1
Q
What does the automatic flight control system consist of?
A
The autopilot flight director system (AFDS) and the autothrottle system (A/T)
The AFDS and A/T work together to perform climb, cruise, descent, and approach phases of flight.
2
Q
What is the function of the mode control panel (MCP)?
A
Controls the autopilot, flight director, altitude alert, and autothrottle systems
The MCP is used to select and activate AFDS modes and establish altitudes, speeds, and climb/descent profiles.
3
Q
What displays flight director information?
A
Primary flight displays (PFDs) and head-up displays (HUDs)
Flight director information is crucial for pilots to follow during automated flight.
4
Q
What commands are added only during an autopilot approach and landing?
A
Autopilot rudder commands
These commands assist in maintaining control during critical phases of flight.
5
Q
What happens when the autopilot is engaged?
A
Pilot controls are back driven to provide visual and tactile indications of automatic commands
This feature enhances pilot awareness of autopilot activity.
6
Q
What does the MCP mode selection indicate?
A
Mode activation is indicated by PFD and HUD roll and pitch flight mode annunciations
Illuminated lights on switches also indicate armed or active modes.
7
Q
What components does the AFDS consist of?
A
Three autoflight computing systems and the MCP
These systems work together to manage automated flight tasks.
8
Q
Fill in the blank: The MCP is used to select and activate _______.
A
AFDS modes
The MCP plays a critical role in managing flight operations.
9
Q
True or False: The AFDS has direct control over the flight control surfaces.
A
False
The autopilot indirectly controls the surfaces through commands sent to the PFCs.
10
Q
What is the role of the Primary Flight Computers (PFCs)?
A
Generate flight control surface commands
The PFCs process autopilot commands to manage aircraft control.
11
Q
What is indicated by a light on the MCP switch?
A
The mode is armed or active
This visual cue is important for pilots to confirm mode selection.
12
Q
What are the modes that activate with a single push?
A
- altitude hold (ALT)
- heading select (HDG SEL)
- flight level change (FLCH)
- track hold (TRK HOLD)
- track select (TRK SEL)
- flight path angle (FPA)
- vertical speed (V/S)
- heading hold (HDG HOLD)
These modes are primarily used for basic autopilot functions.
13
Q
Which modes arm or activate with a single push?
A
- glidepath (G/P) via APP
- localizer / final approach course (LOC/FAC)
- glideslope (G/S) via APP
- vertical navigation (VNAV) switch
- back course (B/CRS) via LOC/FAC or APP switch
- lateral navigation (LNAV)
These modes are typically used for more advanced navigation during approach.
14
Q
How can all modes be deselected?
A
By disengaging the autopilot and turning both flight directors off
This applies to all modes except G/S and G/P.
15
Q
What happens after localizer and glideslope capture?
A
The localizer and glideslope modes can be deactivated by:
* disengaging the autopilot
* turning both flight directors off
* selecting the go-around mode
* reselecting APP if above 1,500 feet radio altitude
This allows for a safe transition back to manual control.
16
Q
Which modes can be disarmed by pushing the mode switch a second time?
A
- VNAV
- LNAV
- LOC
- FAC
- G/S
- G/P
LNAV can be automatically armed on go-around, which is an exception.
17
Q
What parameters can be selected on the MCP?
A
- airspeed
- Mach
- altitude
- track
- flight path angle
- vertical speed
- heading
All parameters except vertical speed and flight path angle can be preselected before activation.
18
Q
How is the autopilot engaged?
A
By pushing either of the two MCP autopilot engage switches
This action activates the autopilot system.
19
Q
What are the methods for normal autopilot disengagement?
A
- control wheel autopilot disconnect switch
- MCP autopilot disengage bar
- overriding with control column
- control wheel
- rudder pedals (only with LAND 2 or LAND 3 annunciated)
Each method provides a way to regain manual control of the aircraft.
20
Q
What happens when an override force sufficient to move the control column is applied?
A
The autopilot disengages and control transitions to manual inputs from the flight crew.
21
Q
What displays when the autopilot is manually or automatically disengaged?
A
The EICAS warning message AUTOPILOT DISC.
22
Q
What may allow the re-engagement of the autopilot after a failure?
A
Pushing the autopilot engage switch.
23
Q
How does the autopilot system detect mode degradations?
A
It can detect the degradation of a specific autopilot mode and uncommanded altitude changes on the MCP.
24
Q
What happens to the autopilot when an engaged mode degrades?
A
It remains engaged in an attitude stabilizing mode based on inertial data.
25
What indicates a degraded autopilot mode on the PFD?
A line through the affected flight mode annunciation (amber line).
26
What message displays when the autopilot is operating in a degraded mode?
AUTOPILOT.
27
What occurs when the degradation is no longer present?
