1
Q
Who can provide a FIS service?
A
ACTOs or FISOs.
2
Q
Where can UK FIS service be requested?
A
Outside CAS.
3
Q
Who is ultimately responsible for collision avoidance and terrain clearance outside CAS?
A
Pilots.
4
Q
What does it mean when an ATCO agrees to provide a service and the pilot ackowledges?
A
Establishes an accord where both parties abide by the definitions of the service provide (and more is not expected).
5
Q
What is a basic service (FIS)?
A
Advice and information useful for the safe and efficient conduct of flights.
6
Q
What information might be included in a basic service?
A
Weather info, serviceability, aerodrome conditions etc.
7
Q
What is a traffic service?
A
Surveillance based ATS where the ATCO provides surveillance based traffic info.
8
Q
What might the controller provide in a traffic service?
A
Headings and/or levels for the purpose of positioning and sequencing.
9
Q
What is a deconfliction service?
A
ACTO issues headings and/or levels aimed at achieving planned deconfliction minima.
10
Q
What is a procedural service?
A
ATCO provides restrictions, instructions and approach clearances which achieve deconfliction minima against other a/c receiving procedural service.
11
Q
What are the different types of FIS services are there?
A
Basic, traffic, deconfliction and procedural.
12
Q
When might a pilot be advised if a service commences, terminates or changes? (5)
A
Outside CAS.
Entering CAS.
Leaving CAS.
Changing from IFR to VFR/VFR to IFR in Class E.
VFR flights entering Class B - D from E or vice versa.
13
Q
What should controllers provide traffic leaving CAS?
A
Lateral or vertical point a/c will leave CAS (5-10 miles or 3000-6000ft prior to CAS boundary).
The type of service that will be provided.
‘NJE269D, you will be leaving CAS in 6 miles, traffic service’.
14
Q
What is duty of care?
A
Ensures pilots are clear on level of service they are receiving.
Level is dependant on ATCO.
Don’t risk taking higher service.
Ensure operating in accordance with UK FIS rules.
ATCOs must provide service requested by pilots unless genuine reason for not doing so.
15
Q
What information should be passed to a pilot about the location of potential conflicting traffic?
A
Bearing.
Range.
Relative movement.
Level.
Speed(if relevant).
Other details (a/c type).
16
Q
What is essential traffic?
A
Traffic which is separated for any period by less than standard separation and normally passed when ATS surveillance systems are not available.
17
Q
What should essential traffic include?
A
Direction of flight of conflicting traffic.
Type of conflicting traffic.
Level and ETA for reporting point.
Any alternative clearance.
18
Q
What is an Alerting service?
A
A service provided to notify appropriate organisations regarding aircraft in need of search and aid, and assist such organisations as required.
19
Q
Who can be provided an alerting service?
A
All aircraft provide with an ATS.
All other aircraft having filed a flight plan or otherwise known to ATSU.
To any aircraft known or believed to be subject to unlawful interference.
20
Q
What are the three phases of emergency?
A
Uncertainty, Alert and Distress.
21
Q
PHASE 1
A
22
Q
PHASE 2
A
23
Q
PHASE 3
A
24
Q
What is coordination?
A
The act of negotiation between two or more parties each vested with the authority to make executive decisions appropriate to the task being discharged.
25
What is tactical coordination?
Notification, negotiation, agreement and transfer has taken place progressively.
26
What is deemed coordination?
An estimate message ahs been passed, and no objection has been raised by the accepting ATC unit.
This procedure must be approved by the CAA.
27
What is standing coordination?
Aircraft can proceed under specified conditions without the need for individual coordination.
The principles are detailed in the MATS Pt.2.
28
When does transfer of control normally take place? (4)
At an agreed reporting point.
On an estimate for an FIR boundary.
At or passing an agreed level.
While the a/c is climbing/descending to a previously agreed level, providing the transferring controller has ensured that separation will exist.
29
When is transfer of control coincident with transfer of comms?
When it's a standing agreement (and a criteria has been met).
30
What are some benefits of standing agreements?
Reduced RT, standardised procedures, aid tactical planning and reduce workload.
31
What would need to be done if an aircraft was cruising below the agreed standing agreement level?
Individual coordination.
32
What ae the conditions for aircraft in trail for a standing agreement?
A/c may be transferred in trail with a minimum separation of 15nm where the rear aircraft is the same speed or slower than the lead a/c.
33
Can standing agreements be changed?
Yes. They can be modified or cancelled but on a temporary basis.
34
What conditions must be met for transfer of control to be coincident with transfer of comms for a standing agreement?
Receiving sector continues flight in same general direction.
Any potential conflicts are notified.
Transferred clean.
If a/c passes through Area of responsibility without comms, transfer of control is effective at receiving sector boundary.
35
What unit of measurement for pressure is used in the UK?
Hectopascals.
36
How are flight levels measured?
Measured to the standard pressure setting of 1013.25hpa.
37
What are the two types of pressure settings?
QNH (indicates altitude) and QFE (indicates height above specified datum).
38
What is an RPS?
Regional Pressure Setting.
Conservative forecast of the lowest QNH value within an ASR (altimeter setting region).
39
What is the main pro and con of regional pressure settings?
Provides mitigation against CFIT but increases the risk of vertical airspace infringement.
40
What is a transition altitude?
Altitude at or below which vertical position is in reference to an altitude.
41
What is a transition layer?
Layer between TA and TL - minimum 1000ft.
42
What is a transition level?
Lowest FL available above the transition altitude and shall be at least 1000ft above the TA.
43
What can an ATCO do if there is a system failure? (Vertical emergency separation)
ACTO can apply reduced vertical separation which is half standard vertical separation. (500ft where 1000ft would apply, 1000ft where 2000ft would apply).
