AWOPS

Question 1

What are the VFR minimum visibility and fistance from cloud for:
1-Take-Off, approach and landing
2-Enroute below FL100
3-Entroute above FL100

4-what is additionally required to fly VFR

Answer 1

1-5km vis, 1500ft ceiling
2-5km vis, distance of 1500m and 1000ft from cloud
3-8km vis, distance of 1500m and 1000ft from cloud

4-Aircraft must have visual reference to surface by day/identifiable objects by night
-Must be below 3/8 cloud cover of clouds within 5nm of the aircraft

Question 2

What is the minimum RVR required for a visual approach

Answer 2

800m

Question 3

Which visual references must be distinctly visible before a pilot may continue an approach below DA/ MDA

Answer 3

-Elements of the approach lighting system
-Threshold
-Threshold Markings
-Threshold Lights
-Threshold Identification Lights
-Visual Glideslope Indicator
-Touchdown Zone/Touchdown Zone Markings
-Touchdown Zone Lights
-Runway Edge Lights

Question 4

What does cloud ceiling refer to

Answer 4

The height of the lowest layer of cloud below 20 000ft, covering more than half the sky

Question 5

If an aircraft(single/twin-engine) cannot meet required take-off performance, what is the minimum RVR for departure and under what conditions may it be reduced

Answer 5

Minimum RVR is 800m unless operator(twin-engine only) has approval to reduce it. It may be reduced only if either of the following is true:

1- An alternative method proves obstacle clearance can be maintained

Or

2- Approved procedures are in place that ensure obstacle clearance on departure

Question 6

Under what conditions may an operator reduce take-off minima below standard values (below 150 m RVR for Cat A-C / below 200 m for Cat D), and when can it be reduced even further

Answer 6

1-LVP’s are in force
2-High intensity runway Lights are used: <15m spacing for centerline lights, <60m spacing for runway edge lights
3-Crew members have satisfactorily completed training in sim
4-A 90m visual segment is available from cockpit at start of take-off run
5-Required RVR is met at all relevant RVR reporting points

Question 7

Under what conditions may an operator using a lateral guidance system for take-off reduce take-off minima to an RVR to below 125 m (Cat A-C) or 150 m (Cat D), down to a minimum of 75 m

Answer 7

1-There is runway protection
2-Facilities equivalent to CAT III landing ops are available

Question 8

What are the weather and distance/time limitations for the usability of a take-off alternate for single/multi-engine aircraft

Answer 8

1. Weather

Forecast weather is at or above alternate minima for the appropriate approach
Valid for ±1 hour of the estimated time of arrival

2. Distance / time limits (from departure aerodrome)

Single-engine aircraft:
• Within 20 minutes flying time at cruise speed

Multi-engine aircraft:
• 1 hour at OEI cruise speed, ISA, still air, actual take-off mass, or
• 2 hours at all-engine cruise speed, ISA, still air, actual take-off mass

EDTO operations:
• If no alternate exists within the above limits, the first suitable aerodrome within the operator’s approved maximum diversion time, considering actual take-off mass

Question 9

What are the requirements for an aerodrome to be:
1-Adequate
2-Suitable

Answer 9

1-A licensed aerodrome/is to be found equivalent to saftey requirements prescribed. Has ATC, sufficient lighting, communications, weather reporting, navaids and emergency services

2-An adequate aerodrome with weather reports/forecasts above applicable minima, and operational approach aids
-Conditions exist that facilitate a safe landing

Question 10

When is an enroute alternate required

Answer 10

-When the failure of a critical system/engine necessitates a diversion enroute
-When using a decision-point fuel-planning procedure
-When engaged in EDTOs

Question 11

What weather minima do the following approaches rely on:
1-Non-Precision/Circling approach
2-Precision approach

Answer 11

1-Ceiling must be above MDA/H and RVR/Vis must be above minima

2-Ceiling must be above DA/H and RVR/Vis must be above minima

Question 12

When is a destination alternate not required for part 121 and 135 flights

Answer 12

-Destination is isolated(no suitable alt), provided that:

1. A standard approach is available from 2 hours before ETA
2. Forecast weather from 2 hours before ETA indicates a cloud base 1000ft above minima, and a minimum vis of 5.5km or 4km more than the minima, whichever is greater

-The destination has:

1. Two seperate runways, arranged that one runways closure doesnt affect the other
2. Each runway has a straight in approach procedure
3. Weather forecast from time of departure to the ETA +- 1hour allows for a VMC approach and landing

Question 13

When is a destination alternate not required for part 91 flights

Answer 13

-The destination is isolated, provided that:

1. Point of no return has been decided
2. Flight won’t continue past PNR unless a current assessment of weather, traffic and other operational conditions indicate a safe landing can be made at the ETA

-The flight must be short enough that the weather and operational info at ETA is reliable, and must confirm that:

1. A visual approach and landing will be possible
2. At least two separate runways will be usable at ETA
3. At least one runway has an operational instrument approach available

Question 14

When are 2 destination alternates required for part 91, 121 and 135 flights

Answer 14

-When no weather report is available for destination
-Weather forecast for destination is below operator’s landing minima +- 1hour of ETA

Question 15

What enhanced planning minima for enroute and destination alternates are required for part 91 flights for the following approaches:
1-CAT II and III
2-CAT I
3-Non-Precision
4-Circling

Answer 15

1-CAT I minima
2-Non-Precision minima & ceiling above MDH
3-Non-Precision minima & 200ft added to MDH and 1000m added to RVR/Vis
4-Circling

Question 16

What are the enhanced planning minima for enroute and destination alternates for part 121 and 135 flights for the following approach and landing provisions:

1. Aerodromes supporting instrument approach and landing ops, but not straight-in approach and landing ops to at least 2 runway ends
2. Aerodromes supporting straight-in instrument approach and landing ops to different suitable runways
3. Aerodromes supporting a minimum of two instrument approach and landing ops to different runways, at least one being CAT II / III

Answer 16

1. Ceiling - minima + 400ft
   Vis - minima + 1500m
2. Ceiling - minima + 200ft
   Vis - minima + 800m
3. CAT II:
   Ceiling - at least 300ft
   Vis - RVR of at least 1200m
   CAT III:
   Ceiling - at least 200ft
   Vis - RVR of at least 550m

Question 17

1. What are enhanced minima
2. Why are they necessary

Answer 17

1. -Increased minima to allow for more safety with less favourable approaches when comparing current weather to the aerodrome minima
   -Enhances safety and improves the probability of landing at an alternate
   -Only used for planning purposes, once airborne, enhanced minima corrections dont need to be applied for alternates
2. Because of the difficulty in forecasting accurately over a long period

Question 18

What are the reference take-off RVR/visibility minimums for aerodromes with the following facilities:
1. Nil(Day only)
2. Runway edge lighting and/or centreline marking
3. Runway edge and centreline lights
4. Runway edge and centreline lights and multiple RVR info

Answer 18

1. 500m (distance can be replaced by pilot assessment on initial part of take-off run)
2. 250m / 300m (higher is Cat D)
3. 200m / 250m (higher is Cat D)
4. 150m / 200m (higher is Cat D, required RVR must be achieved for all RVR reporting points, distance can be replaced by pilot assessment)

Question 19

What are the minimum MDH/DH for the following facilities:
1. ILS - CAT I
2. ILS - no glidepath
3. SRA - terminating at 1/2nm
4. SRA - terminating at 1nm
5. SRA - terminating at 2nm
6. VOR
7. VOR/DME
8. NDB
9. VDF - QDM/QGH

QGH is a controller-guided let-down using VDF bearings + range/height instructions. ATC steps you down on set altitudes and headings when there’s no radar, guiding you through cloud until you break visual and can continue to the aerodrome

Answer 19

1. 200ft
2. 250ft
3. 250ft
4. 300ft
5. 350ft
6. 300ft
7. 250ft
8. 300ft
9. 300ft

Question 20

How is the MDH/DH determined when referring to the OCH and MDH for specific facilities (Precision and non-precision) in use at an aerodrome