The annunciations clear, the autopilot resumes using the mode, and a green box displays around the affected flight mode for 10 seconds.
28
What indicates no autoland during ILS/GLS when the airplane is between 1,500 and 200 feet RA?
NO AUTOLAND shows in the autoflight status annunciation.
29
What happens if the flight crew does not respond to a pitch or roll mode degradation above 500 feet RA?
The autopilot automatically disconnects.
30
What message shows when the autopilot disconnects due to mode degradation?
AUTOPILOT DISC.
31
What mode is available for a go-around above 200 feet RA?
TO/GA mode.
32
What indications are given below 500 feet RA for mode degradation?
FMA strikethrough, AUTOPILOT message, and NO AUTOLAND message.
33
Does the autopilot disconnect below 500 feet RA?
No, the autopilot does not disconnect at this height.
34
Fill in the blank: The EICAS warning message for autopilot disengagement is _______.
AUTOPILOT DISC
35
What does the flight director provide when a specific flight director mode degrades?
An attitude stabilizing command based on inertial data
## Footnote
The condition is indicated by the removal of the affected flight director bar and the HUD flight guidance cue.
36
How does the AFDS respond to significant ILS signal interference?
Disregards the ILS signal and remains engaged in an attitude stabilizing mode based on inertial data
## Footnote
The AFDS uses inertial data for up to 20 seconds to allow the localizer or glideslope signal error to resolve.
37
What happens to ILS raw data during signal interference?
Erratic movement of the ILS raw data occurs
## Footnote
No annunciation is provided unless the condition persists.
38
What is the maximum descent angle limited to by the AFDS during glideslope signal interference?
3.25 degrees
## Footnote
This limit helps to control high rates of descent and sink rates while in the attitude stabilizing mode.
39
How long does the AFDS use inertial data to resolve glideslope signal errors?
Up to 15 seconds
40
What does the AFDS do if localizer signal interference occurs?
Uses inertial data for up to 20 seconds to allow the localizer signal error to resolve
41
What types of navigation signal degradation can the AFDS detect on approach?
* ILS or GLS approach
* Approach using IAN
## Footnote
This includes errors in the calculated FAC or GP.
42
True or False: The AFDS provides annunciations during short ILS signal interferences.
False
43
What happens when the AFDS detects signal degradation?
Indications of a pitch or roll mode failure occur, including:
* A line shows through the pitch or roll FMA if the autopilot is engaged
* The AUTOPILOT message shows if the autopilot is engaged
* The flight director pitch or roll bar biases out of view
* The HUD guidance cue is biased out of view
44
What messages are displayed when the autopilot is engaged on an ILS/GLS approach above 1,500 feet?
The NO AUTOLAND message shows
45
What messages are displayed for ILS or GLS approaches between 1,500 feet and 200 feet?
The NO AUTOLAND message shows and NO AUTOLAND shows on the ASA on the PFD and HUD
46
Under what conditions does the autopilot automatically disconnect?
The autopilot disconnects if:
* The pilot does not push TO/GA for a go-around or disconnect the autopilot within 10 seconds of the AUTOPILOT and NO AUTOLAND messages showing
* The airplane is above 500 feet AGL
47
True or False: The autopilot disconnects in an underspeed condition.
False
48
What alerts indicate the autopilot has disconnected?
The alerts are:
* AUTOPILOT DISC message
* Master warning light
* Wailer
49
Do the NO AUTOLAND message and NO AUTOLAND ASA indicate a failure of the autoland system?
No, these messages can show due to insufficient lateral or vertical navigation signal integrity.
50
When do the NO AUTOLAND message and NO AUTOLAND ASA clear?
They clear if the autopilot is disconnected or the TO/GA switches are pushed.
51
Under what condition can flight director steering indications display when the flight director switch is OFF?
They display if a TO/GA switch is pushed, airspeed is greater than 80 knots, and the flaps are out of up.
52
How can the flight director display be removed?
By cycling the respective flight director switch on, then off.
53
What does LAND 2 indicate about the level of redundancy?
A single fault cannot cause a significant deviation from the flight path (fail passive)
54
What does LAND 3 indicate about the autopilot system?
A single fault cannot prevent the autopilot system from making an automatic landing (fail operational)
55
What does NO AUTOLAND mean in the context of AFDS?
AFDS is unable to make an automatic landing
56
What does an EICAS message indicate in relation to the automatic landing system?
Displays for any fault limiting the capability of the automatic landing system
## Footnote
EICAS stands for Engine Indication and Crew Alerting System
57
When are aural alerts for EICAS messages inhibited?
Until after touchdown for messages not affecting safety of flight
## Footnote
This is to avoid distractions during critical phases of flight
58
What conditions inhibit changes in autoland status below 200 feet AGL?
