1
Q
What does the DISC switch do?
A
Disconnects the primary flight computers (PFCs) from the flight control system
This action puts the flight control system in direct mode.
2
Q
What happens when the DISC switch is activated?
A
The flight control system is put in direct mode
AUTO can be reselected to attempt restoration of secondary or normal mode operation.
3
Q
What does the AUTO mode indicate in the flight control system?
A
The flight control system operates in the normal mode
System faults automatically cause the system to switch to secondary or direct modes.
4
Q
What does an illuminated DISC light (amber) indicate?
A
The primary flight computers are disconnected either automatically or manually
The system is in the direct mode.
5
Q
Fill in the blank: The DISC switch puts the flight control system in _______.
A
direct mode
6
Q
True or False: The AUTO mode allows the flight control system to revert to normal operation after a fault.
A
True
7
Q
What is the function of the Pitch Trim Switches when pushed on the ground?
A
Directly moves the stabilizer
The switches are spring-loaded to neutral.
8
Q
What happens when the Pitch Trim Switches are pushed in the air in normal mode?
A
Changes the trim reference airspeed
This action affects the aircraft’s trim setting during flight.
9
Q
What is the effect of pushing the Pitch Trim Switches in the air in secondary and direct modes?
A
Directly moves the stabilizer
This allows for immediate adjustment of the stabilizer position.
10
Q
What does rotating the Control Wheel do?
A
Deflects the ailerons, flaperons, and spoilers in the desired direction
This action allows the pilot to control the roll of the aircraft.
11
Q
What is the primary function of the Control Column when pushed or pulled?
A
Commands the airplane to pitch in the desired direction
This is a fundamental control input for managing the aircraft’s altitude.
12
Q
In normal mode, what does the Control Column deflect?
A
Deflects the elevator and horizontal stabilizer
This helps in controlling the pitch of the aircraft.
13
Q
What does the Control Column deflect in secondary and direct modes?
A
Deflects the elevator
The horizontal stabilizer remains unaffected in these modes.
14
Q
Does the Control Column move with pitch trim operation?
A
No
The Control Column remains stationary during pitch trim adjustments.
15
Q
What does the FMC Stabilizer Takeoff Setting display?
A
Displays (magenta) the FMC calculated stabilizer takeoff setting in units of trim.
16
Q
When is the digital readout of the FMC Stabilizer Takeoff Setting not shown?
A
When FMC data is not present or is invalid.
17
Q
What does the Stabilizer (STAB) Position Indicator show?
A
Shows actual stabilizer position in 0.25 increments from 0.25 to 16.75 units of trim flaps down on the ground, and 1.50 to 16.75 units flaps up and in the air.
18
Q
How is the corresponding pointer position shown on the ND/NU scale?
A
Corresponding pointer position is shown on the ND/NU (nose down/nose up) scale.
19
Q
What color indicates that the trim pointer is outside the green band?
A
White.
20
Q
What color indicates that the trim pointer is within the green band when FMC performance data is entered?
A
Green.
21
Q
In what increments does the Stabilizer Position Indicator show the stabilizer position?
A
0.25 increments.
22
Q
What are the trim unit ranges for flaps down on the ground?
A
0.25 to 16.75 units of trim.
23
Q
What are the trim unit ranges for flaps up and in the air?
A
1.50 to 16.75 units of trim.
24
Q
What happens when the stabilizer signal is not present or is invalid?
A
The digital readout and pointer are not shown on the stabilizer position indicator.
This indicates a failure in the system, requiring attention from the flight crew.
25
What does the stabilizer trim indicator show when it is inoperative?
The digital readout is replaced with an 'X'. The box, the 'X', and the pointer show amber.
## Footnote
The pointer remains on the scale at the last known trim position, indicating the last valid setting.
26
What does the green band on the takeoff trim indicator represent?
The allowable takeoff trim range, based on V1, gross weight, and CG information from the FMC.
## Footnote
The green band is crucial for ensuring safe takeoff conditions.
27
What is shown as a default green band prior to entering performance data into the FMC?
From 4 to 9 units of trim.
## Footnote
This default range helps pilots prepare for takeoff before specific data is input.
28
What occurs when the green band signal is not present or is invalid?
The green band is not shown.
## Footnote
This indicates a potential issue with the system that needs to be resolved.
29
What is the function of the Alternate (ALTN) PITCH TRIM Switches?
They are spring-loaded to neutral and affect stabilizer movement and trim reference airspeed.
30
What happens when both ALTN PITCH TRIM Switches are pushed on the ground?
They directly move the stabilizer.
31
What is the effect of pushing both ALTN PITCH TRIM Switches in the air in normal mode?
It changes the trim reference airspeed.
32
What occurs when both ALTN PITCH TRIM Switches are pushed in the air in secondary and direct modes?
They directly move the stabilizer.
33
In what position are the Alternate (ALTN) PITCH TRIM Switches spring-loaded?
To neutral.
34
True or False: The ALTN PITCH TRIM Switches can only be used on the ground.
False.
35
What does the NORM position of the Stabilizer Cutout Switch indicate?
Electrical power is supplied to the related stabilizer control unit
## Footnote
This includes power from the left and right 235V AC buses.
36
What happens if unscheduled stabilizer motion is detected?
Electrical power to the related stabilizer control unit is automatically shut off
## Footnote
This is a safety feature to prevent further issues.
37
What does the CUTOUT position of the Stabilizer Cutout Switch do?
Shuts off electrical power to the related stabilizer control unit
## Footnote
This can be used in various operational scenarios.
38
What is the function of the Rudder Trim Control?
To adjust the rudder position for flight stability
## Footnote
This control helps in maintaining directional control during flight.
39
What symbols indicate non-zero rudder trim on the RUDDER TRIM Indicator?
An L or R is displayed to the left or right of the box
## Footnote
This indicates the direction of the rudder trim adjustment.
40
What happens to the RUDDER TRIM Indicator when the rudder signal is not present or is invalid?
The digital readout, left/right indication, and pointer are not shown
## Footnote
This indicates that the system is not receiving valid data.
41
What is the maximum trim unit displayed by the RUDDER TRIM Indicator?
17.0 units of trim
## Footnote
This is the upper limit of the trim adjustment range.
42
Fill in the blank: The RUDDER TRIM Indicator displays rudder position in increments of _______ from 0.0 to 1.0 unit.
0.2 increments
## Footnote
This provides fine control over rudder adjustments.
43
What happens to the digital readout when the rudder trim is inoperative?
It is replaced with an 'X'
## Footnote
The box, the 'X', and the pointer show amber. The pointer remains on the scale at the last known trim position.
44
What is the function of the rudder trim selector?
