Basic Network Security Concepts Flashcards

2.1. Describe TCP/IP protocol vulnerabilities • TCP, UDP, HTTP, ARP, ICMP, DHCP, DNS 2.2. Explain how network addresses impact network security • IPv4 and IPv6 addresses, MAC addresses, network segmentation, CIDR notation, NAT, public vs. private networks 2.3. Describe network infrastructure and technologies • Network security architecture, DMZ, virtualization, cloud, honeypot, proxy server, IDS, IPS 2.4. Set up a secure wireless SoHo network • MAC address filtering, encryption standards (75 cards)

1
Q

How does TCP differ from UDP regarding delivery reliability?

A

TCP is connection-oriented and guarantees delivery, whereas UDP is connectionless and provides best-effort delivery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which specific TCP vulnerability involves overwhelming a target by leaving connections in a half-open state?

A

SYN Flood attack.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Why is UDP frequently used in reflection and amplification Denial of Service (DoS) attacks?

A

It is connectionless and lacks a handshake mechanism, making it easy to spoof source addresses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the primary security risk associated with using standard HTTP for web communication?

A

Data is sent in plaintext, making it susceptible to eavesdropping and Man-in-the-Middle (MITM) attacks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which protocol is responsible for mapping a known IP address to an unknown MAC address on a local network?

A

Address Resolution Protocol (ARP).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Explain the goal of an ARP Poisoning attack.

A

An attacker sends false ARP messages to associate their MAC address with the IP address of a legitimate network device.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Why do security administrators often block ICMP messages at the network perimeter?

A

ICMP can be exploited for network reconnaissance to map internal topology or to launch DoS attacks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which security feature is used to prevent unauthorized or rogue DHCP servers from assigning IP addresses?

A

DHCP Snooping.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Define DNS Poisoning (also known as DNS Spoofing).

A

An attack where false IP address mappings are injected into a DNS resolver’s cache to redirect users to malicious sites.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The technique of exfiltrating data by hiding it within DNS queries is known as _____.

A

DNS Tunneling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the total bit length of an $IPv4$ address?

A

An $IPv4$ address is $32$ bits long.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the total bit length of an $IPv6$ address?

A

An $IPv6$ address is $128$ bits long.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which security protocol is built-in and mandatory for the $IPv6$ standard?

A

$IPsec$.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

At which layer of the OSI model do MAC addresses operate?

A

Layer 2 (Data Link Layer).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the primary security benefit of network segmentation using VLANs?

A

It contains threats by limiting an attacker’s ability to move laterally across the network.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

In CIDR notation (e.g., $/24$), what does the number following the slash represent?

A

The number of bits used for the network portion of the address.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the primary function of Network Address Translation (NAT)?

A

It translates private internal IP addresses into a single public IP address for internet access.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Why is NAT considered a ‘layer of obscurity’ rather than a true security control?

A

It hides internal network topology but does not actively filter or inspect traffic for threats.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which of the following is a reserved private $IPv4$ address range: $10.0.0.0/8$, $172.16.0.0/12$, or $192.168.0.0/16$?

A

All three are reserved private $IPv4$ address ranges.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What distinguishes a Public IP address from a Private IP address regarding internet routing?

A

Public IPs are globally routable on the internet, while Private IPs are not.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Concept: Network Security Architecture

A

Definition: The comprehensive plan for security device placement, configurations, and policies across the infrastructure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Where should an organization place public-facing servers, such as web or email servers, to isolate them from the trusted internal network?

A

In a Demilitarized Zone (DMZ).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

In a virtualized environment, what is the software layer that manages hardware resources and runs multiple Guest OSs?

A

The Hypervisor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What specific security risk occurs if an attacker compromises a virtual machine and gains access to the underlying Hypervisor?