When doing an ILS or GLS autoland and LAND 2 or LAND 3 shows on the PFD
## Footnote
AGL stands for Above Ground Level
59
What message will show at 100 feet AGL if the autopilot is not disconnected while using IAN with G/P mode engaged?
NO AUTOLAND
## Footnote
IAN refers to Integrated Approach Navigation
60
Where do AFDS flight mode annunciations display?
Just above the PFD and HUD AFDS status annunciations
## Footnote
PFD stands for Primary Flight Display, HUD stands for Head-Up Display
61
List the three types of AFDS flight mode annunciations.
* autothrottle
* roll
* pitch
## Footnote
These modes indicate the current status of the flight control system
62
How are active or captured modes displayed in the flight mode annunciator boxes?
In large green letters at the top of the boxes
## Footnote
This helps pilots quickly identify active modes
63
What do armed modes display in the flight mode annunciator boxes?
In smaller letters (white on the PFD) at the bottom of the boxes
## Footnote
TO/GA mode is an exception and displays differently when in the air
64
What indicates a degradation of a specific mode while the autopilot is engaged?
A line (amber on the PFD) through the mode annunciations
## Footnote
This alerts the crew to potential issues with the mode
65
What does a green box around the mode annunciation signify?
The mode has just become active
## Footnote
This visual cue lasts for 10 seconds
66
What does THR mode in autothrottle do?
Applies thrust to maintain the climb/descent rate required by the pitch mode
## Footnote
This mode is crucial for maintaining altitude or descent rate
67
What does THR REF indicate in autothrottle?
Thrust set to the reference thrust limit displayed on EICAS
## Footnote
This helps ensure the aircraft operates within safe thrust limits
68
What does IDLE mode display while in autothrottle?
Displays while the autothrottle moves thrust levers to idle
## Footnote
IDLE mode is followed by HOLD mode
69
What happens in HOLD mode of autothrottle?
Thrust lever autothrottle servos are inhibited, allowing manual thrust adjustment by the pilot
## Footnote
This gives pilots full control over thrust settings
70
What does SPD mode in autothrottle do?
Maintains the command speed set using the MCP IAS/MACH selector or by the FMC
## Footnote
MCP stands for Mode Control Panel, FMC stands for Flight Management Computer
71
What does the autothrottle not exceed during SPD mode?
Operating speed limits or thrust limits displayed on the EICAS
## Footnote
This ensures safe operation of the aircraft
72
What prefixes are used when only one autothrottle is connected and armed?
'L-' or 'R-' preceding the mode
## Footnote
This indicates which autothrottle is active
73
At what altitude does LNAV activate during a go-around?
50 feet radio altitude with flight director only or 200 feet radio altitude with autopilot engaged.
74
How does LNAV deactivate?
By selecting any other roll mode or by disengaging the autopilot and turning both flight directors off.
75
What is the condition for LOC (armed) to capture the localizer?
When within range and within 120° of localizer course.
76
How is TO/GA annunciated on the ground?
By positioning either flight director switch ON when both flight directors are OFF; or by pushing either TO/GA switch with airspeed greater than 80 KIAS.
77
When does TO/GA roll guidance become active?
At lift-off.
78
When is TO/GA armed in flight?
When flaps are out of up or glideslope is captured.
79
How is TO/GA activated in flight?
By pushing a TO/GA switch.
80
What does TO/GA - roll mode maintain?
The existing ground track.
81
What does HUD provide during takeoff?
Lateral guidance for takeoff roll and rejected takeoff using ILS or GLS signals
## Footnote
HUD stands for Head-Up Display, which enhances situational awareness during flight operations.
82
What must be selected in the FMC for HUD TO/GA to become active?
HUD TAKEOFF departure
## Footnote
FMC stands for Flight Management Computer, which manages flight plans and navigation.
83
When does HUD guidance become active?
When the airplane approaches the runway center line and heading is within 45° of runway heading
## Footnote
This ensures that the aircraft is aligned for takeoff.
84
What happens to the lateral flight director bar during HUD takeoff?
It moves with the guidance commands but is not certified for use during a HUD takeoff
## Footnote
This indicates that while it provides information, it should not be relied upon for HUD takeoff operations.
85
Is HUD TO/GA takeoff based on an offset localizer course recommended?
No, it may provide guidance cues not aligned with the runway centerline and should not be used
## Footnote
Using an offset localizer can lead to misalignment during takeoff.
86
What occurs if the selected localizer signal is blocked?
HUD TO/GA may not provide appropriate guidance
## Footnote
This situation can be caused by obstacles like buildings obstructing the signal.
87
What changes occur in HUD symbology when TO/GA mode is selected?
HUD symbology automatically changes to full mode symbology and the HUD symbology control switch is inhibited
## Footnote
This indicates that the system is in a critical phase of flight.