Answer 20

MDH/DH is the higher of the published minimum (MDH/DH) and the Obstacle Clearance Height (OCH) to ensure safe obstacle clearance during the approach

Question 21

1. What are Low Visibility Procedures(LVPs)
2. What is the visibility required for a low-visibility take-off
3. What is the visibility required for a reduced-visibility take-off for Cat A-C, and Cat D aircraft

Answer 21

1. Procedures instituted by ATC when:
   -the lowest RVR < 600m and/or
   -ceiling <= 200ft
2. <400m
3. Cat A-C: <150m
   Cat D: 200m

Question 22

What are the minimum ICAO defined DA and RVR minima for the following approaches:
1. Cat I
2. Cat II
3. Cat III A
4. Cat III B
5. Cat III C

Answer 22

1. DA: > 200ft
   RVR: 550m - 800m
2. DA: 100ft - 200ft
   RVR: >= 300m
3. DA: 50ft - 100ft
   RVR: >= 200m
4. DA: 0ft - 50ft
   RVR: 75m - 200m
5. DA: 0ft
   RVR: 0m

Question 23

-What area does the Localiser Sensitive Area cover
-What is the Localiser Sensitive Area
-When is the area protected

Answer 23

-A rectangular area 150m either side of the runway centreline, extending from localiser aerial to beginning of runway

-Area where movement of people, vehicles and aircraft can interfere with signals and reduce accuracy/reliability of the ILS

-Protected during LVPs

Question 24

What is an approach ban and what is its purpose

Answer 24

A pilot is not allowed to commence/continue an approach past a certain point if the weather deteriorates below minimums

Prevents pilots from attempting approaches where landing is highly unlikely, improving safety and efficiency

Question 25

What is the minimum OCH, MDH and Visibility required for a Circling approach for aircraft categories A-D

Answer 25

A. OCH: 295ft MDH: 400ft Vis: 1500m B. OCH: 295ft MDH: 500ft Vis: 1600m C. OCH: 394ft MDH: 600ft Vis: 2400m D. OCH: 394ft MDH: 700ft Vis: 3600m

Question 26

When RVR is unavailable, what factor should the reported visibility be multiplied by for night and day operations when the following runway lighting is in use: 1. High Intensity approach and runway Lights 2. Any other type of lighting installation 3. No lighting

Answer 26

1. Day: 1.5 Night: 2 2. Day: 1 Night: 1.5 3. Day: 1 Night: not applicable

Question 27

What minima distinguish the following approaches: 1. Non-Precision Precision: 2. CAT I 3. CAT II 4. CAT III A 5. CAT III B 6. CAT III C

Answer 27

1. Non-Precision Approach (NPA) - Guidance: Lateral only - Minima: MDA/MDH, no DA 2. CAT I - DA/H: ≥ 200ft - RVR: ≥ 550m, Vis ≥ 800m 3. CAT II - DA/H: 100 - 200 ft - RVR: ≥ 350 m 4. CAT III A - DA/H: < 100 ft or no DA/H - RVR: ≥ 200 m 5. CAT III B - DA/H: < 50 ft or no DA/H - RVR: < 200m and > 50m 6. CAT III C – DA/H: No DA – RVR: No RVR limit

Question 28

1. What is the ILS critical area 2. What is the ILS sensitive area

Answer 28

1. A strictly enforced, defined area surrounding Localizer/Glide Path antennas where all vehicles and aircraft are excluded during ILS operations to prevent signal disruption 2. An area extending beyond the critical area where the parking and movement of aircraft/vehicles are controlled to prevent interference to the signal

Question 29

What is the mnimum approach lighting length for CAT I / II / III approach

Answer 29

CAT I: ≥ 420 m CAT II: ≥ 720 m CAT III: ≥ 720 m

Question 30

At what height above the aerodrome does glidepath interception usually occur for a precision approach

Answer 30

1000-3000ft above the aerodrome