44
What type of separation isn't applied to aircraft squawking A0000?
Vertical separation using Mode C.
45
Why can minimum vertical separation be applied between verified Mode C aircraft?
They are under a controllers control.
They have been coordinated.
They are operating in accordance with established agreements.
46
What is the minimum separation if the intentions of verified Mode S/Mode C aircraft are not known?
5000ft.
IFR flights in Class A/C/D/E.
VFR in Class C.
47
What is the Mode C tolerance for aircraft saying they are at an assigned level?
200ft more or less from that level.
48
What is the Mode C tolerance for aircraft saying they have vacated a level?
400ft more or less from that level.
49
When is an aircraft considered to have reached a level based on Mode C?
Three successive sweeps that indicate 200ft more or less from that level.
50
What is ACAS?
Airborne Collision Avoidance Systems.
Aircraft system that operates independently of ground based equipment to provide advice to pilots on conflicting a/c that are equipped with SSR transponders.
51
What equipment can perform ACAS?
TCAS II.
Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System.
52
What conditions make ACAS mandatory?
All turbine aircraft that are above 5700kg MTOM and capacity or more than 19 passengers.
53
What is TCAS and how does it work?
Traffic Alert Collision and Avoidance System.
Interrogates Mode C and Mode S of nearby aircraft and alerts pilots as appropriate.
Non-transponding aircraft are not identified.
Independent of nav systems, FMS and ATC ground systems.
54
What is a TA?
When does it provide warning?
What would this involve?
Traffic Advisory.
45 seconds before Collison.
'TRAFFIC, TRAFFIC'
Visible display of conflict on VSI.
Pilots advised to not taking avoiding action.
55
What is an RA?
When does it provide warning?
What would this involve?
Resolution advisory.
30 seconds before collision.
Pilots receive advise to climb/descend or maintain level.
Pilots should respond immediately.
Advise ATC and return to original clearance asap.
Minimum manoeuvre necessary to resolve.
56
What if both aircraft have TCAS II and receive RA's?
Coordinated RAs will be issued.
57
What is TCAS's aim?
To achieve a vertical miss of around 400ft.
(Doesn't aim to achieve standard separation, only to avoid collision).
58
What are some limitations of ACAS?
Does not detect non-transponding aircraft.
No RA's for traffic without an altitude reporting system.
No TA's issued against a/c with ROC more than 10000ft.
ACAS will fail if input from barometer or transponder are lost.
Horizontal manoeuvres prohibited.
GPWS/TAWS takes priority over ACAS/TCAS.
59
What is an ATC's response to airborne system warnings?
Until a pilot declares an RA, ATC are responsible for providing separation and avoiding action.
60
What equipment does an aircraft need for ACAS?
61
When can ATC provide instructions again after a pilot declares an RA?
When the pilot reports back that they are 'clear of conflict'.
62
What is STCA and how does it work?
(Ground based safety net)
Short Term Conflict Alert.
Generates an alert of potential conflict or actual infringement of separation minima.
Two levels of emergency - white (low), red (high).
63
What is MSAW and how does it work?
(Ground based safety net)
Minimum Safe Altitude Warning.
Warns ATCO about CFIT (controlled flight into terrain).
Compares levels reported by aircraft again MSA.
64
What is GPWS and how does it work?
(Ground based safety net)
Ground Proximity Warning System.
Earliest versions used radar that looked vertically downwards.
Does not provide sufficient warning of steeply rising terrain ahead.
65
What is TAWS and how does it work?
(Ground based safety net)
Terrain Awareness and Warning System (Enhanced GPWS).
Uses advanced radar and terrain database to provide forward-looking terrain avoidance.
TAWS can also provide deviation below ILS glide path, loss of altitude after departure and windshear warnings.
Controller should let pilot navigate TAWs and vector other aircraft away.
66
When are balloons able to comply with ATC instructions?
To change level.
67
What conditions are balloons unlikely to operate in?
In winds greater than 15kts.
68
Does identification correlate with a service being offered?
No, these are independent.
69
Surveillance systems can provide what to aircraft regardless of being identified or not?
Info/position of potential hazard.
Avoiding action.
Observed weather.
Assistance to aircraft in emergency.
70
In CAS, what surveillance service can be provided?
A radar control service.
71
Outside CAS, what type of surveillance service can be provided?
A deconfliction service or traffic service.
72
Who can be provided a radar control service?
IFR.
Special VFR.
VFR in Class B - D airspace.
73
What is flight path monitoring?
The use of an ATS surveillance system to provide advice relative to significant deviations from normal flight path, including deviations from their ATC clearance.
74
What is vectoring?
Provision of navigational guidance to aircraft in the form of headings.
75
What reasons aircraft be vectored outside CAS?
When an emergency arises.
When avoiding severe weather.
When specifically requested by the pilot.
76
What should you do if an aircraft has been misidentified?
Advise they pilot they are not identified.
Cancel any climb/descent instructions given.
Provide vertical separation from other traffic.
77
When would an aircraft need to be told they are identified?
If the turn method has been used or the aircraft is flying outside CAS.
78
When would an aircraft need to be told they are identified AND where their position is?
If the turn method has been used.
79
What instances would a position be reported?
Turn method used for identification.
When pilot requests it.
When aircraft flies off track.
If considered necessary by controller.
When an aircrafts estimate differs significantly from controllers.
80
What forms could position reports be passed in?
Well-known geographical position.
Bearing/distance from known position.
Lat and long.
Distance from touchdown if aircraft is on final approach.
81
How can transfer of identity be done if only PSR is available?
Pointing.