88
What is ROLLOUT (armed)?
Displayed below 1500 feet radio altitude and activates at touchdown with weight on the wheels
## Footnote
ROLLOUT assists in maintaining alignment on the runway after touchdown.
89
What does ROLLOUT (active) do after touchdown?
Uses rudder and nosewheel steering to steer the airplane on the localizer centerline
## Footnote
This enhances control during the landing rollout phase.
90
How is TO/GA annunciated on the ground?
By positioning either flight director switch ON when both flight directors are OFF or by pushing either TO/GA switch with airspeed greater than 80 knots
## Footnote
This is a critical function for initiating takeoff guidance.
91
What initial pitch does TO/GA guidance indicate at lift-off?
8° up
## Footnote
This pitch angle helps in achieving the necessary climb rate during takeoff.
92
What does the AFDS command after lift-off?
A pitch attitude to maintain a target speed of V2 plus 15 knots or the airspeed at rotation plus 15 knots, whichever is greater.
93
What happens if the current airspeed remains above the target speed for 5 seconds?
The target airspeed is reset to the lesser of current airspeed or V2 plus 25 knots.
94
When is TO/GA armed during flight?
When flaps are out of up or glideslope is captured.
95
What is the commanded speed when a go-around is initiated?
The MCP IAS/MACH window or current airspeed, whichever is higher, to a maximum of the IAS/MACH window speed plus 25 knots.
96
What does VNAV annunciation look like on the PFD?
Displayed in small white characters below the current pitch mode.
97
What does VNAV annunciation look like on the HUD?
Displayed in small green characters below the current pitch mode.
98
At what altitude does VNAV activate?
400 feet above field elevation.
99
What does VNAV SPD (active) do?
Maintains the FMC speed displayed on the PFD and HUD and/or the CDU CLIMB or DESCENT pages.
100
What does VNAV PTH (active) maintain?
FMC altitude or descent path with pitch commands.
101
What happens if the MCP altitude window remains set to the current cruise altitude and the airplane is within two minutes of top of descent?
The EICAS advisory message FMC MESSAGE displays and the CDU Help window opens with instructions to set a lower altitude before top of descent.
102
Fill in the blank: The AFDS uses the speed set in the _______ for V2.
IAS/MACH window.
103
What does VNAV ALT indicate?
When a conflict occurs between the VNAV profile and the MCP altitude, the airplane levels and the pitch flight mode annunciation becomes VNAV ALT. The airplane maintains altitude.
104
How can a pilot continue the climb or descent when VNAV ALT is active?
Change the MCP altitude and push the altitude selector or change the pitch mode.
105
What modes can be selected for an early descent?
FLCH, V/S, or FPA may be selected to descend below the VNAV descent path.
106
What happens when VNAV is armed during descent?
If the airplane descent path subsequently intercepts the VNAV descent path, VNAV activates in VNAV PTH.
107
What does FLCH SPD (active) mode do?
Pushing the MCP FLCH switch opens IAS/MACH window (if blanked). Pitch commands maintain IAS/MACH window airspeed or Mach.
108
How is altitude hold mode activated?
Pushing the MCP altitude HOLD switch or capturing the selected altitude from a V/S, FPA, or FLCH climb or descent.
109
When does FLARE (armed) display during autoland?
FLARE displays below 1500 feet RA.
110
At what altitude does FLARE (active) activate during autoland?
FLARE activates between 60 and 40 feet radio altitude.
111
What happens to FLARE at touchdown?
FLARE deactivates at touchdown and smoothly lowers the nosewheel to the runway.
112
How is autothrottle operation controlled?
From the MCP and CDUs
113
What does the MCP provide in relation to the autothrottle?
Mode and speed selection
114
What do the CDUs enable for the autothrottle?
FMC reference thrust limit selection
115
What happens when VNAV is active?
The FMC selects autothrottle modes and target thrust values
116
What are the three states of the autothrottle?
* OFF
* ARMED
* Active
117
When is the autothrottle considered OFF?
When the A/T arm switches are OFF
118
What indicates that the autothrottle is ARMED?
A/T switches are ON and the autothrottle mode is blank
119
What indicates that the autothrottle is ACTIVE?
A/T arm switches are ON and there is an autothrottle mode shown
120
List the active autothrottle modes.
* IDLE
* HOLD
* THR
* THR REF
* SPD
121
Can the autothrottle be operated with flight directors OFF?
Yes
122
What happens when both flight directors are OFF and the autothrottle is active?
The autothrottle transitions to SPD
123
What does the autothrottle maintain during a manual landing?
The IAS/MACH window speed
124
What occurs at 25 feet RA during a manual landing with autothrottle active?
Thrust reduces to IDLE and the autothrottle mode transitions to IDLE
125
What provides stall protection when the autothrottle is armed and not active?