It is spring-loaded to neutral and trims the rudder in the desired direction
## Footnote
The rudder trim can operate at low speed with the knob rotated to the detent, and high speed with the knob rotated past the detent.
45
What occurs when the rudder trim is operated during normal flight control mode?
It disables the transfer of any steady state lateral control to the rudder
## Footnote
This can cause increased drag and fuel consumption for the remainder of the flight.
46
How do the rudder pedals behave during rudder trim operation?
The rudder pedals move with rudder trim operation.
47
Fill in the blank: The rudder trim selector rotates to trim the rudder in the _______.
[desired direction]
48
What happens to the speedbrake lever on the ground when the thrust lever is advanced to the takeoff thrust position?
The speedbrake lever moves to DOWN and all spoiler panels retract
## Footnote
This indicates that the aircraft is preparing for takeoff.
49
What occurs to the speedbrake lever when both reverse thrust levers are raised to the reverse idle detent?
The speedbrake lever moves to UP and all spoiler panels extend
## Footnote
This action is typically performed during landing to assist in deceleration.
50
What does the DOWN (detent) position of the Speedbrake Lever indicate?
All spoiler panels are retracted.
## Footnote
This position ensures that the aircraft is in a state where speedbrakes are not deployed.
51
What does the ARMED position of the Speedbrake Lever signify?
The auto speedbrake system is armed.
## Footnote
This means that the system is ready to deploy the speedbrakes automatically if necessary.
52
What happens when the Speedbrake Lever is in the UP position?
The required spoiler panels extend to their maximum in-flight or on ground position.
## Footnote
Intermediate positions can also be selected to adjust the spoiler panels.
53
What is the primary mode of the Flap Lever?
Positions the slats and flaps hydraulically.
54
What is the secondary mode of the Flap Lever?
Positions the slats and flaps hydraulically and/or electrically when the primary mode fails.
55
What is the function of Flap Gates?
Prevents inadvertent retraction of the slats. Flaps 1
56
What additional function do Flap Gates provide?
Prevents inadvertent retraction of the flaps past the go-around position. Flaps 20
57
What does the Alternate Flaps Arm (ALTN FLAPS ARM) Switch do when pushed?
Arms the alternate flap control mode, arms the alternate flaps selector, disables primary and secondary flap/slat mode operation, and provides protection features.
## Footnote
Asymmetry/skew and uncommanded motion protection, slat autogap, and flap/slat load relief are not available. The flap lever becomes inoperative.
58
What happens when the Alternate Flaps Selector is activated?
Retraction is accomplished electrically and sequenced so that full flap retraction occurs before the slats begin to retract.
## Footnote
Alternate flaps are deactivated, and the slats and flaps are electrically extended with maximum extension being flaps 20 and slats at the midrange position.
59
What is the maximum flap extension indicated in the Alternate Flaps Selector?
Flaps 20, with the slats at the midrange position.
## Footnote
This indicates the limit of flaps during alternate operation.
60
True or False: The flap lever is operative when the Alternate Flaps Arm switch is pushed.
False
## Footnote
The flap lever becomes inoperative when the alternate flap mode is armed.
61
Fill in the blank: The Alternate Flaps Arm (ALTN FLAPS ARM) switch disables _______ and _______ flap/slat mode operation.
primary and secondary
## Footnote
This means that standard flap operations are not available when the alternate mode is engaged.
62
What does the Normal Flap Position Indication display?
Displays combined flap and slat positions when all surfaces are operating normally and control is in the primary (hydraulic) mode
## Footnote
The indicator shows continuous motion.
63
When is the flap position indication removed?
10 seconds after slat retraction
## Footnote
This indicates the timing for the display to disappear.
64
What mode must the control be in for the Normal Flap Position Indication to function?
Primary (hydraulic) mode
## Footnote
This mode is necessary for normal operation of flight controls.
65
What is the significance of the continuous motion in the flap position indication?
Indicates that all surfaces are operating normally
## Footnote
Continuous motion reflects the normal operation of the controls.
66
What does the flap position 'UP' indicate?
The slats and flaps are retracted.
## Footnote
This is the initial position of the flaps.
67
What happens at flap position '1'?
The slats extend to the midrange position.
## Footnote
This position is the first step in extending the slats.
68
What occurs at flap positions '5, 10, 15, 17, 18, and 20'?
The slats remain in the midrange position and the flaps extend to the commanded position.
## Footnote
These positions indicate a range of flap settings while the slats are stable.
69
What occurs at flap position '25'?
The slats extend to the fully extended position. The flaps do not move.
## Footnote
This position is critical for achieving maximum lift.
70
What occurs at flap position '30'?
The flaps extend to the commanded position.
## Footnote
This position indicates a specific flap deployment for landing or takeoff.
71
What does a magenta color indicate in the flap lever position?
The slats or flaps are in transit to the commanded position.
## Footnote
This color coding helps pilots understand the current status of the flap system.
72
What does a green color indicate in the flap lever position?
The slats or flaps are in the commanded position.
## Footnote
Green indicates that the system is functioning correctly.
73
What does the Flap/Slat LOAD RELIEF Indication indicate when shown in white?
Flap load relief is retracting the flaps, or inhibiting extension, as required to prevent air load damage due to excessive airspeed.
## Footnote
This is a safety feature to protect the aircraft's structure.
74
What is shown if any flap/slat is non-normal or if control is in the secondary mode?
Slat and flap positions are shown independently for each wing.
## Footnote
This allows for better monitoring of the flight control surfaces.
75
How is indicator motion represented for flap positions?
Indicator motion is continuous between flap detents.
## Footnote
This provides a more precise indication of the flap position.
76
Fill in the blank: The Flap/Slat LOAD RELIEF Indication is shown in _______.
white
77
True or False: The indicator for flap positions is discrete and shows only fixed detent positions.
False
## Footnote
The indicator motion is continuous, not discrete.
78
What indicates the extension of slats on the EICAS display?
The slat indication fills up (forward) for extension.
79
What indicates the extension of flaps on the EICAS display?
The flap indication fills down (aft) for extension.
80
What color is the outline and fill when operating in secondary mode?
White
81
What color indicates a caution message for FLAPS DRIVE or SLATS DRIVE?
Amber
82
How is loss of position information shown on the EICAS display?
As a white outline with no fill and no flap lever position indication.
83
What color indicates that slats or flaps are in transit to the commanded position?
Magenta
84
What color indicates that slats or flaps are in the commanded position?
Green
85
Where are the numbers shown in relation to the flap position indicator?
Next to the flap position indicator only.
86
What is the limitation for extension in alternate mode for slats and flaps?
Slats midrange and flaps 20
87
When are alternate flap and slat position indications displayed?
Automatically when the alternate control mode is armed.
88
What does the slats indication display in alternate mode?