Direction and distance from common reference point:
- Indicator must be within 3nm of position stated.
- Distance must not exceed 30nm if aircraft is flying along an established route, 15nm otherwise.
- Electronic marker or symbol so no possible doubt.
82
What reasons might returns disappear on a radar display?
Radar coverage or failure.
83
What CAS-T and what could it be used for?
Temporary Controlled Airspace.
Corridor or bubble
84
What is a royal flight?
Movement of an aircraft tasked to carry one or more members of the Royal Family afforded status by the Head of Royal Travel, The Royal Household.
85
Who can grant other flights in UK airspace Royal Flight status?
The CAA.
(Other royal families, other reigning sovereigns, PMs and Head of States).
86
Where are Royal Flights in fixed-wing aircraft planned to take place in and what rules apply?
Permanent CAS.
Standard ATC procedures apply while operating in Class A/C/D.
87
If CAS-T is established, what class of airspace will it typically adopt?
Class D.
88
What is a Temporary Control Zone?
(In terms of CAS-T)
Established around aerodromes with permanent control zone.
15mins before and 30mins after ETA of Royal flight.
Lat/vert. limits to meet requirements of Royal flight.
Overseen by Commanding Officer (mil) or ATS authority.
89
What is a Temporary Control Area?
(In terms of CAS-T)
Corridor to join temporary or permanent control zones/areas 15mins before ETA until 30mins after ETD.
Lat/vert. limits to meet requirements of Royal flight.
Controlling authority will be civil/mil ACC or notified ATSU.
90
What is a Permanent Control Area?
(In terms of CAS-T)
Class E areas reclassed as Class D CAS-T.
15mins before ETA and 30mins after ETD.
Controlling authority for airspace will remain.
91
Who has authority to cancel a temporary control zone/area?
Military commander or civil ATC supervisor when Royal flight has left the temporary control zone/area and is established en-route in permanent Class A/C/D airspace or has landed.
92
Where would information about CAS-T be found if they are established?
Via NOTAM.
93
What does RLLC stand for?
Royal Low Level Corridor.
94
Who would use a RLLC?
Royal flights in helicopters outside CAS (notified via NOTAM).
95
What procedures apply to Royal flights in helicopters in CAS?
Normal ATC procedures if already inside or wishing to join CAS.
96
How much distance should the military avoid Royal aircraft by?
5nm (can reduce to 3nm in certain circumstances).
97
RLLCs are marked by a series of checkpoints, what is the approximate distance between these points?
Around 30nm or 20mins flying time apart.
Coincide with turning points.
98
No.32 (The Royal) Squadron callsign and designator for Royal Flights?
KRF_R
Kittyhawk
99
No.32 (The Royal) Squadron callsign and designator for flights by passengers entitled to CAA priority?
KRF_
Kittyhawk
100
No.32 (The Royal) Squadron callsign and designator for Positioning flights?
RRF_
Kitty
101
No.32 (The Royal) Squadron callsign and designator for other flights?
RRR_
Ascot
102
No.32 (The Royal) Squadron callsign and designator for royal flights?
TKF_R
Rainbow
103
The King's Helicopter Flight (TKHF) callsign and designator for flights by passengers entitled to CAA priority?
TKF_S
Rainbow
104
The King's Helicopter Flight (TKHF) callsign and designator for Positioning flights?
TKF_S
Rainbow
105
Helicopters flown by the Duke of York callsign and designator?
LPD_
Leopard
106
Civilian Chartered aircraft callsign and designator for Royal Flights?
KRH_R
Sparrowhawk
107
Civilian Chartered aircraft callsign and designator for flights by passengers entitled to CAA priority?
KRH_
Sparrowhawk
108
Civilian callsign and designator for flights by passengers entitled to CAA priority?
KRH_S
Sparrowhawk
109
Civilian Chartered aircraft callsign and designator for Positioning flights?
Normal callsign
110
Civilian Chartered rotary-wing aircraft callsign and designator for Positioning flights?
KRH_
Sparrowhawk
111
What letter do royal flights callsign and designators end in?
R.
KRF_R (Kittyhawk)
TKF_R (Rainbow)
KRH_R (Sparrowhawk)
112
What is an NSF?
Non-Standard Flight.
Aerial task that may not follow published routes or notified procedures.
113
What are some examples of NSF's?
Formation flights.
Flights to/from temp landing sites.
Photography.
Pipeline inspections.
Security Flights.
Air displays,
114
What's the process for NSF's?
Application made to ATC ops as shown in AIP.
Minimum 21 days' notice required.
Agreed activities given NSF reference number.
115
What is NDS?
Non-Deviating Status.
Flight category which entails priority handling for certain flights within specified classes of airspace by prior agreement.
116
When would an application have to be made for NDS?
Where inability to maintain specified track or flight level could render the task operationally ineffective.
NDS can be granted in full or partially.
117
What is a UAS?
Unmanned Aircraft Systems.
Any aircraft operating autonomously without a pilot onboard.
Equipment is required to control it remotely.
118
What should ATC do if they receive a report of a UAS?
Note time of encounter, altitude and position, description and any avoiding action taken by the pilot.
119
When can ATC stop advising other aircraft about a UAS that has been reported in the vicinity?
30mins after the last report.
120
Are balloon flights permitted in Class A airspace?
No.
121
Type of flight in Category A?
(Flight priorities)
Aircraft in emergency (e.g. engine fault, fuel shortage, seriously ill passenger).
Aircraft declaring 'Police emergency'.
Ambulance/Medical/Search and Rescue aircraft when the safety of life is involved.
NOTE: Ambulance a/c carry patients/casualties, whereas medical a/c carry organs/biological matter etc.
122
Type of flight in Category B?
