1
Q
Why do platforms use data to personalize results to become addictive?
A
To collect user data to sell ‘advertising access’.
2
Q
What is ‘Zero-Click’ search and how does it change how we consume information?
A
Search results where the answer is displayed directly on the results page (e.g., a weather snippet), meaning the user never clicks through to the source website.
3
Q
What specific search operator restricts Google search results to files updated after January 1, 2025?
A
The operator is ‘after:2025-01-01’.
4
Q
How does the Startpage search engine protect privacy compared to Google?
A
Startpage forwards searches to Google but anonymizes them so user activity is not tracked.
5
Q
What is the definition of an ‘infodemic’?
A
It is an increase of false or misleading information during a disease outbreak.
6
Q
What is the ‘Advanced Search’ menu in a browser used for beyond simple keywords?
A
It allows for filtering results by language, region, last update time, site/domain, and where the terms appear on the page (e.g., only in the title).
7
Q
What is the specific search operator used to find results only from a specific website, such as Amazon Germany?
A
The operator is ‘site:amazon.de’.
8
Q
What is the difference between the Brave browser and standard Chrome regarding user tracking?
A
Brave does not track user activity and includes active protection against phishing and trackers by default.
9
Q
What is a ‘conversational agent’ and what are some common examples?
A
A computer system intended to converse with humans, typically via speech; examples include Siri, Alexa, and Google Assistant.
10
Q
What is the specific search operator to find a specific file type, such as a PDF, regarding a topic?
A
The operator is ‘filetype:pdf’ (e.g., ‘tax law filetype:pdf’).
11
Q
How does the DuckDuckGo search engine handle your IP address compared to traditional search engines?
A
It does not store your IP address or log user information, ensuring that searches remain anonymous and not tied to a specific user profile.
12
Q
What is an ‘AI Hallucination’?
A
A response generated by AI that contains false or misleading information presented as fact.
13
Q
Why are AI algorithms called ‘black boxes’?
A
Because we often cannot know the exact logic of why they make specific decisions.
14
Q
What is the search operator to exclude a specific word from your results?
A
Use the minus sign immediately before the word (e.g., ‘jaguar -car’).
15
Q
What is ‘Information and Data Literacy’?
A
ARTICULATE Information needs, LOCATE information (digitally), JUDGE its relevance and STORE/MANAGE/ORGANISE it.
16
Q
What is ‘open access’?
A
Nominally copyrightable publications (e.g., scientific literature) are delivered to readers free of access charges or other barriers; barriers to copying or reuse are also reduced or removed
17
Q
How is free content paid and what is the role of personalisation?
A
“advertising access” to users and collect data to do so; this also allows them to personalise results to become more useful or addictive to the user, such that they spend more time with the content, meaning better access for advertisers and charging a premium because they ‘know’ you best.
18
Q
What is personalisation?
A
Use of personal data such as location, device, regulation, past behaviour and trends to tailor marketing messages, product recommendations, and user experiences to individual preferences
19
Q
What are filter bubbles and echo chambers?
A
Filter bubbles: Users continue to see similar content due to personalisation; echo chambers: situations in social media and online discussion groups in which beliefs are amplified or re-inforced by communication and repetition inside a closed, insulated system. Participants usually receive information that reinforces their existing views without encountering opposing views
20
Q
What is an algorithm?
A
Finite sequence of well-defined instructions to solve a class of problems / perform a computation.
21
Q
What is meant by AI algorithms being ‘black boxes’?
A
We do not / cannot know why they make specific decisions.
22
Q
What are some of the most popular search engines?
A
Google, Bing, DuckDuckGo, Startpage
23
Q
Explain 5 advanced search features in Google.
A
Exact Phrases: ‘X’; language and region to a limited extent via general settings; date updated ‘after:2024-01-01’; filetype: ‘filetype:pdf’; source: ‘site:amazon.de’
24
Q
What is special about DuckDuckGo and Startpage?
A
Privacy-focused search engines: DuckDuckGo does not track searches and browsing history; Startpage does not either and forwards searches to Google
25
Name a few browsers.
Chrome, Edge, Firefox, Brave
26
What is special about the Brave Browser?
Does not track user activity and has active protection against phishing.
27
Name a few conversational agents.
Siri, Alexa, Cortana, Google Assistant
28
What is a conversational agent?
computer system intended to converse with a human, nowadays typically via speech
29
What are hyperlinks?
Clickable elements that direct to another place in the document / a webpage
30
What is information overload?
State of being overwhelmed by an excessive amount of data, which hinders decision-making, reduces productivity, and causes mental fatigue or stress
31
What is data?
Sequence of symbols – for digital data: represented in binary number system. Only has a meaning through interpretation – with interpretation can be analyzed to create knowledge or make decision
32
What are Infodemics?
Increases of false or misleading information douring a disease outbreak.
33
What does 'Open Access' mean in the context of scientific literature?
It means nominally copyrightable publications are delivered to readers free of access charges or other barriers to copying or reuse.
34
If you need to find results only from a specific website (e.g., amazon.de), what search operator should you use?
Use the 'site:' operator (e.g., 'site:amazon.de').
35
How can you search for an exact phrase in Google to reduce irrelevant results?
Put the phrase in quotation marks (e.g., 'exact phrase').
36
You are looking for a PDF report on a specific website (e.g., 'example.org') updated after a certain date. What search query would you use?
Use the query: 'search term site:example.org filetype:pdf after:2024-01-01'.
37
What is the definition of 'Browsing, Searching and Filtering Data, Information and Digital Content'?
To articulate information needs, search for data/content, access and navigate them, and create/update search strategies.
38
How does the DMA affect how Gatekeepers show their own products in search results?
It prohibits "self-preferencing," meaning a Gatekeeper cannot rank its own products or services more favorably than similar services offered by third parties on its platform.
39
How can you detect sponsored content?
Text labels like 'Ad,' 'Sponsored,' 'Promoted,' or 'Partner Content.' in search results or hashtags like #ad, #gifted, or #collab on social media, detecting overly positive tone or “af-filiate disclaimers,” where authors earn a commission
40
What hashtags commonly indicate sponsored content or marketing on social media?
Hasthags like #ad
41
What are possibilities to evaluate the trustworthiness of a source without crosschecking it?
Identifying their origins, distinguishing facts from opinion and determining truthfulness and limitations, e.g., loaded language, formulation like “I think,” “should” instead of verifiable facts, verifying if an account is recently created with few followers and very narrow content (might be a bot)
42
You encounter a social media account sharing news. What three 'red flags' might suggest it is a bot?
1) Recently created account; 2) Very few followers; 3) Extremely narrow or repetitive content.
43
What can you do to verify the credibility of an author/organisation?
Searching for the organisation / author responsible for content and their portrayal in reliable sources, obvious financial interests, checking whether their content is based on reliable sources.
44
What is 'Algorithmic Radicalization'?
The process where social media algorithms prioritize extreme content to keep users engaged, potentially pushing them toward fringe or radical viewpoints.
45
How is 'Evaluating Data, Information and Digital Content' defined?
To analyse, compare, and critically evaluate the credibility and reliability of sources and the data, information, and digital content within them.
46
What is the competence 'evaluating data, information and digital content' about?
Analysing, Comparing and critically evaluating the credibility and reliability of sources and the data, information and digital content in them.
47
What is the precise difference between misinformation and disinformation?
Misinformation is false information, whereas disinformation is false information shared with the specific intent to deceive.
48
Name some sources of bias in information.
Data algorithms, editorial choices, censorship, personal limitations.
49
What is the definition of a 'bot' in the context of online information?
A software application that runs automated tasks on the Internet, usually with the intent to imitate human activity on a large scale.
50
What biases - besides biased training data - can AI algorithms have?
They are not always targeted at the user's informational needs but might serve commercial (e.g., encouraging users to stay on a website) or political (e.g., push specific opinions) intersts.
51
What is 'triangulation' when evaluating information?
Finding the same information confirmed by multiple independent, reputable outlets with different editorial biases.
52
In the context of media literacy, what is the 'critical assessment' of media content beyond technical know-how?
It involves the ability to access and understand the role and functions of media in democratic societies, specifically distinguishing between facts and opinions and identifying editorial bias.
53
Why should users be careful about top results in search engines.
