm}$
137
Which type of scavenging system uses a vacuum or fan to pull waste gas out of the circuit?
Active scavenging system
138
What is the primary indicator that an activated charcoal canister is exhausted and needs replacement?
An increase in weight (usually by $50\text{ g}$).
139
Passive dosimeter badges used for monitoring WAG exposure provide what type of data?
Time-weighted average (TWA) in parts per million ($ppm$).
140
Which anesthetic agents are classified as 'ultrapotent' and require specialized training and reversal agents to handle?
Etorphine, thiafentanil, and carfentanil.
141
What is the significance of the P-R interval on an ECG?
It represents the time required for an impulse to travel from the SA node to the ventricles.
142
On an ECG, what does the QRS complex represent?
Ventricular depolarization
143
Which monitoring device uses ultrasound to convert red blood cell motion into an audible 'whooshing' sound?
Doppler blood flow detector
144
How does an oscillometric blood pressure monitor differ from a Doppler device?
The oscillometer automatically calculates systolic, diastolic, and mean blood pressures by analyzing arterial pulsations.
145
A pulse oximeter measures the percentage of available _____ binding sites occupied by oxygen.
Hemoglobin
146
Which physiological parameter is specifically measured by capnography?
End-tidal carbon dioxide ($ETCO_{2}$)
147
In the pain pathway, what is the term for the conversion of noxious stimuli into electrical signals by nociceptors?
Transduction
148
What is 'modulation' in the context of the nociception pathway?
The process in the spinal cord where nerve impulses are either amplified or suppressed.
149
Central nervous system hypersensitivity, also known as 'windup', is clinically manifested as _____.
Allodynia
150
Which receptor in the CNS is primarily responsible for the development of 'windup' pain?
The N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) receptor.
151
How long does a single application of Zorbium (transdermal buprenorphine) provide analgesia in cats?
$4\text{ days}$
152
What is the clinical duration of action for the long-acting local anesthetic Nocita?
Up to $3\text{ days}$
153
Which drug is a monoclonal antibody used to treat chronic osteoarthritis pain specifically in cats?
Frunevetmab (Solensia)
154
Why must acetaminophen never be given to cats?
They lack the enzymes to metabolize it, leading to toxic methemoglobinemia and liver failure.
155
What technique involves injecting local anesthetic into a vein distal to a tourniquet for extremity surgery?
Bier block (intravenous regional anesthesia).
156
According to RECOVER guidelines, what is the correct ratio of chest compressions to breaths in veterinary CPR?
$30:2$
157
During CPR, what is the recommended rate for chest compressions in dogs and cats?
$100\text{ to }120\text{ compressions per minute}$.
158
What is the primary emergency drug used to treat asystole or pulseless electrical activity (PEA) during CPR?
Epinephrine
159
Why should $IV$ fluids be avoided in euvolemic or hypervolemic patients during CPR?
They can decrease coronary and cerebral perfusion pressure and may cause pulmonary edema.
160
At what point during CPR should a technician or nurse stop chest compressions to provide breaths?
Compressions should not be stopped for breaths; they are delivered simultaneously.
161
What is the maximum amount of time tissues can survive without oxygen before brain damage is likely?
$3\text{ to }4\text{ minutes}$
162
Which monitoring abnormality is characterized by 'tall, tented T waves' and 'absent P waves'?
Hyperkalemia
163
In equine anesthesia, why is it critical to keep the head and neck in a natural position?
To prevent nasal congestion and potential upper airway obstruction.
164
What is the primary symptom of Porcine Stress Syndrome (PSS)?
Malignant hyperthermia
165
Why is it important to wash a cat-sized carrier before using it to transport a rabbit?
Rabbits are prey species and the scent of a predator (cat) is extremely stressful.
166
In rats, what is the reddish-brown discharge around the eyes and nose that occurs during stress or illness?
Porphyrin secretions
167
Which small mammal species does not possess a vomiting reflex?
Rabbits (and other small mammals like rodents).