(Flight priorities)
Flights operating for Search and Rescue or other humanitarian reasons.
Police flights under normal operational priority.
Other flights authorised by the CAA, including Open Skies Flights.
123
Type of flight in Category C?
(Flight priorities)
Royals flights and flights carrying visiting Heads of States.
124
Type of flight in Category D?
(Flight priorities)
Flights carrying Heads of Government (PM, home sec etc.) notified by the CAA.
125
Type of flight in Category E?
(Flight priorities)
HEMS/Search and Rescue positioning flights.
Other flights authorised by CAA, including flight check aircraft engaged on, or in transit to, time or weather critical calibration flights.
126
Type of flight in Category Z?
(Flight priorities)
Training, non-standard and other flights.
127
What is longitudinal separation?
Maintaining an interval between aircraft operating on the same, converging or reciprocal tracks, expressed in time or distance.
128
When is longitudinal separation used?
When surveillance systems are unavailable or when transferring from one sector to another.
Type of track dictates type of separation.
129
What is same track?
The track of one aircraft is in the same general direction and within 45 degrees of the track of the other aircraft.
130
What is reciprocal track?
Track of one aircraft is from the general opposite direction and within 45 degrees of the reciprocal track of the other aircraft.
131
What is crossing track?
Those intersecting tracks that cannot be classified as 'same' or 'reciprocal'.
132
What is longitudinal separation based on time (same track, same level) stated in ICAO Doc 4444?
15 minutes (or 10 minutes when 2 a/c flying along a route):
- With serviceable nav aids.
- A/c position and speed can be determined frequently.
- A/c are flying at the same level.
- A/c are on the same track.
133
What needs to be done to allow for reduced longitudinal separation?
An appropriate safety assessment has been conducted that shows an acceptable amount of safety will be maintained, and after prior consultation with users.
134
How much can reduced longitudinal separation be for aircraft on the same track and level?
3 minutes and 5 minutes.
135
What criteria allows for 3 mins reduced longitudinal separation?
Both a/c have functioning transponders.
Actual distance never less than 20 miles.
136
What criteria allows for 5 mins reduced longitudinal separation?
Both a/c have functioning transponders.
Actual distance never less than 30 miles.
137
When is longitudinal separation not needed?
If the aircraft is already separated vertically or horizontally using headings/speed control.
138
How much should nearby aircraft avoid helicopters by due to them producing downwash?
3 rotor diameters.
139
Do VFR/IFR executing a visual approach landing require wake turbulence separation?
No.
140
WAKE TURBULENCE SEPARATION!
141
What is the definition of manoeuvring area?
Part of aerodrome used for take-off, landing and taxiing of aircraft excluding apron.
142
What is procedural control?
Radar not required to provide service.
Pilots can pass reporting points/fixed navaids which allows ATCO to issue instruction with separation achieved vertically or horizontally.
143
What is surveillance control?
Real-time visual representation of traffic with additional information through systems.
Allows greater awareness of aircraft position.
144
What systems does surveillance control use?
PSR (Primary Radar Surveillance).
SSR (Secondary Surveillance Radar).
Mode-S (Additional info on top of Mode C).
ADS-B (Automatic Dependent Surveillance - position provided by satellite instead of radar).
Multilateration (Uses 1 or more receiver to calculate position based on known independent point).
145
What equipment does aerodrome control use to provide service?
Aerodrome Traffic Monitor (ATM) and Surface Movement Radar (SMR).
146
Where can a FIS service be provided?
Within an FIR by a flight information centre unless assigned to ATC unit.
Within CAS and at controlled aerodromes.
147
Who can provide FIS?
An ATCO (inside/outside CAS) or FISO (outside CAS only).
148
Who provides FIS at aerodromes?
Approach and/or aerodrome controllers, or be AFISO (Aerodrome Flight Information Service Officer).
149
What are some methods to transmit information?
Direction transmission through RTF.
General call.
Broadcast (ATIS and VOLMET).
Datalink (CPDLC).
150
What is ATIS?
Automatic Terminal Information Service.
Automatic provision of current, routine info to arriving and departing aircraft.
151
What is D-ATIS?
Data link version of ATIS.
152
What is VOLMET?
Audio message that provides met information.
Broadcast of a selection of airfields.
153
What is D-VOLMET?
Data link version of VOLMET.
154
What are continuous broadcasts?
VHF.
Contain current METARs, SPECIs and trend forecasts.
155
What are scheduled broadcasts?
HF.
Contains METARs, SPECIs, trend forecasts, TAFs and SIGMETs.
156
What is an alerting service?
A service provided to notify appropriate organisations regarding aircraft in need of search and aid rescue aid, and assist such organisations as required.
157
What is FIS?
A service provided for the purpose of giving advice and information useful for the safe and efficient conduct of flights.
158
When can an alerting service be provided?
For all aircraft receiving an ATC service, having filed a FPL or known to be subject to unlawful interference.
159
What should a pilot do to continue receiving an alerting service?
Adhere to FPL and provide continued position reporting.
160
What is the squawk code for unlawful interference?
7500.
161
What are the requirements for an alerting service to be conducted?
Provided in an FIR/ATC unit with adequate facilities.
Within CAS.
162
What are the three phases of emergency?
Uncertainty, alert and distress.
163
What is the uncertainty phase of emergency?
Uncertainty exists regarding safety.
No comms received for 30mins.
Aircraft fails to arrive within 30mins of ETA.
164
What is the alert phase of emergency?
Apprehension exists regarding safety.
Attempts to establish comms failed.
Cleared to land and failed to arrive within 5mins.
Info suggests operating efficiency impaired (not to the extent of forced landing).