They usually will be driven by commercial interests (i.e., paid results), whereas government and non-commercial sources only feature lower in the list
54
What is the 'CRAAP' test often used for in media literacy?
A framework for evaluating information based on Currency, Relevance, Authority, Accuracy, and Purpose.
55
What is the 'Filter Bubble' phenomenon and how does it affect information evaluation?
It is a state of intellectual isolation where algorithms selectively guess what information a user would like to see based on past behavior, effectively hiding opposing viewpoints.
56
What is 'confirmation bias' and how does it undermine information literacy?
The tendency to search for, interpret, and favor information that confirms one's pre-existing beliefs, leading to an incomplete or distorted understanding of a topic.
57
What is 'Triangulation' in fact-checking?
Finding the same information confirmed by multiple independent, reputable outlets with different editorial biases.
58
How can you 'get out' of an online filter bubble?
By using 'incognito' mode, deleting history (hinder account-based and tracking-cookie based personalisation), or actively searching for contrasting arguments.
59
How can you identify if a social media account might be a 'bot'?
By verifying if the account was recently created, has very few followers, and posts very narrow, automated-looking content.
60
What is a 'Relational Database'?
A system that links several spreadsheets via IDs and foreign keys (e.g. book ID to author ID).
61
What is 'Synthetic Data' in AI training?
Data that is artificially generated by a computer program rather than collected from real-world events, used to protect privacy or train AI when real data is scarce.
62
What does 'Managing Data, Information and Digital Content' entail?
To organise, store, and retrieve data, information, and digital content, and to process them in a structured environment.
63
What is a CSV file and what are its limitations?
It is a pure text file that uses separators (like commas) to organize data. It cannot save complex formatting like charts or column divisions.
64
What is a meta search engine?
It is a search engine that does not index the web itself, but rather bundles search results from other existing search services.
65
In a spreadsheet context, when evaluating salary distributions, why is the =MEDIAN function often better than =AVERAGE?
The median finds the exact middle value, which prevents the data from being skewed by a few extremely high or low outliers.
66
What is an 'open data repository'?
A digital platform (usually by governments or organizations) that holds research output and provides free, immediate, and permanent access for anyone to use and download.
67
In SQL, what are the primary commands for retrieving, updating, and deleting data?
Retrieving: SELECT FROM; Updating: UPDATE WHERE; Deleting: DELETE FROM WHERE.
68
What is the technical difference between data and information according to the DigiComp framework?
Data consists of symbols (usually binary) that only acquire meaning through interpretation; information is the result of that interpretation which can then be used to create knowledge.
69
Name some possibilities to collect data.
Google Forms, Microsoft Forms, or SurveyMonkey. Choose the right question types, e.g., multiple-choice for quantitative data, open text for qualitative.
70
What is an 'AI System?
Software based on AI techniques and approaches (e.g., machine learning, knowledge-based approaches and statistical models). With human-defined objectives, they can generate output such as content, predictions, recommendations or decisions.
71
What are 'structured enviroments'?
Data in a fixed field within a record or file, e.g., relational databases and spreadsheets
72
What is 'web archiving' and why is it important for digital literacy?
It is the process of collecting portions of the World Wide Web to ensure the information is preserved in an archive for future researchers and historians, preventing 'link rot'.
73
What is 'Data Portability' specifically as a technical requirement?
The ability for data to be moved, copied, or transferred from one IT environment to another in a machine-readable format without hindrance.
74
What is 'Metadata' and why is it useful for organizing files?
Metadata is information about data properties (e.g., creation date, file size, author) rather than the content itself; it allows for easy sorting and searching.
75
Why is a Solid State Drive (SSD) generally preferred over a Hard Disk Drive (HDD) for a system drive?
SSDs are much faster because they have no moving parts, allowing for near-instant data access and faster boot times compared to the mechanical platters of an HDD.
76
What is 'Information Overload' and what are its psychological impacts?
A state of being overwhelmed by excessive data, which hinders decision-making, reduces productivity, and causes mental fatigue or stress.
77
What is the 'Big Four' function in spreadsheets used for the middle value?
The =AVERAGE or =MEDIAN function.
78
In SQL, which command is used to add new data to a table?
The 'INSERT INTO' command.
79
What is the role of 'Sensors' in data collection?
They convert physical input (like a touch or light) into digital data points.
80
What is the difference between 'Data' and 'Information' according to your documents?
Data is a sequence of symbols (binary); it only becomes Information through interpretation, which can then be used to create knowledge.
81
In a spreadsheet, what is the difference between the 'MEDIAN' and 'AVERAGE' functions?
AVERAGE calculates the arithmetic mean, while MEDIAN finds the middle value in a data set, which is often more accurate for skewed data like salaries.
82
What are the 'Big Four' basic statistical functions used in spreadsheets for data management?
=SUM (totals), =AVERAGE (the mean), =MEDIAN (the middle value), and =COUNT (how many entries exist).
83
What is the benefit of using 'headers' in a table for digital accessibility?
They create digital tags that allow screen readers to announce the column name and value (e.g., 'Column: Date, Value: January 1st') rather than just reading disconnected words.
84
What is the primary purpose of a Pivot Table in Excel?
To quickly summarize and analyze large datasets by grouping data and calculating totals, averages, or counts without changing the original table.
85
What is the difference between a Worksheet and a Workbook?
A Workbook is the entire Excel file while a Worksheet is a single tab or page within that file.
86
In Excel, what does the VLOOKUP function do?
It searches for a specific value in the first column of a range and returns a value in the same row from a specified column.
87
What is the purpose of the IFERROR function?
It allows you to define a custom result (like a blank cell or a specific message) if a formula results in an error preventing #N/A or #DIV/0 from appearing.
88
How do you fix a cell reference so it does not change when you drag a formula (Absolute Reference)?
By adding dollar signs before the column letter and row number (e.g. $A$1).
89
What is 'Conditional Formatting' used for?
To automatically change the color or style of cells based on specific rules such as highlighting all values over 100 in red.
90
What is a 'Slicer' in the context of Excel?
A visual filtering tool used with Pivot Tables or Tables that allows users to filter data with a single click.
91
What does the 'Flash Fill' feature do?
It automatically recognizes patterns in your data entry and fills the rest of the column for you (e.g. extracting first names from a list of full names).
92
What is the 'XLOOKUP' function and why is it often better than VLOOKUP?
It is a more powerful successor to VLOOKUP that can search in any direction (left or right) and does not require the search column to be the first one.
93
What is the difference between a Formula and a Function?
A formula is an expression created by the user (e.g. =A1+B1)
94
How can you remove duplicate rows from a dataset in Excel?
By selecting the data and using the 'Remove Duplicates' tool under the Data tab.
95
What is 'Data Validation' used for?
To restrict the type of data or the values that users can enter into a cell such as creating a dropdown list.
96
What does the 'CONCATENATE' (or CONCAT) function do?
It joins two or more text strings together into one cell.
97
What is the purpose of the 'Freeze Panes' feature?
It keeps specific rows or columns visible at the top or side while you scroll through the rest of the worksheet.
98
What is a 'Macro' in Excel?
A recording of a series of actions that can be played back to automate repetitive tasks.
99
How do you start every formula or function in an Excel cell?
With an equals sign (=).
100
What does the 'COUNTIF' function do?
It counts the number of cells within a range that meet a single specific criterion.
101
What is 'Goal Seek' used for?
It is a 'What-If' analysis tool that finds the input value needed to achieve a specific desired result in a formula.
102
What is the difference between CSV and XLSX files?
CSV is a plain-text format containing only raw data separated by commas; XLSX is an Excel format that supports formulas, formatting, and multiple sheets.
103
What is 'Power Query' used for in Excel?
To connect to, transform, and clean data from various sources before bringing it into a spreadsheet.
104
In SQL, what is the 'SELECT' statement used for?
To specify which columns of data you want to retrieve from a database.
105
What does the 'WHERE' clause do in a SQL query?
It filters the results to only include rows that meet a specific condition.
106
What is a 'Primary Key' in a database?
A unique identifier for each record in a table, ensuring that no two rows are identical.
107
What is the purpose of the 'JOIN' command in SQL?
To combine rows from two or more tables based on a related column between them.