A

VM Escape.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
According to the Cloud Shared Responsibility Model, what is the customer typically responsible for securing?
The customer is responsible for securing their own data and application access.
26
What is the primary purpose of deploying a honeypot on a network?
To act as a decoy that attracts attackers, allowing security teams to gather intelligence on their methods.
27
How does a Proxy server enhance security for internal clients?
It acts as an intermediary that can filter content, cache data, and mask the internal IP addresses of clients.
28
What is the fundamental difference in action between an IDS and an IPS when a threat is detected?
An IDS only alerts the administrator, while an IPS can automatically stop or block the malicious traffic.
29
Where must an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) be placed in the network to actively block traffic?
It must be deployed in-line with the traffic flow.
30
Which type of security control is an Intrusion Detection System (IDS) categorized as?
A detective control.
31
Why is MAC address filtering considered a weak security control for wireless networks?
MAC addresses are easily spoofed by attackers using network sniffing tools.
32
Which wireless encryption standard is currently considered the most secure for SOHO networks?
WPA3.
33
What is the security implication of disabling SSID broadcast (hiding the network name)?
It provides minimal security because the SSID can still be captured by network sniffing tools during client discovery.
34
What is an Access Control List (ACL)?
A set of rules on a router or firewall that permits or denies traffic based on criteria like source IP or destination port.
35
Explain the 'Stateful Inspection' feature of modern firewalls.
The firewall tracks the state of active connections and only permits return traffic that belongs to an established session.
36
What are the two primary security goals achieved by using a Virtual Private Network (VPN)?
Confidentiality and integrity of data through encryption.
37
What does a Network Access Control (NAC) system verify before granting a device access to the network?
It verifies that the device meets security policy requirements, such as having updated antivirus and the latest patches.
38
Which protocol should be used as a secure replacement for Telnet for remote device management?
Secure Shell (SSH).
39
Identify the attack where an unauthorized person installs their own Access Point on a corporate network to capture credentials.
Rogue Access Point attack.
40
In the context of the TCP three-way handshake, what is the second packet sent?
SYN-ACK.
41
Which network utility is used to display active network connections and listening ports on a host?
netstat.
42
Which IPv6 address shortening rule allows replacing a single contiguous sequence of all-zero segments?
The Double Colon (::) rule.
43
How many times can the double colon (::) be used in a single IPv6 address?
Only once.
44
What is the standard port number for the Domain Name System (DNS)?
Port $53$.
45
What is the standard port number for secure web traffic (HTTPS)?
Port $443$.
46
What is the function of the ARP Cache?
It stores IP-to-MAC address mappings to avoid repeated ARP requests for the same destination.
47
Which network device uses a MAC Address Table to forward data only to the intended destination segment?
A Switch.
48
What is the primary difference between a 'Standard' ACL and an 'Extended' ACL?
Standard ACLs filter based only on source IP, while Extended ACLs can filter by source/destination IP, protocol, and port.
49
Which wireless discover mode involves the Access Point periodically sending beacon frames containing the SSID?
Passive discover mode.
50
In a DHCP Starvation attack, what is the attacker's ultimate goal?
To exhaust the DHCP server's pool of IP addresses so that legitimate clients cannot lease an address.
51
What is a 'Wireless Probe Request' used for?
It is sent by a client device to actively discover available wireless networks.
52
Which type of firewall operates at the highest layer of the OSI model and performs Deep Packet Inspection?
Application-Level Gateway (Proxy Firewall).
53
Identify the attack that involves sending many Telnet requests to a router to prevent valid administrators from accessing it.
Denial of Service (DoS) attack.
54
Which protocol provides error reporting and diagnostic feedback between a destination host and a source host?
ICMP.
55
What does a 'Header Checksum' in an $IPv4$ packet do?
It is used to detect corruption in the $IPv4$ header.
56
In an $IPv4$ address, what divides the network portion from the host portion?
The Subnet Mask.
57
What field in an $IPv4$ header is decremented by each router to prevent packets from looping endlessly?
Time-to-Live (TTL).
58
What is the $IPv6$ equivalent of the $IPv4$ 'Time-to-Live' field?
Hop Limit.
59
Which TCP attack aims to overwhelm a host by leaving connection slots occupied by uncompleted handshakes?
SYN flood attack.
60
What is the primary purpose of a 'Default Gateway'?
It is the router's IP address that serves as the exit point for traffic leaving the local network for other networks.
61
Explain the 'Least Privilege' principle in network defense.
Users and systems should be granted only the minimum level of access necessary to perform their functions.
62
Which protocol is used for centralized Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting (AAA) in VPN and wireless environments?
RADIUS.
63
A logical division of a physical switch into multiple separate networks is called a _____.
VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network)
64
What is the 'principle of defense-in-depth'?
A layered security strategy where multiple independent controls are used so that if one fails, others remain.
65
Which field in an $IPv6$ header is used to identify a sequence of packets that require special handling by routers?
Flow Label.
66
In a wireless SOHO network, what does 'WPS' stand for and why is it often disabled?
Wi-Fi Protected Setup; it is often disabled because it is vulnerable to brute-force attacks.
67
How does 'Rate Limiting' help mitigate DoS attacks?
It restricts the amount of traffic allowed from a specific source or for a specific protocol over a period of time.
68
Which component of the CIA triad is primarily supported by the use of hashing?
Integrity.
69
Which layer of the TCP/IP model is responsible for logical addressing and path selection?
The Internet layer.
70
What is a 'Broadcast Domain'?
A logical network segment where all nodes can receive broadcast traffic from one another.
71
Identify the protocol used for automatically assigning IP configuration parameters to hosts.
Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP).
72
What is 'Port Security' on a switch?
A feature that restricts the specific MAC addresses allowed to connect to an individual switch port.
73
Which type of reconnaissance attack involves scanning a range of IP addresses to see which ones respond to ICMP requests?
Ping Sweep.
74
What does a SIEM system do with log data from various network devices?
It collects, correlates, and analyzes logs to provide centralized visibility and threat detection.
75
How do 'IPS Signatures' work to identify threats?
They are a set of rules used to detect typical patterns of intrusive or malicious activity.