168
During recovery, what is the target ambient temperature for a small mammal like a mouse or guinea pig?
$35^{\circ}C$ ($95^{\circ}F$)
169
What is the purpose of using EMLA cream on a rabbit's ear prior to catheterization?
To provide full skin thickness anesthesia and prevent the animal from jerking during venipuncture.
170
What is the common term for the collection of skull and upper airway abnormalities in breeds like Bulldogs and Pugs?
Brachycephalic Obstructive Airway Syndrome (BOAS).
171
Which monitoring device is used to detect and treat arrhythmias like ventricular tachycardia during surgery?
Electrocardiograph (ECG)
172
How is 'atelectasis' defined in an anesthetized patient?
Collapse of the alveoli, often occurring in the dependent (down-side) lung.
173
Which breathing circuit is preferred for very small patients to minimize the work of breathing?
Nonrebreathing circuit
174
What is the specific risk of using a 'triple drip' ($xylazine, ketamine, guaifenesin$) in horses for more than one hour?
Accumulation of guaifenesin can lead to muscle weakness and prolonged, poor recovery.
175
What term describes the state of reduced consciousness from which the patient cannot be fully aroused?
Obtunded
176
What is the difference between primary and secondary hyperalgesia?
Primary occurs at the site of injury (peripheral), whereas secondary occurs in the spinal cord (central).
177
Why is it important to ensure a $CO_2$ absorber canister is warm during use?
Warmth indicates the exothermic chemical reaction of $CO_2$ absorption is successfully occurring.
178
Which anesthetic equipment part must be fully closed to prevent waste gas from entering the room air when using an open interface scavenging system?
The butterfly valve
179
What is the primary hazard of carbon monoxide exposure during anesthesia?
It binds to hemoglobin with high affinity, preventing oxygen transport and causing hypoxemia.
180
In an ECG, if the wave of depolarization travels perpendicular to the electrodes, what is the result on the tracing?
No deflection (isoelectric line).
181
What is the standard blood pressure cuff width relative to the circumference of the limb?
$30\% \text{ to } 40\%$
182
How does pulse oximetry distinguish between oxyhemoglobin and carboxyhemoglobin?
It cannot; a conventional pulse oximeter will often show normal saturation even in carbon monoxide poisoning.
183
What is 'dead space' in the context of anesthetic equipment?
The breathing circuit volume where no gas exchange occurs, such as the space from the Y-piece to the patient's alveoli.
184
What is the clinical significance of a capnograph waveform that does not return to baseline ($0\text{ mmHg}$) during inspiration?
It indicates that the patient is rebreathing carbon dioxide.
185
Which local anesthetic technique is used for desensitizing the cornea for tonometry?
Topical ophthalmic application of proparacaine or tetracaine.
186
How does the 'interference' of a tongue-clip ECG lead compare to alligator clips?
Tongue-clip electrodes (atraumatic) cause less skin trauma but can be more prone to displacement.
187
Which ASA class would be assigned to a patient with compensated major organ disease (e.g., chronic renal failure)?
PS3
188
What are 'borborygmus' sounds?
Intestinal noises caused by gas moving through the GI tract.
189
What is the name of the group of nerves at the caudal termination of the spinal cord used as a landmark for epidurals?
Cauda equina
190
Which monitoring parameter is the best early indicator of cardiovascular collapse during anesthesia?
Mean arterial blood pressure (MAP)
VTS SAIM
flashcards
Decks in class (21)
# Cards
-
Endocrine161
-
Respiratory5
-
Behavior0
-
Ophthalmology0
-
Nutrition258
-
Cardiology210
-
Hematology285
-
Nephrology7
-
Infectious diseases0
-
Neurology28
-
Oncology0
-
Theriogenology0
-
Toxicology0
-
Pharmacology261
-
Hepatology5
-
Musculosketal0
-
Laboratory2
-
Ettingers Textbook of IM0
-
Small Animal Internal Medicine for Technicians and Nurses240
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chat GPT VTS-IM exam deck108
-
anesthesia190
