Essential Security Principles

Question 1

In cybersecurity, what term describes a weakness in a system or design that can be exploited by a threat actor?

Answer 1

Vulnerability

Question 2

What term refers to a potential danger or actor that could take advantage of a system weakness?

Answer 2

Threat

Question 3

What is the specific piece of code or technique used to take advantage of a vulnerability to cause unintended behavior?

Answer 3

Exploit

Question 4

Which formula is used to calculate the level of risk associated with a specific vulnerability?

Answer 4

Risk = Likelihood x Impact

Question 5

The path or method an attacker uses to gain unauthorized access to a system, such as a phishing email or unpatched port, is an _____.

Answer 5

Attack Vector

Question 6

What is the process of securing a system by reducing its attack surface through measures like disabling unnecessary services?

Answer 6

Hardening

Question 7

Which security strategy uses multiple layered controls throughout an infrastructure to ensure that if one fails, another is there to catch the threat?

Answer 7

Defense-in-Depth

Question 8

Concept: Confidentiality

Answer 8

Definition: Ensuring that data is accessible only to authorized users to prevent unauthorized access.

Question 9

Which component of the CIA triad ensures that data is accurate, complete, and has not been improperly modified?

Answer 9

Integrity

Question 10

The goal of ensuring that authorized users can access the system and data when needed is called _____.

Answer 10

Availability

Question 11

Which type of attacker uses pre-written tools and is primarily motivated by curiosity or bragging rights?

Answer 11

Script Kiddie

Question 12

What is the primary motivation for a Hacktivist threat actor?

Answer 12

Promoting a political or social cause

Question 13

Threat actors associated with Organized Crime are primarily motivated by _____.

Answer 13

Financial gain

Question 14

Which type of threat actor works for a government and is motivated by espionage, economic advantage, or warfare?

Answer 14

State-Sponsored (Nation State)

Question 15

What ethical guideline requires cybersecurity professionals to disclose vulnerabilities responsibly and maintain non-malicious intent?

Answer 15

Code of Ethics

Question 16

What is the general term for malicious software designed to cause damage or gain unauthorized access to a system?

Answer 16

Malware

Question 17

Which type of malware encrypts a victim’s files and demands payment for the decryption key?

Answer 17

Ransomware

Question 18

What is the primary difference between a DoS attack and a DDoS attack?

Answer 18

A DDoS attack uses multiple compromised systems (a botnet) rather than a single source.

Question 19

A network of compromised computers controlled by an attacker to perform malicious tasks is known as a _____.

Answer 19

Botnet

Question 20

What technique involves manipulating people into divulging confidential information or performing unauthorized actions?

Answer 20

Social Engineering

Question 21

Which phishing variant uses mass emails to trick a large group of users into revealing credentials?

Answer 21

Phishing

Question 22

What is the term for a highly targeted phishing attack aimed at a specific individual or organization?

Answer 22

Spear Phishing

Question 23

A targeted social engineering attack aimed specifically at a high-value individual, such as an executive, is called _____.

Answer 23

Whaling

Question 24

What is the term for a phishing attack conducted specifically through voice calls or VoIP?

Answer 24

Vishing

Question 25

A phishing attempt conducted via SMS or text messages is known as _____.

Answer 25

Smishing

Question 26

Which physical social engineering technique involves an unauthorized person following an authorized person into a secure area?

Answer 26

Tailgating

Question 27

What type of attack involves an intruder secretly relaying and possibly altering communication between two parties?

Answer 27

Man-in-the-Middle (MITM)

Question 28

Why do IoT devices often represent a significant security vulnerability?

Answer 28

They often have weak security, default passwords, and a lack of consistent patching.

Question 29

Security risks originating from people within an organization, such as employees or contractors, are classified as _____.

Answer 29

Insider Threats

Question 30

What does the acronym APT stand for in the context of prolonged, targeted, and sophisticated cyber attacks?

Answer 30

Advanced Persistent Threat

Question 31

In the AAA framework, which step is responsible for verifying the identity of a user?

Answer 31

Authentication

Question 32

In the AAA framework, what process determines the specific resources a user is allowed to access after their identity is verified?

Answer 32

Authorization

Question 33

The 'Accounting' component of AAA is primarily concerned with _____.

Answer 33

Tracking and logging user actions

Question 34

Which centralized AAA protocol is commonly used for managing network access for VPNs and Wi-Fi?

Answer 34

RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service)

Question 35

What security requirement mandates the use of two or more different types of verification factors for access?

Answer 35

Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA)

Question 36

Why are two different passwords for the same account not considered Multi-Factor Authentication?

Answer 36

They are two instances of the same factor (knowledge) rather than different factors.

Question 37

What are the three common categories of MFA factors?

Answer 37

Something you know, something you have, and something you are.

Question 38

An MFA factor such as a fingerprint or retina scan falls under the category of something you _____.