Automatic activation
126
Under what conditions does the autothrottle automatically activate?
* Pitch mode is one of ALT, V/S, FPA, VNAV ALT, VNAV PTH, VNAV SPD, FLCH SPD, G/S, G/P, TO/GA, or no active pitch mode
* Speed is less than an FMC calculated value for one second
* Thrust is below reference thrust limit
* Airplane barometric altitude is 400 feet above field elevation on takeoff or above 100 feet RA on approach
127
What mode does the autothrottle engage into if the current pitch mode is ALT, V/S, FPA, G/S, G/P, VNAV ALT, VNAV PTH, or if the autopilot is disconnected?
SPD mode
## Footnote
SPD mode maintains minimum maneuvering speed or the speed set in the IAS/MACH window, whichever is greater.
128
What happens during a climb in VNAV SPD with the autothrottle armed and not active?
Autothrottle activates in THR REF mode
## Footnote
It advances thrust toward the reference thrust limit.
129
What is the autothrottle's behavior during a climb in FLCH SPD with the autothrottle armed and not active?
Activates in THR mode
## Footnote
It advances thrust toward the reference thrust limit.
130
During a climb in TO/GA after a go-around, what mode does the autothrottle activate if it is armed and not active?
THR mode
## Footnote
The autothrottle advances thrust toward the reference thrust limit.
131
What occurs during a descent in VNAV SPD or FLCH SPD with the autothrottle armed and not active if speed decreases into the amber band?
Autothrottle activates in THR mode
## Footnote
It advances thrust to reach the CLB thrust limit when the stick shaker is activated.
132
If the pitch mode is FLCH SPD or VNAV SPD and the autothrottle is in HOLD mode, what happens if speed decreases into the amber band?
Autothrottle changes from HOLD to THR mode
## Footnote
It sets thrust to reach the CLB thrust limit when the stick shaker is activated.
133
What occurs during takeoff if the pitch mode is TO/GA and the A/T is in HOLD mode while thrust is manually set below the TO thrust reference?
A/T mode changes from HOLD to THR REF
## Footnote
It advances thrust toward the selected TO thrust reference as long as CAS is within 10 kts of stick shaker speed.
134
What does the EICAS advisory message AUTOTHROTTLE L or R indicate?
Respective autothrottle servo failure
## Footnote
It displays when the autothrottle is active and only one autothrottle is armed.
135
What does L SPD indicate on the PFD autothrottle flight mode annunciation?
Only the left autothrottle is active in speed mode
## Footnote
This occurs when the autothrottle is active and only one is armed.
136
What does the autothrottle system control?
Speed or thrust control
## Footnote
It moves either or both thrust levers depending on the active mode.
137
What can thrust levers be manually positioned without?
Disconnecting the autothrottle
138
What happens to the thrust levers after manual positioning?
The autothrottle system repositions thrust levers to comply with the active mode
139
When can the autothrottle enter HOLD mode?
When the pitch flight mode annunciation is FLCH SPD or VNAV SPD and the pilot overrides thrust levers or in a descent after the thrust levers reach IDLE
140
What occurs in HOLD mode?
Thrust lever servos are inhibited and the autothrottle does not control thrust or speed
141
How can the autothrottle system be disconnected manually?
By pushing either autothrottle disconnect switch or positioning A/T ARM switches to OFF
142
What does positioning one or both A/T ARM switches to OFF prevent?
Activation of all autothrottle modes for the affected autothrottle
143
Under what conditions does autothrottle disconnect occur automatically? (List at least two)
* If a fault in the active autothrottle mode is detected
* When either reverse thrust lever is raised to reverse idle
* If thrust levers are overridden during a manual landing
* When both engines are shut down
* May occur when one engine is shut down
144
What does the EICAS caution message AUTOTHROTTLE DISC indicate?
The autothrottle is manually or automatically disconnected
145
What is the caution regarding RA disagreement?
If an RA disagreement occurs and the lower of the RAs indicates less than 1,500 feet, the autothrottle disconnects
146
What occurs if RA disagreement happens during takeoff?
The autothrottle disconnects after takeoff at 400 feet if one radio altimeter is inoperative
147
Fill in the blank: The EICAS caution message and aural alert are inhibited if the disconnect occurs because of _______.
reverse thrust
148
When can the autothrottle be re-engaged after a radio altimeter anomaly?
Once the radio altimeter is above 1,500 feet
149
What happens if the RAs disagree and the lower RA indicates less than 1,500 feet?
The autothrottle can only be engaged in the TO/GA mode by pushing the TO/GA switch.
## Footnote
RAs refer to Radio Altimeters, which are critical for altitude readings during flight.
150
When can the autothrottle be re-engaged after an RA disagreement?
Once the lower of the RAs indicates above 1,500 feet.