108
What does 'ORDER BY' do in a SQL statement?
It sorts the result set in either ascending or descending order based on one or more columns.
109
How does the DMA facilitate "Data Portability" for business users?
It requires Gatekeepers to provide business users with continuous and real-time access to the data generated by their activities on the platform, allowing them to move that data to other services.
110
Which email protocol is most suitable if you need to read your emails across multiple different devices?
IMAP, because it synchronizes the emails and leaves them on the server.
111
Name some messengers and communication, for which messengers are suitable.
Whatsapp, Facebook Messenger, Telegram; useful for fast and informal communication.
112
How does the Bcc field in an email work?
Recipients entered in the Bcc (Blind Carbon Copy) field cannot see the email addresses of the people listed in the main 'To' field.
113
What is the difference between 'nudging' and a 'dark pattern/manipulation'?
Nudging subtly steers a user toward an action (like a recommended badge), whereas manipulation intentionally tricks the user (like hiding the 'reject cookies' button, infinite scroll).
114
What are the three common design techniques used to influence user behavior in digital environments?
Nudging (subtle design choices), gamification (game-like elements like streaks), and manipulation (tricking users, like hiding reject cookie buttons).
115
What are the advantages of using a cloud-based office suite for real-time collaboration?
It allows for 'co-authoring' where multiple users edit the same document simultaneously, with changes tracked in real-time and conflict resolution handled by the server.
116
What is the difference between synchronous and asynchronous digital communication?
Synchronous happens in real-time (e.g., video calls), while asynchronous involves a delay between sending and receiving (e.g., email or forum posts).
117
What are 'Nudging' and 'Gamification' in digital design?
Nudging is using subtle design to steer actions (e.g., 'recommended' buttons); Gamification uses game-like elements such as points or streaks to encourage repetitive use (e.g., Duolingo).
118
What is 'Video Conferencing Fatigue' and how can it be minimized?
Exhaustion from excessive video calls; it can be reduced by using asynchronous communication (email) or leaving buffer time between calls.
119
Why might a video call be better than an email for a sensitive conversation?
Because tone of voice and body language (non-verbal cues) are important for managing emotions.
120
What is a 'decoy good' in the context of nudging?
An option included in a design to make another choice look more attractive to the user.
121
What is 'Nudging' in the context of digital interface design?
The use of subtle design choices (like a pre-selected 'Recommended' button) to influence a user's behavior without forbidding any options.
122
If you want your emails to remain on the server while also being downloaded to your device which protocol should you use?
You must use the IMAP protocol.
123
When communicating 'one-to-many' to tell a brand story or build an audience, which digital channels are most appropriate?
Social networks and podcasts.
124
When should you choose a video conference over an email for team communication?
When the conversation is complex, sensitive, or high-emotion, as tone and body language are critical for understanding.
125
How can 'scheduled sending' in emails support the well-being of your colleagues?
It allows you to respect their 'right to disconnect' by ensuring the email arrives during their preferred working hours, even if you wrote it late at night.
126
What is the definition of 'Interacting through Digital Technologies'?
To interact through a variety of digital technologies and understand appropriate digital communication means for a given context.
127
What is the difference between SMTP and IMAP protocols for email?
SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) is used for sending emails, while IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol) is used for retrieving and syncing emails across multiple devices.
128
Why would someone use the POP3 protocol instead of IMAP?
POP3 is used when a user wants to download emails to a single local device and typically delete them from the server, which is useful for limited server storage.
129
What is the 'Out of Office' (Automatic Replies) feature in Outlook?
A tool that automatically sends a pre-written response to incoming emails to inform senders that you are away or on vacation.
130
What are 'Rules' used for in Outlook?
To automate inbox management by setting conditions that automatically move, delete, or flag incoming emails (e.g., moving all emails from a specific client to a designated folder).
131
What is the difference between a 'Read Receipt' and a 'Delivery Receipt'?
A Delivery Receipt confirms the email reached the recipient's email server; a Read Receipt notifies you when the recipient actually opens the email.
132
Why would you use the 'Delay Delivery' feature in Outlook?
To write an email now but schedule it to be sent automatically at a later date or time (e.g. to respect a colleague's working hours).
133
What does it mean to 'Flag' an email in Outlook?
It marks the email with a flag icon adding it to your To-Do list so you remember to follow up on it later.
134
What is an 'Email Signature' and how is it used?
A customized block of text (often containing your name, title, company, and contact info) that Outlook automatically appends to the bottom of your outgoing messages.
135
What is a 'Search Folder' in Outlook?
A virtual folder that does not actually move your emails, but displays all messages from across your mailbox that match specific search criteria (e.g., 'Unread Mail' or 'Mail with Attachments')
136
Why is it sometimes requested to 'Forward as Attachment' instead of just forwarding an email?
Forwarding as an attachment preserves the original email's hidden metadata (headers), which is crucial for IT departments when investigating phishing or spam.
137
What is the function of the 'Junk Email Filter' in Outlook?
It automatically evaluates incoming messages and moves suspected spam or malicious emails to the Junk folder to keep your inbox clean.
138
What does 'Archiving' an email do?
It removes the email from your primary Inbox to declutter it, but keeps the email safely stored and fully searchable in an Archive folder.
139
In an email, what is the 'BCC' field used for?
Blind Carbon Copy is used to send an email to multiple recipients while hiding their email addresses from one another to protect their privacy.
140
What are the primary responsibilities of a moderator regarding the lobby and audio in a video conference?
The moderator manages who can bypass the lobby to enter the meeting and has the authority to mute all participants or put a spotlight on a specific speaker.
141
What are the two essential protocols a moderator must follow when recording a digital session?
The moderator must announce the beginning of the recording to all participants and announce when the recording has ended.
142
What is the best practice for saving and sharing a meeting recording?
The recording should be saved in a shared location where all relevant participants have the necessary permissions to access and view it.
143
How should a briefing or report be structured for effective asynchronous communication?
Summaries should be placed at the very top of the document or message to ensure the most important information is seen immediately.
144
How can you ensure a specific person is alerted to your feedback in a group chat or shared document?
By using an @mention (e.g. @name) to trigger a direct notification for that specific individual.
145
Which tools are recommended for communicating milestones and updating task statuses in a team?
Project management tools such as Trello or Microsoft Planner are used to update and track the status of various tasks.
146
Give an example of using digital tools to maintain informal social relations in a remote workplace.
Organizing online coffee breaks, creating private Slack channels for non-work topic or integrating interactive elements into breaks.
147
What are two common signs that you are communicating with a chatbot instead of a human?
An exceptionally fast response time and language that is grammatically perfect but feels template-like or repetitive.
148
How can a user actively influence the recommendations they receive from an AI-driven video platform?
By providing feedback through ratings, likes, or tags on the content they consume.
149
Why ist the use of emojis important and why should you be careful with it?
Text without emojis can easily be perceived as unfriendly. However, their use is inadequate in professional contexts and their meaning varies wildly between cultures.
150
What is the purpose of integrating interactive elements into digital breaks during long meetings?
To develop and maintain social relations among colleagues and prevent digital fatigue during informal communication.
151
What is the main difference between NFC and Bluetooth in terms of connection speed?
NFC connects almost instantaneously (less than 0.1 seconds) without a manual pairing process, whereas Bluetooth requires a discovery and handshake process.
152
What does the DMA requirement for Interoperability mean for instant messaging apps?
It requires large messaging platforms (Gatekeepers) to make their services work with smaller messaging apps, allowing users to exchange messages across different platforms.
153
What is 'web scraping' and what privacy risk does it pose?
Accessing online content using a bot to copy data into a database; it can be used to train AI systems on personal data (like family photos) without explicit consent.
154
What are Open Educational Resources (OER)?
Teaching, learning, and research materials that are intentionally created and licensed to be free for the end user to own, share, and modify (e.g., Serlo, Mundo).
155
What is the primary difference between a 'Public' and a 'Private' share link in cloud storage?
A public link allows anyone with the URL to access the file, while a private link requires the recipient to sign in with an authorized email address.
156
What is 'Social Bookmarking' and how does it facilitate collaboration?
It is a way for users to search, manage, and share web links (bookmarks) in a public or semi-public space so others can discover relevant resources.