Believed/known to be subject to unlawful interference.
165
What is the distress phase of emergency?
Reasonable certainty of imminent danger and require assistance.
Additional attempts to establish comms failed.
Fuel considered exhausted.
Info indicates forced landing is likely.
Infor received that a/c is about to make or has made a forced landing.
166
What is an SRR?
Search and rescue region.
Area of defined dimensions associated with rescue Coordination Centre, in which SAR services are provided.
167
What is a RCC?
Rescue Coordination Centre.
Unit responsible for promoting efficient organisation of SAR and coordinating the operations within an SSR.
168
What is a JRCC?
Joint Rescue Coordination Centre.
Respond to requests for helicopter support from police, ambulance, fire and coastguard.
169
What is a RSC?
Subordinate unit to RCC - more local basis.
170
What are the three codes for reporting emergencies?
INCERFA (Uncertainty)
ALERTFA (Alert)
DETRESFA (Distress)
171
What is the Urgency signal?
PAN-PAN.
Notice of difficulties without requiring immediate assistance.
E.g. Lost or medical emergency with no death risk.
172
What is the Distress signal?
MAY DAY.
Grave/imminent danger and require immediate assistance.
173
What is the PAN PAN Medical signal used for?
Medical transport flights.
174
What is an Advisory service?
A service provide within advisory airspace to ensure separation, in so for as practical, between aircraft which are operating on IFR flight plans.
175
What is Advisory airspace?
An airspace of defined dimensions, or designated route, within which air traffic advisory service is available.
176
What is an advisory route?
A designated route along which air traffic advisory service is available.
177
What type of airspace if advisory?
F - uncontrolled.
178
Are IFR and VFR flights required to communicate to ATC in Advisory airspace?
No.
179
How does advisory airspace compare to other services like FIS?
Advisory airspace should be viewed as an increased level of service over FIS.
180
When proposing a course of action in advisory airspace, what words should be used?
'Advise' or 'suggest'.
181
If an aircraft is crossing advisory airspace, how should they do it?
At 90o to minimise time in the airspace, and no faster than 250kts.
182
Are amendments subject to ATC clearance in advisory airspace?
No because advisory airspace only provides suggestions on courses of actions anyway.
183
What must a clearance be provided for when an aircraft will be operating within advisory airspace?
A clearance must be issued for the entire route.
184
What flights can be provided with an air traffic advisory service?
IFR aircraft that have filed a flight plan and are in communication with ATC inside advisory airspace.
185
What service can aircraft receiving an Advisory service also get?
FIS.
186
What is the see and avoid principle?
Foundational safety principle emphasising the pilot's responsibility to maintain a continuous visual lookout and proactively avoid other aircraft.
187
What is ATFM?
Air Traffic Flow Management.
Contributes to the safe, orderly and expeditious flow of traffic by ensuring ATC capacity is utilised to the max.
Also that the traffic volume is compatible with ATC capacities.
188
What is ATFCM?
Air Traffic Flow Capacity Management (Eurocontrol).
Service complementary to ATC, to ensure an optimum flow of traffic through areas where traffic demands at times exceeds ATC capacity.
189
What is FUA?
Flexible Use of Airspace.
Allows efficient sharing of airspace, with clear communication on limitations and periods of use.
190
Who runs ATFCM (Eurocontrol)?
Network Manager Operations Centre (NMOC) operated by Eurocontrol in Brussels.
191
What are the two functions used by NMOC in relation to ATFCM?
Airspace Data (AD - provides dynamic and static data, what's available),
and Integrated Initial Flight Plan Processing System (IFPS - Collate, check and distribute flight plans).
192
What are the four stages of ATFCM?
Strategic, Pre-Tactical, Tactical and Post Op.
193
What does the Strategic stage entail regarding ATFCM?
Months/weeks before.
Forecasting upcoming events and reviewing previous examples.
194
What does the Pre-Tactical stage entail regarding ATFCM?
Day before.
Greater precision applied such as routes and re-routing options, weather, military etc.
195
What does the Tactical stage entail regarding ATFCM?
On the day.
Putting measures in place to ensure safe, orderly and expeditious traffic.
Demand may still exceed capacity.
196
What does the Post Op stage entail regarding ATFCM?
After event.
Communication for customer service. Reflect on issues identified.
197
How does the NMOC provide ATFCM?
Planning and coordination of ATFCM measures.
Consultation with operators.
Ensure measures are effective.
Identification of alternative routes.
198
What is an FMP?
Flow Management Position.
Provide oversight/intervention when traffic levels cannot be safely handled.
199
What can FMP do when needing to reduce traffic flow?
Apply Short Term AFTCM measures (STAM).
200
What is STAM?
Short Term AFTCM Measures.
Temporarily reduce traffic flow from aerodromes.
201
What are the four types of STAM?
Minimum Departure Interval (MDI), Average Departure Interval (ADI), Airfield Reasonable Departure Spacing (ARDS) and Flow Regulation.
202
What is MDI in regards to STAM?
2 minute intervals for departures delayed to every 3 minutes.
203
What is ADI in regards to STAM?
Average Departure Interval.
Average timings over a set (1 per 4) period giving aerodromes more flexibility.
204
What is ARDS in regards to STAM?
Airfield Reasonable Departure Spacing.
No specific timings, aerodrome controller may spread departures to assist surveillance controllers.
205
What is Flow Regulation in regards to STAM?
Calculated Take Off Times applied to departing aircraft (CTOT) which means take off must be achieved 5mins before/10mins after slot.
206
Who can request and apply Flow Regulation?
ATSUs can request flow regulation and only NMOC can apply it.
207
What's the NATS software that monitors capacity?
Traffic Load Prediction Device (TLPD).