## Footnote
This is important for maintaining safe flight operations.
151
What function does the takeoff/go-around (TO/GA) mode serve during takeoff?
It is a flight director only function.
## Footnote
The autopilot may be engaged after takeoff.
152
What occurs during preflight with the autopilot disengaged and both flight director switches OFF?
Activation of TO/GA roll and pitch mode occurs when the first flight director switch is positioned ON.
## Footnote
This initiates the flight director operations for takeoff.
153
What is indicated on the PFD and HUD displays when the TO/GA mode is activated?
FLT DIR as AFDS status and TO/GA as the pitch and roll flight mode annunciations.
## Footnote
These displays provide critical information for the flight crew.
154
What is the pitch command set to during takeoff?
Approximately 8° up.
## Footnote
This is essential for achieving the necessary climb rate.
155
What is the roll command during takeoff prior to lift-off?
Wings level.
## Footnote
This helps maintain a straight flight path during the initial phase.
156
What happens when the speed is less than 50 knots and the TO/GA switch is pushed?
The autothrottle activates in thrust reference (THR REF) and thrust levers advance to the selected reference thrust limit.
## Footnote
This is a key step for ensuring proper thrust during takeoff.
157
At what speed does autothrottle annunciation change to HOLD?
At 80 knots.
## Footnote
This indicates a change in the autothrottle's operational mode.
158
What occurs with the LNAV and VNAV when the TO/GA switch is pushed with speed greater than 80 knots?
LNAV and VNAV are disarmed.
## Footnote
This is a safety measure during critical phases of flight.
159
What is the pitch command target speed at lift-off?
V2 + 15 knots or the airspeed at rotation plus 15 knots, whichever is greater.
## Footnote
This ensures a safe climb performance.
160
What happens if current airspeed remains above target speed for 5 seconds at lift-off?
Target airspeed is reset to current airspeed, limited to a maximum of V2 + 25 knots.
## Footnote
This helps maintain optimal performance during the climb.
161
What is the pitch command target speed at lift-off in case of an engine failure on the ground?
V2 or airspeed at lift-off, whichever is greater.
## Footnote
This is critical for safety in case of engine failure.
162
What does the roll command maintain at lift-off?
Ground track.
## Footnote
This ensures the aircraft stays on course during takeoff.
163
What is the pitch command target speed after an engine failure if airspeed is below V2?
V2
## Footnote
V2 is the minimum safe speed during the takeoff phase.
164
What happens when a TO/GA switch is pushed?
* Removes takeoff and climb derates
* Removes assumed temperature thrust reduction
* A/T in HOLD, A/T activates in THR REF
## Footnote
TO/GA stands for Takeoff/Go-Around.
165
At what altitude does LNAV activate if armed?
50 feet radio altitude
## Footnote
LNAV stands for lateral navigation.
166
What occurs if LNAV is not used and a TO/GA switch is pushed after takeoff?
Automatic LNAV arming and activation occurs
## Footnote
This happens when the flaps are not up.
167
At what altitude does VNAV activate when armed?
400 feet above field elevation
## Footnote
VNAV stands for vertical navigation.
168
What does pitch command at acceleration height or altitude capture below acceleration height?
Speed to 5 knots below takeoff flap placard speed
## Footnote
This is important for maintaining proper flight dynamics.
169
What controls does TO/GA pitch mode transition to at the engine out acceleration height if VNAV is not engaged?
From airspeed control to pitch control
## Footnote
This transition helps manage the airplane energy.
170
What does pitch command when flaps are up?
An acceleration to VNAV climb speed
## Footnote
VNAV climb speed is determined by specific maneuver speeds.
171
What are the two factors that determine VNAV climb speed?
* Flaps up maneuver speed
* Speed transition associated with origin airport
## Footnote
These factors ensure safe climb performance.
172
What happens at the thrust reduction point?
FMC changes reference thrust limit to armed climb limit
## Footnote
CLB, CLB 1, or CLB 2 are the possible climb limits.
173
How is the TO/GA mode terminated?
By selecting any other pitch and roll mode or by activation of LNAV/VNAV
## Footnote
This is critical for transitioning to different flight modes.
174
What does the HUD takeoff system provide during takeoff roll and rejected takeoff?
Lateral guidance on the HUD
## Footnote
The guidance is based on ILS or GLS signals.
175
What must be selected in the FMC to enable HUD TAKEOFF?
HUD TAKEOFF departure
## Footnote
Additionally, turning on either flight director is required.
176
Under what conditions does guidance become active during a HUD takeoff?
When the airplane approaches the runway center line and is within 45° of runway heading
## Footnote
This activates the guidance and displays the ground roll reference symbol and localizer deviation pointer.
177
What happens to the ground roll reference symbol once the airplane is centered on the runway?