The position of the slats.
89
What does the NORM position indicate regarding flight control surfaces?
The respective flight control surfaces are unlocked.
## Footnote
This allows for normal operation of the flight control surfaces.
90
What does the LOCK position indicate for flight control surfaces?
The respective flight control surfaces are electronically locked and the EICAS advisory message FLT CONTROL LOCKED is displayed.
## Footnote
This is a safety feature to prevent unintended movement.
91
What does the illuminated amber light signify when the flight control surfaces are locked?
The respective flight control surfaces are electronically locked.
## Footnote
It serves as a visual alert for the pilot.
92
What does the Flight Control Surfaces Lock FAIL Light indicate?
A flight control surfaces lock switch is selected and any of the respective flight control surfaces are not locked.
## Footnote
This indicates a failure in the locking mechanism.
93
What color is the Flight Control Surfaces Lock FAIL Light when illuminated?
White.
## Footnote
This color is used to indicate a warning or alert condition.
94
What does the primary flight control system use to command the flight control surfaces?
Conventional control wheel, column, and pedal inputs from the pilot
## Footnote
This system electronically commands the flight control surfaces based on pilot inputs.
95
What are the three operating modes of the primary flight control system?
Normal mode, secondary mode, and direct mode
## Footnote
These modes ensure redundancy and reliability in flight control.
96
What are the secondary flight controls made up of?
High lift devices consisting of flaps and slats
## Footnote
These controls are hydraulically powered with an electrically powered backup system.
97
List the components included in the pilot controls.
* Alternate flap switches
* Alternate pitch trim switches
* Control wheel pitch trim switches
* Rudder trim selector
* Flap lever
* Speedbrake lever
* Two control columns
* Two control wheels
* Two pairs of rudder pedals
* Stabilizer cutout switches
## Footnote
These components allow the pilot to control the aircraft's flight surfaces.
98
What mechanism allows pilots to maintain control during a jam?
Jam override mechanisms
## Footnote
Pilots can apply force to other control inputs to overcome the jam.
99
What does the speedbrake lever do?
Allows manual or automatic symmetric actuation of the spoilers
## Footnote
This feature helps in controlling the aircraft's descent and speed.
100
When is the EICAS caution message FLIGHT CONTROLS displayed?
* Multiple ACE and/or hydraulic system failures cause loss of significant control surfaces
* Other significant flight control system faults are detected
## Footnote
This message alerts the pilots to urgent flight control issues.
101
What do the ACEs do in relation to pilot control inputs?
Transmit pilot control inputs directly to the control surfaces or to the PFCs
## Footnote
ACEs also receive control commands back from the PFCs to position the flight control surfaces.
102
True or False: The primary flight control system is not redundant.
False
## Footnote
The primary flight control system is designed to be highly redundant.
103
What do the PFCs use to compute control surface commands?
Information from other airplane systems such as air data, inertial data, flap and slat position, engine thrust, and radio altitude
## Footnote
PFC stands for Primary Flight Control and is integral for enhanced handling qualities.
104
How does the autopilot interact with the PFCs?
The autopilot sends commands to the PFCs, which then produce control surface commands
## Footnote
Refer to Autopilot Flight Director System (AFDS) for more information.
105
What allows pilot control of pitch and roll in the event of loss of all hydraulic power?
Electrically actuated stabilizer and two spoiler pairs
## Footnote
Control can be maintained using primary pitch trim switches, alternate pitch trim switches, and the control wheel.
106
What provides pitch control in the flight control surfaces?
Two elevators and a movable horizontal stabilizer
## Footnote
These components work together for effective pitch management.
107
What components provide roll control in the flight control surfaces?
Two flaperons, two ailerons, and fourteen spoilers
## Footnote
The flaperons are located between the inboard and outboard flaps.
108
Which control surface is responsible for yaw control?
A single rudder
## Footnote
The rudder is critical for maintaining directional stability.
109
What is the function of the flaperons in relation to the flaps?
They provide roll control and droop with the trailing edge flaps to improve slow speed performance
## Footnote
Flaperons are located between the inboard and outboard flaps on both wings.
110
Where are the ailerons located on the wings?
Outboard of the outboard flaps on each wing
## Footnote
Ailerons and spoilers also droop with the trailing edge flaps for better performance.
111
True or False: Ailerons are locked out during high speed flight.
True
## Footnote
During high speed, flaperons and spoilers provide sufficient roll control.
112
Fill in the blank: The ailerons operate to augment roll control during _______.
low speed flight
## Footnote
This is essential for maintaining control at lower speeds.
113
What is the purpose of the flight control surfaces lock switches?
To lock out the flight control surfaces on the tail and wings for maintenance personnel
## Footnote
This prevents surface movement when working on or in the area of the control surfaces.
114
What advisory message is displayed when a lock switch is in the LOCK position?
FLT CONTROL LOCKED
## Footnote
This alerts the flight crew of a locked condition.
115
At what groundspeed do the flight control surfaces automatically unlock?
40 knots
## Footnote
This is a safety feature to ensure functionality during flight.
116
What does the flight control lock FAIL light indicate?
It is illuminated when a lock switch is in the LOCK position and any associated surfaces do not lock
## Footnote
This indicates a malfunction in the locking mechanism.
117
What should be verified before moving a switch from LOCK to NORM?
Areas near the flight control surfaces are clear
## Footnote
This is crucial to avoid injury to personnel or damage to the airplane.
118
What are the three primary flight control system modes?
Normal, Secondary, Direct
119
What happens in the normal mode during manual flight?
Four ACEs receive pilot control inputs and send signals to three PFCs
120
What do the PFCs do with the signals they receive in normal mode?
Verify signals and compute enhanced control surface commands
121
What is the role of the autopilot when engaged in normal mode?
Sends control surface commands to the PFCs
122
What occurs if the pilot overrides the autopilot with control inputs?
The autopilot disconnects and the flight control system uses pilot inputs
123
When are flight control self-tests initiated after landing?
Once groundspeed is less than 20 knots for 5 seconds
124
What is required for the first series of flight control self-tests?
Flaps and speedbrakes retracted, all hydraulic power on
125
How long do the first series of self-tests take to complete?
Approximately 90 seconds
126
What conditions must be met for the first series of self-tests to complete properly?
* Hydraulic power must not be interrupted
* Flight controls must not be moved
* Groundspeed must remain below 30 knots for 90 seconds
127
What happens after the first series of self-tests are complete?
A second series of flight control self-tests are run
128
What are the requirements for the second series of flight control self-tests?
* Hydraulics must remain unpowered
* Flaps or speedbrakes must not be moved
129
How long do the second series of flight control self-tests take?
Approximately 55 seconds
130
What is required for the third series of self-tests to run?