Provides 4hr picture in 15min blocks.
208
What notifies the FMP when intervention may be needed for a sector in regards to AFTCM?
When the monitor value (MV) hits a certain point.
209
What's the European software that monitors capacity?
Collaboration Human Machine Interface (CHMI).
Displays 8hr picture in 20min blocks.
210
What is ASM?
Airspace Management.
Planning function for maximising utilisation of airspace by dynamic time-sharing and segregation of airspace.
211
How does ASM view airspace?
Driven by principle of FUA - airspace not seen as directly civil/military but designated as required, on a temporary basis.
212
What are the three levels of ASM?
Strategic, Pre-Tactical and Tactical.
213
How many FABS are there?
9.
214
What is FABS and what do they do?
Functional Airspace Blocks.
Increase safety, greater capacity, more effective route structure, reduce environmental impact etc.
215
What is FRA?
Free Route Airspace.
Less restrictive routing which is available at certain areas above FL245.
Only entry/exit point specified.
216
What are cross border areas?
Allows for airspace restrictions, structure and reservations to extend across national borders and FIRs.
217
What is the definition of height?
The vertical distance of a level, point or object measured from a specified datum.
218
What is the definition of altitude?
The vertical distance of a level, point or object measured from mean sea level (MSL).
219
What is the definition of elevation?
The vertical distance of a point or object on the surface of the Earth measured from mean sea level.
220
What is aerodrome elevation?
The elevation of the highest point of the landing area.
221
What is a Flight Level?
A surface of constant atmospheric pressure. Related to a specific pressure datum (standard - 1013.25hpa).
222
What is the definition of level?
Generic term relating to vertical position of an aircraft in flight and meaning variously height, altitude or flight level.
223
What is standard pressure?
1013,25hpa (29.92 inches of mercury).
224
What is QFE?
Atmospheric pressure corrected to MSL assuming ISA.
225
What is transition level?
First flight level available above transition altitude.
Standard pressure used here and above.
226
What is transition altitude?
Altitude at which or below aircraft are controlled on altitude.
Fixed altitude above an aerdrome.
227
What is usually the transition altitude in the UK?
3000ft above aerodromes.
Can be 5/6000ft for larger aerodromes.
228
What is transition layer?
Space between transition altitude and transition level (must be 1000ft or more).
229
Why do we have approved phraseology?
To enable safe and effective exchanges of information. instructions and responses.
230
What is Annex 10?
Aeronautical telecommunications.
231
What is the ICAO doc for Manual of Radiotelephony?
ICAO Doc 9432.
232
What is CAP 413?
UK Radiotelephony Manual.
233
What is the recommended delivery of RT?
Max speed of 100 words per minute.
Formal and punctual (avoid pleasantries).
234
What requires a readback?
ATC route clearances.
Any clearance revolving around a runway.
Runway in use, altimeter setting, SSR codes, level instructions, heading/speed instructions and transition levels.
235
What is an ATC clearance?
Authorisation for an aircraft to proceed under conditions specified by an air traffic control unit.
236
Is a clearance mandatory?
No, it is an authorisation.
237
What is included in an ATC clearance?
Aircraft ID.
Clearance limit.
Route of flight.
Level.
Additional info (squawk, departure route, communications, expiry time).
238
What needs to happen if an amendment needs to be made to a clearance?
New clearance must be transmitted in full - this cancels all previous clearances.
239
What is an ATC instruction?
Directives issued by air traffic control for the purpose of requiring a pilot to take a specific action.
240
Does a pilot need to follow an instruction?
Instructions are mandatory and must be executed without delay.
241
What is included in an instruction?
Callsign and action to be takenm.
242
What is the definition of coordination?
The act of negotiation between two or more parties each vested with the authority executive appropriate to the task being discharged.
243
What are the four stages of coordination?
Notification, negotiation, agreement and transfer.
244
What is tactical coordination?
Relating to aircraft being controlled or about to be controlled.
Usually required if a/c is deviating from FPL route (weather/restriction/technical/emergency).
245
What is deemed coordination?
Subject to LOAs/local documents.
Coordination achieved if estimate is passed to receiving unit and there is no objection (reply not necessary).
Estimate passed either verbally or electronically.
246
What is standing coordination?
Written agreement with another sector, usually in the MATS Pt.2.
Implemented automatically on a permanent basis. No action required.
Aircraft must be on correct path, at agreed level, clean of traffic, transfer of control coincide with transfer of comms which takes place before boundary.
247
What is transfer of control?
Defined point located along flight path where responsibility of providing air traffic control service is transferred.
248
What is transfer of communication?
Either at the transfer of control point, or before, the transferring controller must instruct the aircraft to contact the frequency of the accepting controller.
249
What is AFTN?
Aeronautical Fixed Telecommunications Network.
Worldwide data communication network used in aviation for the exchange of important operational messages.
250
On a flight plan, what does the AFTN code 'ZPZX' mean?
ATS reporting office.
E.g. EGLLZPZX
251
On a flight plan, what does the AFTN code 'ZTZX' mean?
Aerodrome control.
E.g. EGPKZTZX
252
On a flight plan, what does the AFTN code 'ZQZK' mean?
Area control control. (FIR)
E.g. EGPXZQZK
253
How is the filing time read on a flight plan?
Day of the month followed by the UTC time.
254
What is written in the originator section of a flight plan?
AFTN address for reporting office.
4 digit location code (e.g. EGLL) followed by 4 digit ATS reporting office code (ZPZX).
255
What completes the middle section of a flight plan?
The pilot or dispatcher (contains information such as callsign, aircraft and performance, route, FL, aerodromes etc).
256
What information is contained in the concluding section of a flight plan?