It centers on the guidance cue
## Footnote
This indicates proper alignment for takeoff.
178
Is the lateral flight director bar on the PFD certified for use during a HUD takeoff?
No
## Footnote
The bar moves with the guidance commands but is not certified.
179
What should not be used if a HUD TO/GA takeoff is based on an offset localizer course?
It should not be used
## Footnote
This may lead to guidance cues not aligned with the runway centerline.
180
What advisory message can appear if the selected localizer signal is blocked during a HUD TO/GA?
NO AUTOLAND
## Footnote
This message will show until the airplane is in a location with a clear localizer signal.
181
In ILS approaches, which modes are used for flying?
* G/S mode
* LOC mode
## Footnote
These modes use data from localizer and glideslope transmitters.
182
What is the purpose of the APP switch in the AFDS?
Arms the pitch and roll modes after approach procedure selection in the FMC
## Footnote
Glideslope/glidepath capture is inhibited until localizer capture.
183
What does the LOC/FAC switch do?
Arms the AFDS to capture and maintain an approach lateral flight path
## Footnote
It uses either an ILS localizer beam or a lateral path from the FMC.
184
What is the maximum intercept angle for LOC or FAC mode to capture?
120 degrees
## Footnote
The mode cannot capture if the intercept angle exceeds this limit.
185
What command speed is used with landing flaps for sufficient wind protection?
VREF+5 knots
## Footnote
Autothrottle is active to adjust thrust for maintaining command speed.
186
What is used for vertical path guidance in IAN procedures?
FMC computed glidepath (G/P)
## Footnote
Lateral guidance can come from either FMC or localizer.
187
What does the IAN FAC provide guidance for?
Guidance to the runway if the MAP is at the runway approach end
## Footnote
The FAC is constructed inbound to and through the MAP.
188
What is the construction angle of the IAN G/P?
It passes through altitude constraint at the MAP
## Footnote
It is the steeper of the published angle or the angle that clears the altitude constraint.
189
What does the IAN require to arm roll and pitch modes?
The APP switch on the MCP
## Footnote
The APP switch is necessary as the airplane nears the final approach segment.
190
What alert appears if the autopilot remains engaged below 100 feet RA?
NO AUTOLAND alert
## Footnote
This alert is displayed on the PFD and HUD.
191
Where are IAN deviation scales and annunciations displayed?
On the HUD
## Footnote
They are not displayed on the ISFD.
192
True or False: IAN supports automatic landings.
False
## Footnote
IAN requires manual landing by the pilot flying.
193
At what altitude does runway alignment occur for crosswinds requiring more than 10° of crab angle?
500 feet AGL
## Footnote
A sideslip of 5° is established to reduce the crab angle.
194
What is the minimum crab angle at touchdown for crosswinds requiring more than 10° of crab angle?
5°
## Footnote
This configuration is maintained until touchdown.
195
For crosswinds requiring a crab angle between 5° and 10°, when does the initial alignment occur?
500 feet AGL
## Footnote
A second alignment occurs at 200 feet AGL.
196
What happens during the second alignment for crosswinds requiring a crab angle between 5° and 10°?
The sideslip is increased to further reduce the touchdown crab angle
## Footnote
Initial alignment reduces the crab angle to 5°.
197
When does no runway alignment occur for crosswinds requiring a crab angle of less than 5°?
Until 200 feet AGL
## Footnote
A sideslip is introduced at this altitude.
198
What does the AFDS do when an engine fails prior to the approach?
Introduces a sideslip at 1300 feet AGL
## Footnote
This establishes a wings level configuration.
199
What configuration is established if an engine fails during the approach below 1300 feet?
Wings level configuration
## Footnote
This occurs when the engine failure is detected.
200
What happens in the event of moderate or strong crosswinds from the side opposite the failed engine?
No wings level sideslip is commanded
## Footnote
The airplane is already banked into the wind.
201
When is the flare mode armed?
When LAND 3 or LAND 2 is annunciated on the PFDs and HUDs
## Footnote
Below 350 feet radio altitude, inboard spoilers are biased up incrementally.
202
What occurs if the autopilot is disengaged after the spoiler bias is set?
Spoiler bias is removed
## Footnote
A slight forward column control force may be required to maintain trim.
203
At what altitude do the autopilots start the flare maneuver?
Approximately 50 feet radio altitude
## Footnote
FLARE replaces the pitch flight mode annunciation.
204
What happens between 25 and 50 feet radio altitude during the flare?
The autothrottle begins retarding thrust levers to idle
## Footnote
Flight director roll and pitch bars retract from view.
205
Fill in the blank: The flare mode is armed when _______ is annunciated on the PFDs and HUDs.
[LAND 3 or LAND 2]
206
What provides localizer centerline rollout guidance?