Answer 38

Are (Biometric)

Question 39

Organizational rules that dictate minimum length, complexity, and rotation intervals for passwords are known as _____.

Answer 39

Password Policies

Question 40

Which type of encryption uses a single shared key for both the encryption and decryption of data?

Answer 40

Symmetric Encryption

Question 41

Asymmetric encryption is defined by the use of two different keys, which are the _____.

Answer 41

Public key and private key

Question 42

What process converts data into a fixed-size string of characters to verify its integrity?

Answer 42

Hashing

Question 43

Which framework manages digital certificates, including their creation, distribution, and revocation?

Answer 43

Public Key Infrastructure (PKI)

Question 44

What is the primary purpose of a Digital Certificate?

Answer 44

To verify the identity of an entity and provide its public key.

Question 45

Data that is currently residing on a hard drive, flash drive, or cloud storage is classified as data _____.

Answer 45

At rest

Question 46

What is the classification for data that is currently moving across a network between two points?

Answer 46

Data in transit

Question 47

Data that is actively being processed by the CPU or stored in RAM is referred to as data _____.

Answer 47

In use

Question 48

Which security protocol is used to provide encryption for web traffic (HTTPS)?

Answer 48

TLS/SSL

Question 49

What is the secure replacement for Telnet used for the encrypted remote management of devices?

Answer 49

SSH (Secure Shell)

Question 50

Which suite of protocols is primarily used to secure communication in VPNs?

Answer 50

IPsec

Question 51

The use of a digital signature on a document primarily supports which component of the CIA triad?

Answer 51

Integrity

Question 52

Which social engineering technique involves creating a fabricated scenario to trick a victim into providing information?

Answer 52

Pretexting

Question 53

A social engineering attack where an enticing item, like a malware-infected USB drive, is left in a public place for a victim to find is called _____.

Answer 53

Baiting

Question 54

Concept: Steganography

Answer 54

Definition: The practice of hiding information within another non-secret file, such as an image, to maintain confidentiality.

Question 55

Under the principle of _____, users should only be granted the minimum permissions necessary to perform their job functions.

Answer 55

Least Privilege

Question 56

How does an Intrusion Detection System (IDS) differ from an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) regarding network traffic?

Answer 56

An IDS only monitors and alerts on suspicious traffic, while an IPS can actively block it.

Question 57

Which component of the CIA triad is compromised during a successful DDoS attack?

Answer 57

Availability

Question 58

A 'zombie' computer in the context of cybersecurity refers to a single member of a _____.

Answer 58

Botnet

Question 59

In hashing, what does a 'collision' refer to?

Answer 59

When two different inputs produce the same hash output.

Question 60

Which risk management strategy involves shifting the financial burden of a risk to a third party, such as an insurance company?

Answer 60

Risk Transference

Question 61

Acknowledging a risk but choosing to take no action because the cost of mitigation exceeds the potential impact is called _____.

Answer 61

Risk Acceptance

Question 62

Which risk management approach involves eliminating the risky activity or technology entirely?

Answer 62

Risk Avoidance

Question 63

What is the primary objective of Risk Mitigation (Reduction)?

Answer 63

To implement controls that lower the likelihood or impact of a threat exploiting a vulnerability.

Question 64

Classifying data into categories like 'Public,' 'Internal,' and 'Confidential' is a process used to determine appropriate _____.

Answer 64

Security controls and protections

Question 65

The art of using psychological manipulation to trick humans into giving up passwords is known as _____.

Answer 65

Social Engineering

Question 66

What is the major security drawback of using symmetric encryption for a large number of users?

Answer 66

Key management becomes difficult because every pair of users needs a unique shared key.

Question 67

Which state of data is generally considered the hardest to protect with encryption?

Answer 67

Data in use

Question 68

A hacker who identifies vulnerabilities with the permission of the owner to improve security is known as a _____.

Answer 68

White Hat (Ethical Hacker)

Question 69

What defines a Black Hat hacker?

Answer 69

An individual who attacks systems for illegal gain or with malicious intent.

Question 70

The practice of physical social engineering where an attacker observes a user entering a PIN or password is known as _____.

Answer 70

Shoulder Surfing

Question 71

Which social engineering tactic involves searching through trash to find discarded documents containing sensitive information?

Answer 71

Dumpster Diving

Question 72

In the context of the CIA triad, using redundant power supplies and data backups primarily supports _____.

Answer 72

Availability

Question 73

What is the core security benefit of implementing Multi-Factor Authentication?

Answer 73

It ensures that even if one factor (like a password) is stolen, the account remains protected by other factors.

Question 74

Hashing is a one-way process, meaning it is impossible to _____ the original data from the hash value.

Answer 74

Reverse (or decrypt)

Question 75

Which encryption type is commonly used for the initial secure exchange of symmetric keys over an untrusted network?

Answer 75

Asymmetric Encryption