157
What is 'Web Scraping' and why does it raise copyright concerns?
The automated collection of data from websites; it can infringe copyright if it copies protected creative content (like photos or articles) for use in other databases.
158
What are the responsibilities of an 'Online Facilitator' during group discussions?
To act as an intermediary, structure the discussion, ensure respectful content is shared, pin essential messages, and summarize threads to prevent chaos.
159
How can you share a specific graph in a video conference without showing your entire private desktop?
By choosing to share 'only that window' instead of the whole screen.
160
What are 'Open Educational Resources' (OER), and name one example platform.
Teaching and research materials licensed to be free to own and modify; examples include Serlo and Mundo.
161
What is the role of an 'online facilitator' when a group is sharing content in a chat?
They structure the discussion by pinning essential messages, summarising key points, and using 'threads' to prevent information chaos.
162
How is 'Sharing through Digital Technologies' defined?
To share data, information, and digital content through appropriate technology, acting as an intermediary and knowing about referencing and attribution practices.
163
How do cloud services like Google Photos or OneDrive facilitate content management across multiple devices?
They automatically save pictures and files to the cloud allowing them to be accessed and shared seamlessly from any connected device.
164
What is the technical difference between transferring files via Bluetooth versus AirDrop or Quick Share and AirDrop?
Bluetooth uses a direct radio connection while Quick Share and AirDrop typically use a combination of Bluetooth for discovery and local Wi-Fi for faster data transfer.
165
In a video conference, why is it often better to share a specific Window instead of your Whole Screen?
Sharing only a window protects your privacy by hiding your desktop, other open programs, and incoming notifications from participants.
166
When is it appropriate to share your Entire Screen during a real-time online session?
When you need to demonstrate a workflow that involves switching between multiple different programs or applications.
167
What are the three common permission levels you can assign when sharing a collaborative text document?
Read (view only), Comment (suggest changes), and Edit (full modification rights).
168
Why is it important to select and restrict audience settings on social media platforms?
To ensure that personal content is only visible to intended groups, such as friends or family, rather than the general public
169
What does it mean to Curate content to create value?
It involves selecting, organizing, and sharing content (like playlists) while adding personal insights or comments to make it more useful for others.
170
How does adding a personal insight or comment to a shared link create value for a digital community?
It provides context and expert perspective, helping others understand why the information is relevant or how it should be applied.
171
What three pieces of information should be included when acknowledging an original source or author?
The author's name, the title of the work, and a direct link to the original source.
172
Besides giving credit to the author, what else must you account for when sharing someone else's content?
You must account for the specific license (such as Creative Commons) to ensure you have the legal right to share that specific content.
173
How do you technically report a post containing misinformation on most social media platforms?
By clicking the three dots menu on the post and selecting the Report option to alert the platform to the false content.
174
Name one European organization dedicated to checking facts and monitoring digital media for disinformation.
The European Digital Media Observatory (EDMO) or the European Fact-Checking Standards Network (EFCSN).
175
What is the International Fact-Checking Network (IFCN) and how can it be used by a citizen?
It is a global organization that verifies the quality of fact-checkers; citizens can use it to find reputable lists of facts that have already been verified.
176
Give an example of content curation on a music or video platform.
Creating and sharing a themed playlist where the selection and order of items provide a specific experience for the listener.
177
What is the main benefit of using local Wi-Fi based tools like AirDrop for file transfers?
They allow for much higher transfer speeds than standard Bluetooth, making them ideal for sending large video files or high-resolution photos.
178
How can you restrict a work document so that only your immediate team can see it?
By inviting only specific email addresses to the document or setting the link access to Restricted to my organization.
179
Why is a direct link considered a crucial part of proper digital attribution?
It allows the audience to verify the information and easily access the original creator's full context and other works.
180
What is the primary goal of flagging disinformation to a social media platform?
To stop the spread of false information by triggering the platform's moderation systems or reducing the visibility of the post.
181
How does sharing a specific graph window during a presentation support your message better than sharing the whole screen?
It eliminates visual clutter and ensures the audience stays focused on the specific data point you are discussing.
182
What is a common risk of relying solely on automatic cloud syncing for all your photos?
If the account is hacked or the password is lost, you may lose access to all your stored content if you do not have a secondary physical backup.
183
What is the primary function of WeTransfer and how does it handle large files?
WeTransfer is a cloud-based service that allows users to upload large files to a server and then provides a download link for recipients; in the free version, files are typically deleted after 7 days.
184
How do Quick Share and AirDrop determine the best method for transferring data between devices?
Quick Share and AirDrop uses Bluetooth for initial device discovery and then automatically selects the fastest available protocol for the actual transfer, such as Wi-Fi Direct, local Wi-Fi or Bluetooth.
185
What is the main functional advantage of Bluetooth Low Energy (BLE) compared to Classic Bluetooth?
BLE is designed for significantly lower power consumption by remaining in a sleep mode until a connection is initiated
186
In what type of devices is Bluetooth Low Energy (BLE) most commonly used and why?
It is used in IoT devices, fitness trackers, and smartwatches because these devices need to maintain a continuous or frequent connection while using very little battery power.
187
What is a potential privacy risk when using Quick Share and AirDrop or AirDrop in public places?
If visibility settings are set to Everyone, a user might receive unsolicited files or reveal their device name to strangers in the immediate physical vicinity.
188
Does Bluetooth Low Energy (BLE) provide the same data transfer speeds as Classic Bluetooth?
No, BLE has a lower data transfer rate than Classic Bluetooth because it is optimized for sending small bursts of data rather than continuous high-bandwidth streams like audio.
189
Why is WeTransfer often used as an alternative to email attachments?
Email providers often have strict file size limits (e.g., 25 MB), whereas WeTransfer allows for the sending of much larger files (e.g., up to 2GB in the free version) via a link.
190
What is a Bluetooth Beacon and how does it utilize BLE technology?
A beacon is a small transmitter that uses BLE to broadcast its location or specific data to nearby smartphones, often used for indoor navigation or proximity marketing.
191
What is required for Quick Share and AirDrop to work between two devices?
Both devices must have Bluetooth and Location services turned on and usually need to be within close physical range (about 10 meters) of each other.
192
What is the role of the GATT (Generic Attribute Profile) in Bluetooth Low Energy?
GATT defines the hierarchical data structure used by BLE devices to communicate, allowing them to exchange short pieces of data known as characteristics.
193
How does eIDAS 2.0 (the EU Digital Identity Wallet) protect your privacy during an 'age check' (e.g., at a bar)?
It allows for 'selective disclosure,' meaning you can provide a digital confirmation that you are 'over 18' without having to show your full name, address, or exact birth date.
194
What is the Digital Markets Act (DMA) and its concept of 'Gatekeepers'?
An EU law that prevents large tech companies (Gatekeepers) from favoring their own services over competitors, ensuring a fairer digital market.
195
What does it mean to 'Engage in Citizenship through Digital Technologies'?
To participate in society through public and private digital services and seek opportunities for self-empowerment and participatory citizenship.
196
How many signatures are required for a European Citizens' Initiative to compel the EU commission to consider a proposal?
1 Million signatures.
197
What does a Certificate Authority (CA) actually verify when you install a digital certificate?
It verifies that you are the owner of a specific public key.
198
What is 'Selective Disclosure' in the context of the eIDAS 2.0 European Digital Identity Wallet?
It is the ability to share only specific attributes of your identity (e.g., proving you are over 18) without revealing other private data like your full name or home address.
199
What does 'e-Participation' refer to in a civic context?
The use of digital tools to engage in democratic processes, such as participating in online public consultations or signing a European Citizens' Initiative.
200
In the context of 'e-Government,' what is the 'Once-Only Principle'?
A policy where citizens and businesses only have to provide certain standard information to the authorities once, which is then shared internally between departments.
201
Under eIDAS 2.0, what is a 'Qualified Electronic Attestation of Attributes'?
A digital credential (like a diploma or driver's license) issued by a verified body that has the same legal standing as a physical document.
202
In the context of eIDAS 1.0, what was the primary goal for digital IDs?
To establish digital IDs that are recognized across all EU member states, making electronic signatures legally equivalent to handwritten ones.
203
What new storage requirement does eIDAS 2.0 place on EU Member States?