Information concerning safety and security of the flight.
257
What is standard vertical separation?
Below FL290 = 1000ft.
FL290-FL410 (inclusive) = 2000ft.
258
What is the separation is RVSM (Reduced Vertical Separation Minimia) airspace?
Up to and including FL290 = 1000ft.
Above FL410 = 2000ft.
259
What must aircraft have to be RVSM compliant?
Two independent altimeters.
SSR transponder with reporting altitude (Mode-C).
One or more automatic altitude-control system (i.e. FMS).
Altitude alerting device (warns pilot pilot when deviating from level).
260
What RVSM status is RVA?
RVSM approved.
261
What RVSM status is RNV?
Not RVSM compliant (burger symbol).
262
What RVSM status is RVU?
RVSM compliance unknown.
263
What RVSM status is RVX?
RVSM exempt (military, police etc).
264
On a FPS, what does /W and /C represent?
W (equipped for RVSM) and C (not equipped).
265
What is longitudinal separation?
Maintaining an interval between aircraft operating along the same, converging or reciprocal tracks, expressed in time or distance.
266
What separation is used when surveillance systems are unavailable or when transferring from one sector to another?
Longitudinal.
267
What is same track?
The track of one aircraft is in the same general direction and within 45o of the track of other aircraft.
268
What is reciprocal track?
Track of one aircraft is from the general opposite direction and within 45o of the reciprocal track of the other aircraft.
269
What is crossing track?
Intersecting tracks that cannot be classified as 'same track' or 'reciprocal track'.
270
What is longitudinal separation based on time for aircraft on the same track at the same level?
15mins,
or 10mins when 2 a/c flying along a routh with:
- serviceable navaids
- a/c position/speed determined frequently
- a/c flying same level
- a/c on same track
271
When can reduced longitudinal separation be applied?
Appropriate safety assessment carried out showing acceptable level of safety will be maintained and after prior consultation with users.
272
What can longitudinal separation be reduced to for aircraft on same track/level? (Mins)
3 minutes - both aircraft having functioning transponders, actual distance never less 20 miles (Medway to Medway).
5 minutes - both aircraft having functioning transponders, actual distance never less 30 miles (Medway to Fisher).
273
When is longitudinal separation not needed?
When a/c are already separated either vertically, using headings or using speed control.
274
What is lateral separation?
Maintaining aircraft on different routes or in different geographical areas.
275
When does lateral separation exist?
When aircraft are flying on deemed separated routes,
both aircraft are established on radials diverging by 15o or more AND at least one is 15nm+ from the VOR,
both aircraft are established on tracks to/from NDB which are diverging by 30o AND at least one aircraft is 15nm+ from the NDB.
276
When can a clearance be issued for an aircraft to maintain its own separation in VMC?
- Authorised by ATS authority
- Operating in Class D/E in VMC
- During daylight hours
- Pilot of other a/c agrees
- A/c won't operate clos to other flights
277
When is the clearance for aircraft to maintain own separation in VMC allowed to be used?
- For a specified portion of flight at or below 10000ft for a/c in climb/descent
- If ATC believe VMC can be maintained
- If pilot agrees to notify ATC before entering IMC due to deteriorating conditions.
278
When might separation need to be used in an aerodrome?
Aircraft flying in aerodromes area of responsibility (i.e. circuits)
On manoeuvring area.
A/c landing and taking off.
279
What is the IFR departing aircraft separations?
1 min - Departure tracks diverge by at least 45o immediately after take off.
2 mins - A/c on same track, first a/c 40kts+ faster.
5 mins - A/c on same track, first a/c 20kts+ faster.
10 mins - A/c on same track, and first a/c is either less than 20kts faster, at same speed or slower than second.
280
When does reduced runway separation minima apply?
IFR departure separation and wake turbulence minima both don't apply,
there are two consecutive departures or there is a departure/arrival, followed by a landing aircraft AND safety can be met.
281
What is local traffic?
Any aircraft, vehicle or personnel on or near the runway to be used, traffic in the take-off and climb-out area or on the final approach area which may constitute a collision hazard to departing or arriving aircraft.
282
What are examples of ATS surveillance systems?
PSR
SSR
ADS-B
MLAT systems
283
What is standard horizontal separation based on radar?
5NM (unless at separate levels).
284
What can standard horizontal separation based on radar be reduced to?
3NM when radar/ADS-B/MLAT capabilities at a given location permit (used in London TMA),
2.5NM between succeeding aircraft established on same final approach track within 10NM of runway threshold.
285
What can standard horizontal separation be increased to?
20NM if aircraft is operating outside a certain distance from a ground-based radar head (due to increased margin of error when plotting position from being so far away from source).
286
What is the tolerance for verifying Mode-C?
200ft from assigned level in RVSM airspace (330ft in other airspace).
287
What should ATC ask the pilot if their Mode-C is not within the tolerance?
- Check they are operating on correct pressure setting and confirm level again.
If discrepancy still exists:
- Ask pilot to change to second transponder/recycle and turn off Mode-C.
If still incorrect:
- Ask pilot to squawk 0000 (so no corrupt identification info is displayed).
288
When has an aircraft cleared or vacated a level?
When more than 300ft in the anticipated direction from previously assigned level.
289
How do confirm that an aircraft has reached their level?
When there have been 3 display updates/15 seconds (whichever is greater).
290
What is the rule with vectoring aircraft below FL195?
Aircraft mustn't be vectored closer than 2.5nm from the edge of controlled airspace unless:
aircraft is being transferred or separation will exist.
291
What are the main wake turbulence categories?
Super (J), Heavy (H), Medium (M) and Light (L).
292
What is the weight relating to the Light wake turbulence category?