* Both engines must be shut down
* PMG power must be off
131
How long do the third series of flight control self-tests take to complete?
Approximately 90 seconds
132
True or False: The autopilot is available during secondary mode operation.
False
133
Fill in the blank: The autopilot backdrives the pilot controls to provide _______.
awareness of what the autopilot is doing
134
What happens if certain tests in any of the three series are skipped or interrupted?
A fault condition may be set with a correlated FC SYS maintenance memo or EICAS status message
## Footnote
This may affect dispatch and require maintenance tests to be run.
135
Fill in the blank: If hydraulic power-on tests are accomplished without hydraulic power-off tests being accomplished on two consecutive flights, a _______ condition may be set.
fault
136
True or False: The synoptic display returns to normal after the completion of self-tests.
True
137
What does the primary flight control system provide during manual flight?
Flight envelope protection
## Footnote
This protection is active when operating in normal mode.
138
What does flight envelope protection reduce?
The possibility of inadvertently exceeding the flight envelope
## Footnote
It helps maintain safe operating limits.
139
Does envelope protection reduce pilot control authority?
No
## Footnote
Pilots retain full control authority while using envelope protection.
140
What happens to the PFCs when inertial or air data is insufficient?
The PFCs automatically revert to secondary mode
## Footnote
This occurs when all slat and flap position data is unavailable.
141
What do the ACEs do in secondary mode?
The ACEs continue to receive and process pilot control inputs and send these signals to the three PFCs.
142
How do PFCs operate in secondary mode?
They use simplified computations to generate flight control surface commands.
143
What is the effect of simplified commands in secondary mode?
These commands are sent back to the ACEs, where they are sent to the control surface actuators.
144
Are all flight control surfaces operable in secondary mode?
Yes, all flight control surfaces remain operable.
145
How do elevator and rudder sensitivity change in secondary mode?
The elevator and rudder are more sensitive at some airspeeds.
146
What is degraded in secondary mode?
Yaw damping is degraded.
147
Which functions are not available in secondary mode? (List at least three)
* autopilot
* pitch compensation
* auto speedbrakes
* roll/yaw asymmetry
* envelope protection compensation
* gust suppression
* tail strike protection
148
What caution message is displayed when the primary flight control system is in secondary mode?
EICAS caution message FLIGHT CONTROL MODE.
149
Can the secondary mode be manually selected?
No, the secondary mode cannot be manually selected.
150
What happens to the ACEs in the event of failure of all three PFCs?
The ACEs automatically transition to the direct mode
## Footnote
PFCs refer to Primary Flight Computers.
151
How can the direct mode be manually selected?
By moving the PRIMARY FLIGHT COMPUTERS disconnect switch to DISC.
152
In direct mode, what do PFCs no longer do?
Generate control surface commands.
153
Where do pilot inputs go in direct mode?
Directly to the control surface actuators.
154
What does the direct mode provide for the airplane?
Full airplane control for continued safe flight and landing.
155
How do the airplane handling qualities in direct mode compare to secondary mode?
Almost the same.
156
What is the status of all flight control surfaces in direct mode?
All flight control surfaces remain operable.
157
What is degraded in direct mode?
Yaw damping.
158
What caution message is displayed on the EICAS when in direct mode?
PRI FLIGHT COMPUTERS.
159
Which functions are not available in direct mode? (List at least three)
* autopilot
* pitch compensation
* auto speedbrakes
* roll/yaw asymmetry
* envelope protection compensation
* gust suppression
* tail strike protection.
160
What are the characteristics of pitch control in normal mode?
Similar to conventional airplanes, with control column input commanding PFCs to generate a pitch maneuver dependent on column displacement.
161
How do PFCs respond to pilot commands in normal mode?
They automatically position the elevator and stabilizer to generate the commanded maneuver.
162
What is the role of PFCs in pitch compensation?
To minimize airplane pitch responses to thrust changes, configuration changes, turbulence, and turns up to 30° of bank.
163
What happens during turns up to 30° of bank regarding control inputs?
The pilot does not need to add additional column back pressure to maintain altitude.
164
What is required for turns of more than 30° of bank?
The pilot needs to add column back pressure.
165
How do PFCs behave as airspeed changes?
They provide conventional pitch control characteristics requiring pilot inputs or trim changes to maintain a constant flight path.
166
What command do PFCs issue during the landing flare?
A slight nose down pitch command to provide landing characteristics similar to other Boeing airplanes.
167
What is the function of primary pitch trim control?
Controlled by dual pitch trim switches on each control wheel, both must be moved for trim changes.
168
When are primary pitch trim switches inhibited?
When the autopilot is engaged.
169
How does primary pitch trim operate on the ground?
The stabilizer is directly positioned when the pilot uses the pitch trim switches.
170
What occurs with primary pitch trim in flight?
The switches make inputs to the PFCs to change the trim reference speed instead of directly positioning the stabilizer.
171
What is trim reference speed?
The speed at which the airplane would stabilize if there were no control column inputs.
172
In which modes does primary pitch trim operate the same on the ground and in flight?
In the secondary or direct modes.
173
What controls alternate pitch trim?
The dual pitch trim switches located on the control stand.
174
What is required to command trim changes using alternate pitch trim?
Both switches must be moved.
175
What has priority over primary pitch trim commands?
Alternate pitch trim commands.
176
When are alternate pitch trim switches inhibited?
When the autopilot is engaged.
177
True or False: Pitch trim moves the control column.
False.
178
How does alternate pitch trim operate on the ground compared to in flight?
On the ground, the stabilizer is directly positioned; in flight, it changes the trim reference speed.
179
What functions are included in pitch envelope protection?
* Overspeed protection
* Stall protection
180
What does overspeed protection do?
Reduces the likelihood of exceeding VMO or MMO by enhancing crew awareness.
181
How does overspeed protection limit the speed for trimming?
By inhibiting trim in the nose down direction at VMO/MMO.
182
What must the pilot do to maintain airspeed above VMO/MMO?
Apply continuous forward column pressure at twice the normal force.
183
What is the purpose of stall protection?
Stall protection reduces the likelihood of inadvertently exceeding the stall angle of attack by providing enhanced crew awareness of the approach to a stall or to a stalled condition.
184
How does stall protection limit the speed of the airplane?
Stall protection limits the speed to which the airplane can be trimmed by inhibiting trim in the nose up direction when the airplane slows to a speed where maneuver margin is limited.
185
What is the trim inhibit speed at lower altitudes?
The trim inhibit speed is approximately the minimum maneuvering speed (top of the amber band) at lower altitudes.
186
How much lower can the trim inhibit speed be at higher altitudes?
At higher altitudes, the trim inhibit speed can be 10 to 20 kts lower than the top of the amber band.