Each member state must create a secure 'e-wallet' to store IDs, driving licenses, diplomas, and bank details for selective sharing.
204
What does the 'Right of Human Intervention' mean in the EU?
The right to ask a human to review a significant decision made about you by an AI.
205
What is 'eIDAS'?
An EU regulation on electronic identification and trust services for safe online transactions.
206
Give an example of a 'Community-based' digital service versus a 'Private' digital service.
Wikipedia and Open Street Map or Sensor Community are community-based services; e-commerce and online banking are private digital services.
207
What is the primary goal of the EU's Digital Markets Act (DMA)?
To ensure higher levels of competition in European digital markets by preventing large companies from abusing their market power and allowing new players to enter.
208
In the context of the DMA, what is a Gatekeeper?
A large digital platform that provides a core service (like search engines, app stores, or messenger services) and acts as a significant bottleneck between business users and consumers.
209
What can happen to a Gatekeeper that repeatedly violates the rules of the Digital Markets Act?
The EU can impose massive fines of up to 10% of the company’s total worldwide annual turnover, increasing to 20% for repeated infringements.
210
How does the DMA aim to benefit small and medium-sized enterprises (SMEs)?
By creating a fairer business environment where SMEs are not unfairly squeezed out by the terms and conditions or data advantages of dominant platform owners.
211
What can a customer do if an AI system automatically rejects their bank loan application?
They have the legal right to contest the decision and ask for a human representative to review the case and explain the logic behind the refusal.
212
Name an (un)controversial use of AI.
Optimising energy grids vs. grading, CV-sorting, predicting risk of repeated criminal behavior.
213
Does AI have an inherent moral value (good or bad)?
No, AI is a neutral tool; its impact on society depends entirely on who designs it, the data used to train it, and the purposes for which it is deployed.
214
What is the European Citizens’ Initiative (ECI)?
A digital tool that allows EU citizens to propose new laws by collecting signatures; if it reaches a specific threshold, the EU Commission is legally required to consider the proposal.
215
How many signatures are required for a European Citizens’ Initiative to be considered by the EU Commission?
One million signatures from citizens across at least seven different EU member states.
216
What is the primary difference between a platform like change.org and the European Citizens’ Initiative?
Change.org is a private platform primarily for raising awareness through petitions, while the ECI is an official legal mechanism that can trigger actual legislative action by the EU.
217
Why is transparency important in fully automated decision-making?
Transparency allows citizens to understand how a decision was reached, which is necessary to ensure fairness and to exercise their right to challenge that decision.
218
How can digital participation platforms help reach global sustainability goals?
They provide a space for citizens to organize, petition governments, and propose sustainable policies on a scale that can influence global developments.
219
What is the risk of using AI in "high-stakes" scenarios like predicting criminal behavior or sorting job applications?
The risk is that the AI may reinforce existing social biases or make life-changing errors without the nuance and empathy of a human evaluator.
220
How can AI assist in disaster management and environmental safety?
By processing vast amounts of satellite data to predict extreme weather patterns or identify areas at high risk of forest fires or floods.
221
What role do "designers" play in the ethical impact of an AI system?
Designers choose the goals of the AI and the datasets it learns from; if they do not account for diversity or fairness, the AI will likely produce biased results.
222
Under the GDPR, what must a company provide if they use automated processing to make decisions about a person?
They must provide meaningful information about the logic involved and the significance and intended consequences of such processing for the individual.
223
In the context of digital citizenship, what does "empowerment" mean?
The ability for citizens to use digital tools to influence political processes, advocate for change, and participate in the democratic life of their society.
224
Why is the "purpose" of an AI application a key factor in its ethical evaluation?
Because a tool designed for surveillance and control is viewed differently than a tool designed for medical diagnosis or environmental monitoring.
225
How does the European Citizens' Initiative support the idea of a "digital public sphere"?
By providing a formal, cross-border digital channel where citizens can debate and bring issues of common European interest to the attention of lawmakers.
226
What is the specific concern regarding AI and "biometric identification" in public spaces?
The potential for mass surveillance and the loss of anonymity, which can have a chilling effect on the freedom of assembly and expression.
227
How can a citizen provide feedback to an AI system to make it "better" or more relevant?
By actively rating content, tagging information, or reporting errors, which helps the system refine its recommendations and accuracy over time.
228
How do online platforms for social activism contribute to "Civic Competence"?
They allow users to learn how to access, process, and interact with information to participate responsibly in civic and social life.
229
What is a digital Kanban board?
It is a visual management tool used to track and visualize tasks.
230
What is 'Version Control' in collaborative document editing?
A system that records changes to a file or set of files over time so that you can recall specific versions later and see who made which changes.
231
What is a 'Cloud-native' application?
A program designed specifically to take advantage of cloud computing architectures, often meaning it is highly scalable and accessible entirely via a web browser.
232
What is an 'Open Educational Resource' (OER)?
Teaching and research materials (e.g. Serlo or Mundo) created and licensed to be free for the end user to own.
233
What is 'Version Control' (e.g., Git) and why is it essential for digital collaboration?
A system that records changes to a file or set of files over time so that you can recall specific versions later and multiple people can work on the same project without overwriting each other.
234
What is the definition of 'Collaborating through Digital Technologies'?
To use digital technologies for collaborative processes and for the co-construction and co-creation of data, resources, and knowledge.
235
How does a NAS facilitate team collaboration in a small office?
It provides a centralized 'file server' where multiple users can access, edit, and sync the same project files simultaneously without needing to email copies back and forth.
236
What is the main challenge of using an NTFS-formatted drive on a Mac computer?
By default, macOS can read files from an NTFS drive but cannot write or save new data to it without third-party software.
237
What is 'Track Changes' in MS Word?
A review tool that marks all additions, deletions, and formatting changes made by users so they can be reviewed and accepted or rejected later.
238
How can you leave feedback on a specific sentence in Word without modifying the text itself?
By selecting the text and inserting a 'Comment' (Ctrl + Alt + M).
239
In the Outlook Calendar, what is the 'Scheduling Assistant' used for?
It allows you to view the free/busy times of your colleagues and available meeting rooms to find a time that works for everyone before sending an invite.
240
How do you set up a meeting that happens every Monday at the same time?
By creating a new meeting and clicking 'Recurrence' to set the pattern to weekly on Mondays.
241
What is the difference between an 'Appointment' and a 'Meeting' in Outlook?
An Appointment is an event just for you (no invitations sent); a Meeting includes other people who are sent email invitations.
242
What does it mean to 'Share' your Outlook Calendar?
It grants specific colleagues permission to view your calendar details so they can see when you are busy, out of the office, or available.
243
What is the purpose of marking a Calendar event as 'Private'?
It hides the specific details (subject, location, description) of the event from anyone who has access to view your shared calendar, displaying only that you are 'Busy'.
244
What is the definition of hate speech?
Public speech that expresses hate or encourages violence towards a person or group based on something such as race, religion, sex, or sexual orientation.
245
Why is 'Bcc' (Blind Carbon Copy) considered a tool for privacy and netiquette?
It prevents a long list of email addresses from being visible to all recipients, protecting their privacy and preventing 'Reply All' spam chains.
246
In an email, why might you use the 'Cc' field instead of just putting everyone in the 'To' field?
'Cc' (Carbon Copy) is used to keep people 'in the loop' for informational purposes, indicating they are not the primary recipients expected to take action.
247
What is 'Flaming' in digital communication?
The act of posting or sending offensive, hostile, or insulting messages over the internet.
248
Why should one be cautious about using emojis or non-verbal messages in international professional contexts?
Because their meaning differs significantly between different countries and communities.
249
How can you distinguish between 'attacking an idea' and 'hate speech' in an online debate?
Hate speech typically involves the dehumanisation of a 'protected' group (based on race, religion, sex, etc.) and attacks the people themselves rather than their arguments.
250
How is 'Netiquette' defined in the framework?
To be aware of behavioural norms and know-how while using digital technologies and interacting in digital environments.
251
What is the 'Right to be Forgotten' under EU law?
It is the right to ask a website or search engine operator to completely erase your personal data if there is no longer a legal reason to keep it.
252
What is a 'Social Login' and what is its primary privacy trade-off?