7000kg or less.
293
What is the weight relating to the Medium wake turbulence category?
7000kg-136,000kg.
294
What is the weight relating to the Heavy wake turbulence category?
136,000kg+.
295
What is the weight relating to the Super wake turbulence category?
Specific aircraft types of 136,000kg+.
(A380)
296
What are the wake turbulence considerations regarding helicopters?
Helicopters produce downwash (downward flow of air produced by the rotor blades as they generate lift) - nearby aircraft should avoid it with equivalent distance of 3 rotor diameters.
297
True or false?
'No requirement to provide wake turbulence to VFR/IFR executing visual approach landing.'
True.
298
TIME BASED SEPARATION
299
What is ACAS?
Airborne Collision Avoidance System.
An aircraft system based on SSR transponder signals, which operates independently of ground-based equipment equipment to provide advice to the pilot on potential conflicting aircraft that are equipped with SSR transponders.
300
What is the equipment required to implement ACAS?
TCAS - Traffic Collision Avoidance System.
Acts as a final safety net to prevent mid-air collision.
301
What does TCAS do if it detects a risk?
Outputs a TA or RA.
Advisory is based on time to Closest Point of Approach.
302
What is TA?
Traffic Advisory.
Indication to crew that an a/c poses a threat.
Requires monitoring, but no mandated action.
303
What is RA?
Resolution Advisory.
Indicates to crew that they are required to take action indicated and must follow it.
304
Which takes priority, ATC instruction/AA or RA?
RA takes priority over existing ATC clearance.
305
What does an RA aim to do?
Aims to achieve vertical miss between 300-700ft 15-35 seconds before CPA.
Only resolves conflict vertically.
Looks to prevent collision, not maintain separation.
306
How long does a TA go off before a CPA?
20-48 seconds.
307
What turbine powered aircraft must be equipped with TCAS?
Aeroplanes with a MTOM exceeding 5700kg and aeroplanes carrying more than 19 passengers.
308
How does TCAS work?
Onboard transponder interrogates Mode and S transponders of other aircraft within 26NM.
309
What is TAWS?
Terrain Avoidance and Warning System.
310
What are the two types of equipment used for TAWS?
GPWS and EGPWS.
311
What is GPWS? (TAWS)
Ground Proximity Warning System.
Uses altimeter to measure terrain proximity.
Aims to reduce CFIT instances (Controlled Flight Into Terrain).
312
What is EGPWS?
Enhanced Ground Proximity Warning System.
Uses altimeter and GPS for enhanced terrain awareness (matches a/c location with database of obstacles).
313
What is the disadvantage of GPWS?
If aircraft is encountering steeply rising ground, crew would have little time to respond to warning.
314
Why is EGPWS better than GPWS?
EGPWS provided greater precision/reliability/more time to react.
315
What aircraft are required to have TAWS?
When MTOM is above 5700kg
OR
Carries more than 9 passengers.
316
What equipment is required for TAWS?
Red light indicator (hard warning - immediate action),
and amber (soft warning - adjustment to flight profile/configuration),
horizontal situation display.
317
What is ACAS?
Airborne Collision Avoidance System.
If TCAS detects
318
How quick must a pilot respond to an RA?
Within 5 seconds, then 2.5 seconds for any further RAs.
319
What has priority over RA?
Stall warning, windshear alerts or GPWS alerts.
320
What are some of the limitations of ACAS?
Blind to non-SSR traffic.
Requires transponder and altimeter.
RA manoeuvres in vertical plane only.
Dependent on prompt pilot compliance.
Limited display in high traffic density.
Inhibited below 1000ft (terrain).
321
What is a STCA? (Ground-based safety nets)
Short Term Conflict Alert.
Generates alert prior to loss of separation.
Both aircraft must have functioning Mode C or S transponder.
Target labels flash, red (high severity) or white (low severity).
322
What is a APW? (Ground-based safety nets)
Area Proximity Warning.
Warns controller about unauthorised penetration of airspace.
323
What is a CAIT? (Ground-based safety nets)
Controlled Airspace Infringement Tool.
Indicates to controller when a/c enters CAS without permission.
Data block and return turn pink.
Useful around military airspace.
Only indicated once its happened (limitation).
324
What is a oCAIT? (Ground-based safety nets)
Indicates when a/c planned to remain inside CAS strays outside.
Only indicated once its happened (limitation).
325
What is a PIT? (Ground-based safety nets)
Position Indicator Tool.
Indicates when a/c is heading towards a DA or restricted airspace.
Can predict before it happens (pro).
326
What is a MSAW? (Ground-based safety nets)
Minimum Safe Altitude Warning.
Alerts controller when a/c are in proximity to terrain.
Amber MSAW label above callsign - predicted below MSA.
Red MSAW label above callsign - below MSA.
Helps prevent CFIT.
327
What is LLWAS? (Ground-based safety nets)
Low Level Wind Shear Alert Warning.
Ground based system detecting windshear and associated phenomena close to aerodrome.
Measured by anemometers placed around aerodromes.
328
What is a APM? (Ground-based safety nets)
Warns about increased risk of CFIT by generates alert to aircraft in proximity to terrain or obstacles on final approach.
Used for precision and non-precision instrument approaches.
329
What are the four methods to identify an aircraft?
Turn method, Position method, Departing aircraft method and Transfer of identification method.
330
What is the turn method?
Ascertain a/c heading, instruct pilot to execute 30-degree turn.
331
What is the position method?
Correlating a radar position indication with an a/c reporting its position e.g. “Report overhead Hayle”
332
What is the departing aircraft method?
Correlating radar position indication with a known a/c that has just departed within 1NM of runway.