187
What must the pilot do to maintain airspeed below trim inhibit speed?
The pilot must apply continuous aft column pressure, at higher than normal force.
188
What do PFCs calculate regarding elevator variable feel?
PFCs calculate feel commands based on airspeed, increasing control column forces as airspeed increases or as column displacement increases.
189
What does tail strike protection do during takeoff or landing?
Tail strike protection calculates if a tail strike is imminent and decreases elevator deflection to reduce the potential for tail contact with the ground.
190
Does activation of tail strike protection provide feedback to the control column?
No, activation of tail strike protection does not provide feedback to the control column.
191
Does tail strike protection degrade takeoff performance?
No, tail strike protection does not degrade takeoff performance and is compatible with the autoland system.
192
Can the pilot override tail strike protection?
Yes, the pilot can override the tail strike protection with continued column input.
193
How does pitch control in secondary and direct flight control modes differ from normal mode?
The flight control system uses simplified computations to generate flight control surface commands and commands a proportional elevator deflection instead of a maneuver command.
194
What are the conditions that secondary and direct modes do not provide automatic pitch compensation for?
* Flap and speedbrake configuration changes
* Turns to 30° bank angle
* Turbulence
* Gear configuration changes
* Thrust changes
195
What does the elevator variable feel system provide in secondary and direct modes based on flap position?
Two feel force levels instead of a continuous variation with airspeed.
196
What happens to pitch control sensitivity as airspeed increases in secondary and direct modes with flaps up?
It can become as much as twice as sensitive compared to normal mode.
197
What does the feel system provide when the flaps are out of up?
A reduced force level appropriate for approach and landing.
198
In secondary and direct modes, what is the status of the trim reference speed?
There is no trim reference speed.
199
What do the primary and alternate pitch trim switches do in secondary and direct modes?
They move the stabilizer directly.
200
How are stabilizer position commands processed?
Through two independent channels within the flight control system.
201
What powers the electric control unit that moves the stabilizer?
The L2 and R2 AC buses.
202
What happens if uncommanded stabilizer motion is sensed?
The stabilizer channel that caused the motion is automatically shut down.
203
What EICAS advisory message is displayed if a stabilizer channel is inoperative due to automatic shutdown or failure?
STABILIZER L2 or STABILIZER R2.
204
What occurs if both stabilizer channels cannot be isolated?
Both channels are shut down.
205
What EICAS warning message is displayed in normal mode if both stabilizer channels automatically shut down or fail?
STABILIZER.
206
True or False: In secondary mode, the EICAS warning message STABILIZER is inhibited.
True.
207
What do the L2 and R2 stabilizer cutout switches control?
Electric power to the independent stabilizer channels
208
What happens when both stabilizer cutout switches are placed in the CUTOUT position?
Disables stabilizer operation and displays EICAS advisory message STABILIZER CUTOUT
209
What is displayed when both stabilizer channels are automatically shut down and the cutout switches are in CUTOUT position?
STABILIZER warning message is not cleared and STABILIZER CUTOUT advisory message is not displayed
210
In normal mode, what is still available if the stabilizer is manually shut down or fails?
Pitch trim through the elevators
211
How do pitch trim commands affect the airplane when the stabilizer is non-operational?
Change the trim reference speed; elevators trim the airplane but stabilizer does not move
212
What is the purpose of the column cutout function?
To stop uncommanded pitch trim input from jammed or failed pitch trim switches
213
What occurs if a pitch trim command is opposed by either control column for more than 2 seconds?
Disables specific pitch trim switch commands until no trim input is indicated
214
What happens if the column cutout function remains active for more than 20 seconds?
Displays STABILIZER L2/R2 EICAS advisory and removes uncommanded input by system shutdown
215
When is the column cutout function not active?
While on the ground
216
How is stabilizer position indicated on EICAS?
Displayed with a takeoff green band
217
Under what condition does the EICAS stabilizer position indication blank?
When gear is up for 10 seconds or 60 seconds after liftoff
218
When does the EICAS stabilizer position indication automatically display?
After landing and any pair of pitch trim switches are used, or groundspeed is less than 40 knots
219
What is the purpose of the stabilizer green band monitor?
To confirm that the green band displayed on the stabilizer position indicator is correct for the actual takeoff weight and CG.
220
What data do the nose gear pressure transducers provide?
Actual airplane gross weight and CG information.
221
What triggers the EICAS advisory message STAB GREENBAND?
* Computed green band disagrees with pressure transducer data
* The two transducer values are not within the set tolerance
* Either transducer has failed
222
What is the function of the Hybrid Laminar Flow Control (HLFC) system?
To reduce aerodynamic drag.
223
Where are the external door assemblies of the HLFC located?
Near the root of the vertical stabilizer.
224
What is the role of the flight control system in normal mode roll control?
It automatically positions the ailerons, flaperons, and spoilers to generate the commanded roll maneuver.
225
True or False: The control wheel directly positions the lateral surfaces in flight.
False
226
What happens to control wheel forces as control displacement increases?
Control wheel forces increase.
227
What is incorporated into the flight control laws for aileron control?
Aileron trim.
228
Fill in the blank: The ailerons are locked out at _______.
[high speeds]
229
What does the flight control system constantly monitor?
Airplane response to pilot inputs.
230
What is the purpose of the negative pressure provided by the HLFC system?
To reduce airplane drag.
231
What are the two sets of validation limits determined by?
One for each nose gear pressure transducer.
232
What happens when the airplane bank angle exceeds approximately 35°?
The control wheel provides roll control inputs to roll the airplane back within 30° of bank.
## Footnote
This feature helps prevent excessive bank angles that can lead to loss of control.
233
What can override the roll command from bank angle protection?
The pilot can override the roll command.
## Footnote
This ensures that pilots maintain ultimate control over the aircraft.
234
How is excessive bank angle indicated on the PFD?
The PFD bank indicator changes color to amber at bank angles exceeding 35°.
## Footnote
This visual cue alerts pilots to potential issues with bank angles.
235
What is not available in secondary or direct flight control modes?
Roll envelope bank angle protection.
## Footnote
Pilots must be aware of this limitation when operating in these modes.
236
How does yaw control in normal mode differ from conventional airplanes?
Rudder pedals do not directly position the rudder surface; they command a sideslip maneuver.
## Footnote
The flight control system automatically adjusts the rudder to achieve the commanded maneuver.
237
What happens to pedal forces as pedal displacement increases?
Pedal forces increase with pedal displacement.
## Footnote
This is important for pilots to understand how their inputs affect control.
238
Does pedal force change with airspeed changes?
No, pedal forces do not change with airspeed changes.
## Footnote
This characteristic maintains consistent control feel regardless of speed.
239
What does the rudder ratio changer do as airspeed increases?