It allows users to sign into third-party websites using existing social media credentials (e.g., 'Log in with Facebook'). The trade-off is that the social platform can track your activity across those sites.
253
What is 'Multi-Factor Authentication' (MFA) and why is it superior to a password alone?
It requires two or more pieces of evidence (e.g., password + SMS code) to verify identity, meaning an attacker cannot gain access with a stolen password alone.
254
What is a 'Two-Factor Authentication' (2FA)?
A security process requiring two different forms of identification to access an account (e.g., password + SMS code).
255
What is the 'Online Disinhibition Effect'?
A phenomenon where people feel less restrained and act more impulsively or aggressively online than they would in person.
256
When conducting a personal digital footprint check, what specific technique can be used to find unauthorized use of your photos?
Reverse image searching your profile pictures.
257
What is the purpose of the website 'HaveIBeenPwned'?
It is used to check whether your online accounts have been part of data breaches.
258
What is a practical way to inspect your own 'digital footprint' to see what images of you are public?
Conduct a 'reverse image search' using your own profile pictures to see where else they appear on the web.
259
What is the definition of 'Managing Digital Identity'?
To create, adapt, and manage one or multiple digital identities, to be able to protect one's own reputation, and to deal with the data that one generates.
260
What are the two components of the digital identity?
(1) The technical method of authenticating a user (e.g., login data) and (2) the set of data identifying a user through their digital activities, personal data, and context (e.g., user profile).
261
What is a major security risk of using only one email address for all online accounts?
It creates a single point of failure; if that one email is compromised, an attacker can use the password reset feature to gain access to every linked personal and professional account.
262
What is a primary privacy risk of using Social Log-ins (e.g., Log in with Facebook/Google)?
It allows the social media platform to track your activity across different websites and share your personal profile data with those third-party services.
263
How do AI systems use personal and behavioral data?
They process user data to create profiles that predict user preferences, which are then used to serve targeted advertisements, recommendations, and services.
264
What are the three specific rights included in the EU's Right to be Forgotten framework?
The right to access held data, the right to rectify or update incorrect data, and the right to erasure (removal) of data.
265
What is the difference between Necessary and Tracking cookies?
Necessary cookies are functional and required for features like shopping carts or login sessions; tracking cookies follow you across different websites to build a marketing profile.
266
What is the difference between a Session cookie and a Persistent cookie?
A session cookie is deleted as soon as the browser is closed, while a persistent cookie remains on the device for a set period to remember preferences or logins.
267
What is 'Browser Fingerprinting'?
The collection of specific hardware and software information (like screen resolution, battery level, and installed fonts) to uniquely identify an individual device even without cookies.
268
Why might a user choose a privacy-oriented browser like Brave?
To automatically block phishing attempts, cross-site trackers, and browser fingerprinting without needing extra plugins.
269
Why is it recommended to maintain separate email addresses for personal and professional purposes?
To prevent the merging of different digital identities, improve organization, and limit the amount of personal data exposed if one account is breached.
270
What two security measures are essential for managing high-value digital profiles?
Using strong, unique passwords for every service and enabling Two-Factor Authentication (2FA).
271
How can a user build a 'positive' online identity according to the framework?
By adopting healthy, safe, and ethical behaviors, such as avoiding the promotion of stereotypes and harmful consumerism.
272
What is the purpose of conducting a reverse image search on your own profile picture?
To see where else that image appears online and detect if someone else is using your photo to create a fake or 'troubling' digital footprint.
273
What is 'EXIF data' in the context of digital photos?
Metadata embedded in a picture file that can include sensitive information such as the exact GPS location and the time the photo was taken.
274
How can you verify if one of your digital accounts has been compromised in a known data breach?
By using services like HaveIBeenPwned to check if your email address or phone number appears in leaked datasets.
275
Why is it important to delete unused or old online accounts?
To reduce your 'attack surface' and ensure that your old data is no longer being collected or stored by services you no longer trust or use.
276
How can a user control what data a specific smartphone app can access?
By modifying the user configuration in the phone's privacy settings to grant or deny access to the microphone, camera, and location.
277
What does 'opting out of personalized ads' actually do?
It prevents ad networks from using your specific user profile to target you, resulting in ads that are more general rather than based on your browsing history.
278
What is a 'First-party cookie'?
A cookie set directly by the website the user is currently visiting, usually to remember site-specific settings or items in a cart.
279
What is the benefit of a 'Custom Consent' cookie banner?
It allows the user to selectively enable necessary or functional cookies while blocking analytical or marketing cookies.
280
What are 'Cookies'?
Files that a websites stores locally on the device.
281
What types of 'Cookies' when it comes to website functionality are there?
(1) Necessary/functional cookies that are necessary for the site to work, e.g. remembering log-in, security settings, shopping cart (2) Analytical/performance: anonymised tracking of site use (3) targeting/marketing/tracking that follow you across websites to improve personalisatoin.
282
How can users limit/moderate the analysis of data through AI?
Opting out of personalised ads, blocking the phone from tracking location.
283
What does the term 'digital accessibility' encompass?
It means making the internet, digital tools, and content fully accessible to people with disabilities.
284
What is the difference between Vector (SVG) and Raster (JPG) images?
Vector images use math to scale infinitely without losing quality, while Raster images use pixels and become blurry when enlarged.
285
What are the four foundational principles of the WCAG 2.1 accessibility standard? Explain each of them.
POUR: Perceivable (ALT text for images, captions and transcripts for video and audio, high contrast), Operable (all website functionality accessible via keyboard, giving users enough time to read and in-teract, avoiding flashes of more than three times a second, clear navigation markers), Understandable (clear, readable language, consistent menus, providing input assistance), and Robust (accessible to a variety of user agents, e.g., those using screen readers -> clean HTML code).
286
What is the EU legal requirement rating for WCAG 2.1 accessibility?
The legal requirement in the EU is the AA rating.
287
What are the specific requirements of EN 301 549 beyond WCAG 2.1?
Applying the same principles to non-web documents and software; putting requirements on hardware (e.g., ATM, ticketing machine), which require tactile cues, no tight grasping or twisting, accessible height and reach dimensions; if users cannot install assistive tech, the technology itself must ensure that it can be used “without/with limited vision”, “without hearing” or “with limited vocal capability”; biometric use requires alternatives that are open to disabled and two-way voice communication must be compatible with hearing aids and real-time text services.
288
What is the EN 301 549 standard?
It is the EU accessibility standard that extends WCAG 2.1 beyond the internet to non-web documents, software, and hardware (like ATMs).
289
In the WCAG 2.1 guidelines, what does the principle 'Robust' specifically require?
Content must be robust enough that it can be interpreted reliably by a wide variety of user agents, including assistive technologies like screen readers and older browsers.
290
What is 'Semantic HTML' and why does it matter for accessibility?
Using HTML tags (like ,
291
What is 'Responsive Design' in the context of digital content?
A design approach where content automatically adjusts its layout and scale to provide an optimal viewing experience across different devices (desktop, tablet, mobile).
292
What characterizes a 'Makerspace'?
An open learning environment with access to expensive hardware like 3D printers and laser cutters for digital fabrication.
293
What is 'Internet of Things' (IoT)?
Physical objects with sensors and software that connect and exchange data with other devices over the internet.
294
Which standard format is best for 'locking' a document's appearance for printing?
The PDF (Portable Document Format).
295
What is a 'Makerspace'?
A collaborative workspace where people gather to create and invent, often using high-tech tools like 3D printers and laser cutters.
296
What is 'Digital Fabrication' and where is it typically practiced?
The process of using computer-controlled tools (like 3D printers) to create physical objects; it is typically practiced in 'Makerspaces'.
297
What is the precise difference between Virtual Reality (VR) and Augmented Reality (AR)?
VR provides an immersive simulated world via a head-mounted display, whereas AR overlays 3D-rendered computer graphics into the real physical world through a display.
298
What is the standard accessibility guideline for the web?
The WCAG 2.1 (Web Content Accessibility Guidelines) and EN 301 549.
299
When should you use a .pdf format instead of a .docx or .pptx format?
Use .pdf when you want a non-modifiable, printer-friendly 'locked' version; use .docx/.pptx for work-in-progress that requires editing.
300
What is 'PDF Remediation'?