Rollout
207
When does Rollout arm?
When LAND 3 or LAND 2 annunciates
208
When does Rollout activate?
At touchdown with weight on the wheels
209
What replaces the roll mode annunciation during Rollout?
ROLLOUT
210
What does the autopilot control during Rollout?
Rudder and nose wheel steering
211
What does the autopilot track during Rollout?
The localizer centerline
212
What remains active during Rollout until autothrottle disconnects?
Autothrottle IDLE mode
213
When does Rollout guidance continue?
Until the autopilots are disengaged
214
What is armed when flaps are out of up or glideslope/glidepath is captured?
TO/GA
## Footnote
TO/GA stands for Takeoff/Go-Around, a mode used during automatic flight operations.
215
When is the reference thrust limit locked in GA?
When flaps are in landing position or glideslope/glidepath is captured
## Footnote
This ensures optimal thrust settings during the go-around phase.
216
What does pushing either TO/GA switch do?
Activates a go-around
## Footnote
The go-around mode remains active even if the airplane touches down.
217
When are the TO/GA switches inhibited during landing?
After touchdown or when below 2 feet radio altitude for 3 seconds or more
## Footnote
They are enabled again above 5 feet radio altitude.
218
What is the minimum climb rate established by autothrottle in TO/GA mode?
2,000 FPM
## Footnote
FPM stands for feet per minute, a measure of climb rate.
219
What happens during the first push of either TO/GA switch?
Roll and pitch activate in TO/GA
## Footnote
This sets the aircraft for a go-around maneuver.
220
What occurs when current airspeed remains above the target speed for 5 seconds?
Target airspeed is reset to current airspeed
## Footnote
This adjustment helps maintain optimal flight performance.
221
When does LNAV automatically arm and activate?
Above 50 feet radio altitude when autopilot is not engaged, or above 200 feet when engaged
## Footnote
LNAV stands for lateral navigation, which assists in flight path management.
222
What happens during a go-around from a LAND 2 or LAND 3 approach?
Automatic LNAV activation causes disengagement of autopilot rudder control
## Footnote
The primary flight control system takes over during this scenario.
223
What does the second push of either TO/GA switch activate?
Autothrottle activates in thrust reference (THR REF) at full go around thrust
## Footnote
This ensures maximum thrust is available for the go-around.
224
What remains active following a second TO/GA push if an LNAV path is available?
LNAV
## Footnote
LNAV continues to assist with lateral navigation during the go-around.
225
What happens at the set altitude during TO/GA level-off?
AFDS pitch mode changes to altitude hold (ALT)
## Footnote
AFDS stands for Automatic Flight Director System
226
What is the MCP speed set to if altitude is captured or if V/S or FPA is active?
MCP speed is automatically set to:
* flap placard speed minus 5 knots
* 250 knots if flaps are up
* a speed value entered in the IAS/MACH window after TO/GA was pushed
## Footnote
MCP stands for Mode Control Panel; V/S stands for Vertical Speed; FPA stands for Flight Path Angle.
227
What is the active roll mode during TO/GA?
TO/GA remains the active roll mode until LNAV automatically activates or another roll mode is selected
## Footnote
LNAV stands for Lateral Navigation.
228
What must be done below 400 feet radio altitude to terminate TO/GA mode?
Disengage autopilot and turn off both flight directors, or automatic LNAV activation
## Footnote
Flight directors provide guidance to the pilots.
229
What can be selected above 400 feet radio altitude to terminate TO/GA mode?
Select a different roll or pitch mode
## Footnote
Roll and pitch modes are essential for aircraft maneuvering.
230
What is the purpose of the AFDS in windshear recovery?
Provides windshear recovery guidance through normal go-around pitch and roll modes
231
What happens when the TO/GA switch is pushed during windshear recovery?
Commands a pitch-up of 15° or slightly below the pitch limit, whichever is lower
232
What is the target airspeed when TO/GA is activated?
IAS/MACH window airspeed or current airspeed, whichever is greater
233
What occurs if the current airspeed remains above the selected speed for 5 seconds?
The selected airspeed is reset to current airspeed, up to a maximum of the IAS/MACH window speed plus 25 knots
234
What type of protection does the autopilot and autothrottle systems provide?
Prevents stall and overspeed
235
Is overspeed protection available with flaps up?
Yes, for all flight modes except G/S
236
In which modes is flight envelope protection available when flaps are not up?
Only in FLCH and TO/GA
237
What does the EICAS caution message AUTOPILOT indicate?
The autopilot has begun flight envelope protection or an amber line displays through the affected active flight mode annunciation
238
What is the maximum bank angle limit when the autopilot is engaged?
30°
239
Fill in the blank: The autopilot assists flight envelope protection by limiting the bank angle to _______.
30°
Hawaiian 787
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