It automatically reduces the sideslip command for a given pedal input.
## Footnote
This ensures that sufficient rudder authority is maintained at all airspeeds.
240
What is the purpose of asymmetry compensation in flight controls?
To maintain a zero yaw rate during reverse thrust asymmetry, crosswind, or gusty conditions.
241
How does the flight control system respond during engine failure on the ground?
It attempts to maintain a yaw rate near zero by commanding rudder to counter the yawing moment.
242
What feedback do the rudder pedals provide to the pilot during engine failure?
The rudder pedals move to indicate that the system is working to counter a thrust asymmetry.
243
In flight, what does the flight control system initially try to maintain during roll or yaw asymmetry?
Zero roll rate and sideslip.
244
What happens to the rudder pedals when the flight control system provides automatic rudder input?
The rudder pedals move to give the pilot awareness of the automatic function.
245
What is the effect of rotating the RUDDER Trim Selector in normal flight control mode?
It disables the transfer of any steady state lateral control to the rudder.
246
What caution message is displayed on the EICAS for large asymmetry conditions?
ROLL/YAW ASYMMETRY caution message.
247
What does the EICAS caution message ROLL LEFT/RIGHT AUTHORITY indicate?
Limited roll control available due to severe asymmetric conditions.
248
In which flight control modes is the wheel to rudder cross-tie function available?
Secondary and direct modes.
249
What does the wheel to rudder cross-tie function reduce?
Maximum sideslip and vertical fin loads.
250
True or False: Automatic lateral and rudder inputs are available in all flight control modes.
False
251
Fill in the blank: The flight control system attempts to maintain a zero yaw rate by automatically adding _____ corrections during asymmetry conditions.
rudder
252
What is required for yaw damping in normal mode?
Yaw damping does not require wheel to rudder cross-tie
## Footnote
The flight control system automatically controls sideslip and fin loads.
253
What do the roll/yaw control laws provide in normal mode?
Turn coordination and Dutch roll damping
## Footnote
These features enhance stability during flight.
254
What enhances ride quality in the presence of vertical gusts and turbulence?
Vertical gust suppression
## Footnote
It utilizes symmetric deflection of the flaperons and elevators.
255
When is vertical gust suppression active?
Only with the autopilot engaged in Altitude Hold or VNAV level flight modes
## Footnote
This ensures effective management of vertical gusts.
256
What does lateral gust suppression do?
Improves ride quality and can reduce pilot workload on approach
## Footnote
It automatically applies discrete yaw commands in response to lateral gusts and turbulence.
257
How many static pressure ports are used for lateral gust suppression?
Four static pressure ports
## Footnote
Two on each side of the vertical stabilizer.
258
What is a key characteristic of vertical and lateral gust suppression operation?
No control wheel, control column, or rudder pedal movement occurs
## Footnote
This means the system operates without requiring manual input.
259
In which mode are vertical and lateral gust suppression available?
Only in the normal mode
## Footnote
This limits their functionality to specific flight conditions.
260
What is the purpose of the rudder trim selector?
To manually operate rudder trim in all three flight control modes
## Footnote
The rudder trim selector is located on the aft aisle stand.
261
How many rudder trim rates are available?
Two rates: low and high
## Footnote
A low rate is commanded with the selector in the detent, and a high rate is commanded when rotated past the detent.
262
When are manual trim inputs automatically zeroed?
During takeoff roll when groundspeed exceeds 30 knots
## Footnote
Further manual trim inputs are inhibited until the aircraft is airborne.
263
What inhibits manual rudder trim when the autopilot yaw is engaged?
It is inhibited with the autopilot yaw engaged in LAND 3 on approach
## Footnote
This ensures stability during critical phases of flight.
264
How do the rudder pedals reflect manual rudder trim application?
The pedals move to reflect the amount of manual rudder trim applied
## Footnote
This provides pilot awareness of trim adjustments.
265
What type of rudder trim is provided in normal flight control mode?
Automatic rudder trim
## Footnote
This helps maintain aircraft stability during flight.
266
What does the automatic rudder trim system do for pilot awareness?
It moves the rudder pedals to reflect the commanded rudder position
## Footnote
This is visible on the rudder trim indicator and flight control synoptic.
267
What happens if the rudder deflection is minimal?
The rudder trim remains centered
## Footnote
This prevents unnecessary trim adjustments for normal flight situations.
268
When are manual and automatic rudder trim inputs zeroed on landing?
When transitioning from air mode to ground mode
## Footnote
This prevents unwanted yaw commands during landing.
269
Where is the rudder trim displayed?
On EICAS and the flight controls synoptic
## Footnote
The indication on the synoptic is constantly displayed.
270
What conditions cause the EICAS rudder trim indication to blank?
Gear up for 10 seconds or 60 seconds after liftoff
## Footnote
This helps reduce unnecessary information during critical phases.
271
Under what conditions does the EICAS rudder trim indication automatically display?
After landing with groundspeed less than 40 knots or in the air with specific EICAS messages active
## Footnote
Messages include ENG FAIL, ENG SHUTDOWN, ENG THRUST, FLIGHT CONTROL MODE, and PRI FLIGHT COMPUTERS.
272
How does yaw control in secondary and direct flight control modes differ from normal mode?
The flight control system continues to receive and process pilot control inputs and uses simplified computations to generate flight control surface commands.
273
In secondary and direct modes, what do the rudder pedals command?
A proportional rudder deflection instead of a maneuver command.
274
What is the effect on pedal feel forces in secondary and direct modes?
Pedal feel forces are unchanged from normal mode.
275
In secondary and direct modes, how does flap position affect rudder response?
With flaps up, the rudder response to pedal inputs is less than when the flaps are not up.
276
What systems are inoperative in secondary and direct flight control modes?
* Asymmetry compensation is inoperative
* Automatic rudder trim is inoperative
* Flight envelope protection is inoperative
* Gust suppression is inoperative
* Yaw damping is degraded
277
How many sets of spoilers are there on the 787, and how are they arranged?
There are 7 sets of spoilers, 4 outboard and 3 inboard of the flaperons.
278
How are the spoilers numbered on the 787?
Spoilers are numbered from left to right, 1 through 14.
279
What is the function of the spoiler panels?
They are used as speedbrakes to increase drag and reduce lift, both in flight and on the ground.
280
How do the spoilers supplement roll control?
They respond to control wheel commands.
281
How many hydraulic systems supply the spoilers, and how are they arranged?
All three hydraulic systems supply 5 pairs of spoilers, with each system dedicated to a different set of spoiler pairs.
282
What happens during engine start and taxi regarding spoiler panels?
The flight control system automatically biases the spoilers up to prevent spoiler trailing edges from contacting the flaps.