The process of fixing a PDF's structure (adding tags, alt-text, and reading order) so it becomes fully accessible to screen readers for people with disabilities.
301
What does 'Developing Digital Content' involve?
To create and edit digital content in different formats, and to express oneself through digital means.
302
What is the purpose of the 'Show/Hide Paragraph Marks' (the Pilcrow symbol ¶) in Word?
It reveals hidden formatting characters like spaces, tabs, paragraph breaks, and page breaks to help fix layout issues.
303
What is 'Mail Merge' used for in MS Word?
To automatically generate personalized letters, envelopes, or emails in bulk by linking a standard Word document to a data source (like an Excel list of names and addresses).
304
How does Word automatically generate a 'Table of Contents'?
By pulling text that has been formatted using the built-in 'Heading' styles (Heading 1, Heading 2, etc.).
305
What is the difference between the 'Header' and the 'Footer' in a document?
The Header is the space at the top margin of every page, and the Footer is at the bottom margin; both are used for repeating information like document titles or page numbers.
306
What does the 'Watermark' feature do in Word?
It places a faint, ghosted text or image behind the main document text (e.g., 'Draft' or 'Confidential').
307
What is the difference between 'Portrait' and 'Landscape' page orientation?
Portrait is vertical (taller than it is wide), while Landscape is horizontal (wider than it is tall).
308
In Word, what is the 'Format Painter' used for?
To quickly copy the formatting (font, color, size, alignment) from one piece of text and apply it to another.
309
What does the 'AutoCorrect' feature do?
It automatically fixes common typos, misspellings, and capitalization errors as you type.
310
How do you adjust the empty space around the edges of a Word document?
By modifying the 'Margins' in the Page Layout settings.
311
What is the difference between a bulleted list and a numbered list?
A bulleted list is used for unordered items where sequence doesn't matter; a numbered list is used for sequential steps or ranked items.
312
How do you quickly select an entire paragraph in Word using just the mouse?
By triple-clicking anywhere inside the paragraph.
313
What is the 'Quick Access Toolbar' in MS Office applications?
The small customizable row of icons at the very top left of the window (usually containing Save, Undo, and Redo) that provides one-click access to your most used commands.
314
What does the 'Format' -> 'Clear All Formatting' button do in Word?
It strips away all bolding, colors, and font sizes from the selected text, returning it to the default plain text style.
315
What are Programmers referring to when they use the term 'API'?
An Application Programming Interface, which is a programming interface for system integration.
316
What is 'Remixing' in the context of digital content creation?
Taking existing digital materials (images, music, text) and combining or modifying them to create something entirely new.
317
What is the definition of 'Integrating and Re-elaborating Digital Content'?
To modify, refine, and integrate new information and content into an existing body of knowledge and resources to create new, original, and relevant content.
318
What hardware would you choose for a simple classroom project to count steps or turn on an LED based on light levels?
The Micro:bit, as it is a teaching tool specifically designed for programming simple physical actions.
319
What is the difference between the 'Deep Web' and the 'Dark Web'?
The Deep Web is simply unindexed content (like your private bank portal); the Dark Web is a hidden part of the internet requiring specific software (like Tor) to access.
320
What is 'Arduino' used for?
A tool to control physical components (like motors or lights) via C programming.
321
Name two browser extensions or tools used to test the digital accessibility of web content.
WAVE, AxeDev Tools, or screen reader simulators such as NVDA or ChromeVox.
322
What is the difference between Micro:bit and Raspberry Pi?
Micro:bit is a teaching tool for programming simple actions (like turning on an LED) whereas Raspberry Pi is a fully functional computer.
323
What is 'ROS' in the context of hardware?
It is the standard programming language for complex robotics.
324
Which tool is best for programming physical components via 'C' language?
The Arduino is used to control physical components via the C language.
325
How can you check the digital accessibility of a MS Office document?
With Mircosoft's integrated accessibility checker.
326
What are a few possibilites to add subtitles to a video?
Adobe Express, Instagram's / Youtube's 'internal' features.
327
What type of software is used to design objects for 3D printing in a 'Makerspace'?
CAD software, such as AutoCAD, Tinkercad, or Fusion 360.
328
How long does copyright protection last in the EU?
It lasts for 70 years after the death of the author.
329
In Creative Commons licensing, what does the 'SA' modifier require?
'Share Alike' means if you remix or build upon the material, you must distribute your contributions under the exact same license as the original.
330
What is the duration of a design protection (upon registration) compared to a patent?
Design protection lasts up to 25 years, while a patent lasts 20 years from filing.
331
What is the difference between the Creative Commons modifiers 'ND' and 'SA'?
'ND' (No Derivatives) prohibits the sharing of adaptations or remixes of the work, while 'SA' (Share Alike) allows adaptations only if they are licensed under the same terms as the original.
332
What is the 'Public Domain' and how does the CC0 license relate to it?
The Public Domain consists of creative works with no exclusive intellectual property rights. The CC0 license is a tool for creators to waive all copyright interests, effectively placing their work in the public domain.
333
What does the 'BY' modifier in a Creative Commons license require of the user?
It requires the user to give appropriate credit (attribution) to the original creator of the work.
334
Does copyright protection require a formal registration process in the EU?
No, copyright protection is granted automatically from the moment a work is created in a tangible form.
335
What is the 'Fair Use' or 'Fair Dealing' doctrine?
A legal framework that allows limited use of copyrighted material without permission for purposes such as criticism, news reporting, teaching, or research.
336
What do the CC BY-SA license terms require?
BY requires attribution to the author; SA (Share Alike) requires any modified version to be shared under the same license.
337
Which collective management organization handles rights for Visual Art and Photography?
Bild-KUNST (or similar national bodies like ADAGP/DACS).
338
What does 'CC0' stand for?
Creative Commons Zero, which means the author is giving up their copyright and placing the work in the public domain.
339
What is the legal difference between a 'Copyright' and a 'License'?
Copyright is the ownership of the work; a License is the specific permission granted by the owner to someone else to use that work.
340
What is the difference between a Trademark and a Patent?
A trademark protects brand identity (names, logos, sounds) and can be prolonged indefinitely; a patent protects technical solutions and processes for up to 20 years from filing.
341
What does the Creative Commons 'NC' modifier require?
It stands for 'Non-Commercial' meaning the work can only be used for non-commercial purposes.
342
What does the Creative Commons 'ND' modifier mean?
It stands for 'No Derivatives' meaning no editing or remixing of the original work is allowed.
343
What does the Creative Commons 'BY' modifier require?
It requires that you must attribute the original author.
344
What does the 'CC0' designation mean?
It means the author is giving up their copyright entirely placing the work in the public domain.
345
How long are 'Designs' protected under Intellectual Property rights?
Designs of products can be protected for up to 25 years upon registration.
346
What protects designs?
Design protection.
347
How long are trademarks protected?
Can be prolonged indefinitely
348
Which form of intellectual property protexts brand identity?
Trademark.
349
Which form of intellectual property protexts text, music, photos, software code, videos and art?
Copyright.
350
How long are 'Patents' protected?
Patents protect technical solutions and processes for 20 years from filing.
351
What is the purpose of collective management organizations like GEMA, SACEM or PRS?
They manage the rights and collective licensing schemes for music
352
Which collective management organizations handle rights for text?
Organizations such as VG Wort, SACD, and CLA-UK.
353
What is 'CISAC'?
The International Confederation of Societies of Authors and Composers which can be used to find relevant collective management organizations.
354
What does DRM stand for and what is its purpose?
Digital Rights Management; it prevents unauthorized copying, printing, or playing of digital media on multiple devices.
355
How is 'Copyright and Licenses' defined?
To understand how copyright and licenses apply to data, information, and digital content.
356
Under the DMA, what choice must a Gatekeeper give users regarding software and app stores?
Gatekeepers must allow users to easily uninstall pre-installed apps and must permit the use of third-party app stores or "sideloading" of software.
357
What are 'Scratch', 'Blocky', 'Zapier' and 'IFTTT' examples of?
Visual programming tools.
358
What are the four logical building blocks of programming languages?
Sequence of executing code, repetition (loops), selection (if-then conditions), and functions.
359
What is the role of 'Selection' (Conditional logic) in an algorithm?