283
What EICAS advisory message is displayed for the failure of one or two spoiler panels in the air?
SPOILERS.
284
What EICAS advisory message is displayed for the failure of three or more spoiler panels?
SPOILER PAIRS.
285
Fill in the blank: The 14 spoiler panels are used as _______.
[speedbrakes]
286
What happens to the speedbrake lever in the ARMED position during landing?
The spoilers extend and the speedbrake lever is driven aft to the UP position when the main gear trucks untilt and both thrust levers are not in the takeoff range.
## Footnote
This is a crucial action for safe landing operations.
287
Under what conditions do the spoilers automatically extend when the speedbrake lever is not in the ARMED position?
• On the ground with groundspeed above 85 knots and either thrust lever was previously in the takeoff range, then both thrust levers are moved to the idle range.
• On the ground when both thrust reverse levers are moved to the reverse idle detent.
## Footnote
These conditions are important for managing speed and deceleration during landing.
288
What causes the speedbrake lever to be driven forward to the DOWN position?
• On the ground, when either thrust lever is moved to the takeoff range.
• On the ground, if there is a transition to in the air.
• In the air, when either thrust lever is approximately 70% of full travel.
## Footnote
These conditions help ensure proper aircraft operation during different phases of flight.
289
In which mode are automatic speedbrakes available?
Normal mode
## Footnote
It's essential to understand that automatic speedbrakes function only in this mode.
290
What is the function of autodrag?
To assist in glideslope/glidepath capture by deflecting the ailerons upward and raising the two most outboard spoilers while maintaining airspeed.
## Footnote
This function is particularly useful during approaches.
291
When does autodrag function activate?
• When the aircraft carries out an approach in V/S or FPA mode.
• Only in landing configuration with flaps 25 or 30 and thrust levers at idle.
## Footnote
This highlights the specific conditions required for autodrag operation.
292
What happens to the autodrag surface deflection below 500 feet AGL?
The autodrag surface deflection is gradually removed to ensure flare and touchdown are not affected.
## Footnote
This is critical for safe landing execution.
293
Is autodrag available during automatic or manual approaches?
Yes
## Footnote
Autodrag can assist in both types of approaches, enhancing the flight control system.
294
What happens to the speedbrake lever in the ARMED position during landing?
The spoilers extend and the speedbrake lever is driven aft to the UP position when the main gear trucks untilt and both thrust levers are not in the takeoff range.
## Footnote
This is a crucial action for safe landing operations.
295
Under what conditions do the spoilers automatically extend when the speedbrake lever is not in the ARMED position?
• On the ground with groundspeed above 85 knots and either thrust lever was previously in the takeoff range, then both thrust levers are moved to the idle range.
• On the ground when both thrust reverse levers are moved to the reverse idle detent.
## Footnote
These conditions are important for managing speed and deceleration during landing.
296
What causes the speedbrake lever to be driven forward to the DOWN position?
• On the ground, when either thrust lever is moved to the takeoff range.
• On the ground, if there is a transition to in the air.
• In the air, when either thrust lever is approximately 70% of full travel.
## Footnote
These conditions help ensure proper aircraft operation during different phases of flight.
297
In which mode are automatic speedbrakes available?
Normal mode
## Footnote
It's essential to understand that automatic speedbrakes function only in this mode.
298
What is the function of autodrag?
To assist in glideslope/glidepath capture by deflecting the ailerons upward and raising the two most outboard spoilers while maintaining airspeed.
## Footnote
This function is particularly useful during approaches.
299
When does autodrag function activate?
• When the aircraft carries out an approach in V/S or FPA mode.
• Only in landing configuration with flaps 25 or 30 and thrust levers at idle.
## Footnote
This highlights the specific conditions required for autodrag operation.
300
What happens to the autodrag surface deflection below 500 feet AGL?
The autodrag surface deflection is gradually removed to ensure flare and touchdown are not affected.
## Footnote
This is critical for safe landing execution.
301
Is autodrag available during automatic or manual approaches?
Yes
## Footnote
Autodrag can assist in both types of approaches, enhancing the flight control system.
302
What is the purpose of the Landing Attitude Modifier (LAM)?
To increase pitch attitude and increase the nose gear height when landing flaps are selected at higher speeds.
## Footnote
LAM increases pitch attitude by partially raising selected lateral control surfaces, reducing lift produced by the wing.
303
What happens when LAM is active?
Some airframe buffet may occur.
## Footnote
There are no crew procedures or monitoring requirements for this system and no alert messages specific to this function for any failure mode.
304
How many outboard slats does the airplane have on the leading edge?
Five outboard slats.
## Footnote
There is also one inboard slat.
305
What is the function of the two-position Krueger flap?
It provides a seal between the inboard slat and the engine nacelle on each wing.
306
What flap positions are considered takeoff flap positions?
Flaps 5, 10, 15, 17, 18, and 20.
## Footnote
Flaps 25 and 30 are landing flap positions.
307
Under what conditions is flap and slat extension inhibited?
When speed is more than 260 KIAS or altitude is above approximately 20,000 feet.
308
Which devices extend first when the flap lever is moved aft?
The slats extend first and retract last.
309
What must be pressurized for flaps to move on the ground?
All three hydraulic systems.
310
What does the selection of flaps 1 command?
The slats to move to the middle position while the flaps remain retracted.
311
What happens when flaps 25 are selected?
The slats move to the fully extended position while the flaps do not move.
312
What do flaps 30 command?
The flaps to extend to the primary landing position.
313
What happens during retraction of flaps and slats?
Flap and slat sequencing is reversed
314
What prevents inadvertent retraction of the flaps past the go-around flap setting?
The mechanical gate at the flaps 20 detent
315
What prevents inadvertent retraction of the slats past the middle position?
The mechanical gate at flaps 1
316
What are the three modes of flap and slat operation?
* primary
* secondary
* alternate
317
In which mode are flaps and slats controlled together?
Primary mode
318
What operates in the primary mode?
Autogap and flap load relief
319
What automatically selects the secondary mode?
Any of the following conditions occur:
* center hydraulic system failed
* control surfaces travel at less than 50% of the normal hydraulic rate
* flap or slat disagree is detected
* flap or slat primary control failure
* primary mode fails to move the flaps or slats to the selected position
* uncommanded flap or slat motion is detected
320
How are slats and flaps controlled in the secondary mode?
Controlled separately and can be positioned by hydraulic or electric motors
321
What happens if the slats hydraulic control fails in the secondary mode?
Flaps are still driven hydraulically but the slats are now powered electrically
322
What is the limitation of pilot control in the secondary mode?
Operation is limited to flaps 20 by non-normal procedures
323
What does the three-position alternate flaps selector do?
Extends and retracts the flaps and slats
324
What is inhibited during slat retraction in alternate mode?
Slat retraction until the flaps are up
325
What are the limitations of flap and slat extension in alternate mode?
Limited to slats middle position and flaps 20
326
What features are not available in alternate mode?
* Asymmetry and uncommanded motion protection
* Slat autogap and pregap
* Flap and slat load relief
327
How must the alternate mode be selected?
Manually
328
What is the effect on operation time in secondary and alternate modes?
Operation time is greatly increased
329
What is the primary function of the flap load relief system?
Protects the flaps from excessive air loads
330
What happens when flap airspeed placard limits are exceeded with the flaps in the 15 through 30 position?
LOAD RELIEF is displayed and the flaps automatically retract to a safe position
331
To what position is load relief retraction limited?
Flaps 5
332
What occurs when airspeed is reduced after flap retraction?
The flaps automatically re-extend as airspeed allows
333
What prevents flap extension beyond certain positions during a flap overspeed?
Load relief
334
Which flap positions are restricted from extension during a flap overspeed?
5, 15, 17, 18, or 20/25 positions
335
In which mode is flap load relief available?
Primary mode
336
What does the EICAS flap display indicate during load relief operation?
An in-transit flap condition and shows actual flap position
337
Does the flap lever move during flap load relief operation?
No
338
Is load relief for slats required in the primary or alternate modes?
No
339
In which mode is slat load relief available?
Secondary mode
340
What happens if airspeed exceeds 240 KIAS with the slats fully extended?
They retract to the middle position and LOAD RELIEF is displayed
341
What occurs for all lever positions except Up when airspeed is below 240 KIAS?
The slats are driven to their extend position
342
What is the function of the slat autogap?
Increases wing camber to increase lift at high angles of attack
343
When is the slat autogap function available?
In primary mode with slats in the middle position and airspeed below 240 KIAS
344
What happens to the slats after the angle of attack decreases when using autogap?
They return to the middle position
345
What is the purpose of the pregap function in the secondary mode?
To automatically move slats to the fully extended position when conditions are met
346
What conditions must be met for the slats to remain in the extended position?
Flap lever not UP and airspeed below 240 KIAS
347
What is the purpose of cruise flaps?
Improves airplane's cruise performance by optimizing wing camber
348
Which control surfaces are moved in the cruise flaps function?
Flaps, ailerons, flaperons, and spoilers
349
What is required for the cruise flaps function to operate?
No pilot interaction
350
What is displayed if the cruise flaps system fails?
EICAS advisory message CRUISE FLAPS SYS
351
What is the altitude range for cruise flaps availability?
Above 25,000 feet, between 0.54 and 0.87 Mach
## Footnote
Cruise flaps are only available in the normal mode.
352
What happens when a skew condition or asymmetric deployment is detected in the flap and slat systems?
The systems shutdown and EICAS caution messages FLAPS DRIVE and/or SLATS DRIVE are annunciated
## Footnote
This occurs in both primary and secondary modes.
353
What indicates uncommanded flap or slat motion?
Flaps or slats move away from the commanded position, continue moving after reaching commanded position, or move in the opposite direction
## Footnote
Detection triggers a transfer to secondary mode.
354
What EICAS caution messages are displayed for uncommanded flap or slat motion?
FLAPS PRIMARY FAIL and/or SLATS PRIMARY FAIL
## Footnote
If motion continues, the system shuts down and displays FLAPS DRIVE and/or SLATS DRIVE.
355
What is detected in a flap or slat disagree condition?
Flaps or slats do not move or move too slowly after a commanded input
## Footnote
Automatic transfer to secondary mode occurs if the rate of motion is less than half the normal rate.
356
What EICAS caution messages are displayed when a flap or slat disagree is detected?
FLAPS PRIMARY FAIL and/or SLATS PRIMARY FAIL
## Footnote
Continued slow motion leads to system shutdown and displays FLAPS DRIVE and/or SLATS DRIVE.
357
Where are flap position indications displayed?
On the primary EICAS display
## Footnote
A single vertical indicator shows combined flap and slat position in primary mode.
358
What happens to flap indications ten seconds after all flaps and slats are up?
The entire indication is no longer displayed
## Footnote
A loss of position sensing removes the tape fill and flap lever position indications.
359
What occurs if flap/slat control is in secondary or alternate mode?
An expanded flap indication is displayed automatically
## Footnote
Left and right flaps and slats positions are separately indicated.
360
In alternate mode, what replaces the position commanded by the flap lever?
Flap position index marks at all flap and slat positions and numbers at flaps 5 and flaps 20
## Footnote
These index marks guide to position the flaps to the desired setting.
361
What is the altitude range for cruise flaps availability?
Above 25,000 feet, between 0.54 and 0.87 Mach
## Footnote
Cruise flaps are only available in the normal mode.
362
What happens when a skew condition or asymmetric deployment is detected in the flap and slat systems?
The systems shutdown and EICAS caution messages FLAPS DRIVE and/or SLATS DRIVE are annunciated
## Footnote
This occurs in both primary and secondary modes.
363
What indicates uncommanded flap or slat motion?
Flaps or slats move away from the commanded position, continue moving after reaching commanded position, or move in the opposite direction
## Footnote
Detection triggers a transfer to secondary mode.
364
What EICAS caution messages are displayed for uncommanded flap or slat motion?
FLAPS PRIMARY FAIL and/or SLATS PRIMARY FAIL
## Footnote
If motion continues, the system shuts down and displays FLAPS DRIVE and/or SLATS DRIVE.
365
What is detected in a flap or slat disagree condition?
Flaps or slats do not move or move too slowly after a commanded input
## Footnote
Automatic transfer to secondary mode occurs if the rate of motion is less than half the normal rate.
366
What EICAS caution messages are displayed when a flap or slat disagree is detected?
FLAPS PRIMARY FAIL and/or SLATS PRIMARY FAIL
## Footnote
Continued slow motion leads to system shutdown and displays FLAPS DRIVE and/or SLATS DRIVE.
367
Where are flap position indications displayed?
On the primary EICAS display
## Footnote
A single vertical indicator shows combined flap and slat position in primary mode.
368
What happens to flap indications ten seconds after all flaps and slats are up?
The entire indication is no longer displayed
## Footnote
A loss of position sensing removes the tape fill and flap lever position indications.
369
What occurs if flap/slat control is in secondary or alternate mode?
An expanded flap indication is displayed automatically
## Footnote
Left and right flaps and slats positions are separately indicated.
370
In alternate mode, what replaces the position commanded by the flap lever?
Flap position index marks at all flap and slat positions and numbers at flaps 5 and flaps 20
## Footnote
These index marks guide to position the flaps to the desired setting.
Hawaiian 787
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