Selection allows the program to follow different paths or make decisions based on whether a certain condition is met (e.g., 'If password is correct, then grant access').
360
What is a 'Loop' in programming?
A sequence of instructions that is continually repeated until a certain condition is reached.
361
What is the 'Sequence' building block in an algorithm?
It is the specific order in which instructions are executed, where each action follows the previous one in a linear progression.
362
What is the difference between a 'Compiler' and an 'Interpreter'?
A compiler translates the entire program into machine code before execution, while an interpreter translates and executes the code line-by-line during runtime.
363
What is an 'IDE' (Integrated Development Environment)?
A software application that provides comprehensive facilities to computer programmers for software development, typically including a code editor, compiler/interpreter, and debugger.
364
What is a 'Data Leakage' error in a computer program?
A misconfiguration where a program exposes private or sensitive information to unauthorized users.
365
What are the four logical building blocks of programming?
Sequence, Repetition (loops), Selection (if-then), and Functions.
366
What is the difference between a 'faulty behavior' and a 'malfunction' in software?
Faulty behavior produces wrong output without crashing; a malfunction 'crashes' the hardware because the task cannot be completed.
367
In programming, what is the 'Selection' (or Conditional) building block?
A path in an algorithm where a decision is made, usually using 'If-Then-Else' logic to determine which code to run next.
368
What is an 'Arduino' and what is its primary use?
An open-source electronics platform based on easy-to-use hardware and software, used to build interactive projects like robots or sensors.
369
Why do computer programs inherently have 'physical costs'?
Because programs require hardware resources, specifically RAM (memory) and CPU computing time, to compute their output depending on the input size.
370
What is 'Prompt Engineering' and why is it considered a digital skill?
The ability to refine and structure inputs (prompts) to AI models to get the most accurate, safe, and useful outputs.
371
What is the purpose of algorithms? Can they solve any problem?
To solve real-world problems: Inputs are information that is known about the problem, the output provides information that is relevant to their solution. While there are problems that can be solved with many algorithms, others cannot be (exactly) solved in reasonable time (e.g., DNA sequencing, weather forecasting).
372
What is the role of programming languages?
To instruct hardware how to transform input into output data.
373
What is the definition of 'Programming' in DigComp?
To plan and develop a sequence of understandable instructions for a computing system to solve a given problem or perform a specific task.
374
What is a sandbox in software testing?
It is an isolated test environment where programs can be run securely without affecting the rest of the computer.
375
What is the difference between Smishing and Vishing?
Both are forms of phishing, but Smishing is conducted via SMS/Text messages, while Vishing is conducted via Voice/Phone calls.
376
What is DNS spoofing?
A cyber attack where a hacker redirects your web traffic to their own fraudulent site by altering the Domain Name System records.
377
What is the difference between Bitlocker and HTTPS in terms of encryption?
Bitlocker provides Full Disk Encryption for a hard drive, while HTTPS encrypts network traffic between a browser and a server.
378
Why is it important to scan a '.exe' file with an antivirus before opening it, even if you know the sender?
Because '.exe' files are executable programs that can modify system settings or install malware; the sender's own account might have been compromised to spread the file.
379
What is 'Two-Factor Authentication' (2FA) and name two common methods of implementation.
A security process where users provide two different authentication factors; common methods include SMS codes and Authenticator apps (TOTP) or even physical USB keys.
380
Name three reputable Certificate Authorities (CAs).
GlobalSign, IdenTrust, and DigiCert.
381
What is 'Phishing' and what is the goal of the attacker?
A fraudulent attempt to obtain sensitive information (passwords, credit card details) by disguising as a trustworthy entity in an electronic communication.
382
What is the DigComp definition of 'protecting devices'?
To protect devices and digital content, and to understand risks and threats in digital environments. To know about safety and security measures and to have a due regard to reliability and privacy.
383
Can a MAC address be used to track a device's physical movements?
Yes, if a device has Wi-Fi enabled, it constantly broadcasts its MAC address to find networks, which can be logged by sensors to track location or foot traffic.
384
What is a 'Certificate Authority' (CA)?
An entity that issues digital certificates to verify the ownership of a public key.
385
What is a 'Public Key' in the context of digital certificates?
A cryptographic key that can be shared with everyone, used to encrypt data that can only be decrypted by the matching 'Private Key'.
386
What are the main types of 'malware'?
Viruses, worms, trojans, ransomware, spyware and keyloggers.
387
Name three types of security risks in digital environments.
Identity theft (e.g., someone committing fraud or other crimes using someone else’s personal data), scams (e.g., financial scams where victims are tricked into sending money) and malware attacks (e.g., ransomware).
388
What does antivirus/antimalware software do?
It scans files for known signatures of malware.
389
What is a security breach and how should you react if you are subject to one as a user?
An incident that results in unauthorized access to data, apps, networks or devices or the leaking of personal data such as logins or passwords. Change the password (also for services using the same password), notify your bank etc., if financial or personal data was leaked, log out of all devices and check login activity.
390
What is 'malware'?
Any code or program intentionally designed to damage, disrupt, or gain unauthorized access to a computer system, network, or device.
391
How is a MAC address different from an IP address in terms of 'movement'?
A MAC address stays with the device hardware regardless of where it connects; an IP address changes based on the network the device is currently using.
392
What is a 'Certificate Authority' (CA) and name one example.
An organization that validates identities and issues digital certificates; examples include GlobalSign, IdenTrust, and DigiCert.
393
What is the behavioral difference between a 'Virus' and a 'Worm' in terms of malware infection?
A virus usually 'sits' on a legitimate file and requires the user to open/activate it; a worm can spread automatically across networks even if the user does nothing.
394
If you suffer a security breach where a password is leaked, what are the immediate steps you should take?
Change the password, change passwords for other services if they use the same one, notify your bank if financial data was leaked, and log out of all connected devices.
395
What does it mean to be hacked?
Someone has successfully breached or bypassed defences and exploited weaknesses in a computer system or network.
396
What are Bitwarden, 1Password, and Nordpass and what is their purpose?
Password managers. To allow using different and secure passwords on all sites such that one compromised password does not immediately give access to a range of other logins.
397
What are Google Authenticator and Authy used for?
They are apps that generate one-time passwords (OTP) for Two-Factor Authentication.
398
What is the keyboard shortcut to quickly lock a device in a public workspace?
Win+L for Windows or CMD+Ctrl+Q for Mac.
399
What is the technical difference between HTTPS and HTTP?
HTTPS encrypts traffic between the browser and server using SSL/TLS certificates; HTTP does not.
400
What is 'Full Disk Encryption' and give two examples.
It encrypts all data on a hard drive; examples include Bitlocker (Windows) and FileVault (macOS).
401
What should you do immediately after downloading an .exe file from the internet?
Scan the file with anti-virus software before running it.
402
What is the 'DNS spoofing' risk when using open Wi-Fi for financial transactions?
An attacker redirects your traffic to their own server, potentially bypassing HTTPS protections.
403
What is 'Zero Trust' Architecture in digital security?
A security model based on the principle 'never trust, always verify,' requiring strict identity verification for every person and device trying to access resources.
404
What is 'Quishing'?
A phishing attack where the malicious link is hidden inside a QR Code, often used in public places to bypass traditional email filters.
405
What is the major security risk of biometric identification (e.g., fingerprint, face image)?
If hacked, they cannot be reset.
406
What is the definition of 'Protecting Devices'?
To protect devices and digital content, and to understand risks and threats in digital environments while knowing about safety and security measures.
407
Which Windows drive format supports advanced security features like file-level permissions and BitLocker encryption?
NTFS (New Technology File System) is the standard for Windows and supports these security and compression features.
408
How does the short range of NFC contribute to its security?
Because the signal only travels a few centimeters, it is extremely difficult for a third party to intercept the data transmission without being physically noticed.
409
What is the difference between the CVV and the credit card pin?
The PIN is for offline, the CVV for online authentication.
410
What is the definition of 'Protecting Personal Data and Privacy'?
Protect personal data and privacy in digital environments. Understand how to use and share personally identifiable information while being able to protect oneself and others from damages. Understand that digital services use a “Privacy Policy” to inform how personal data is used.
411
How is the privacy of interactions with virtual assistants protected under the GDPR?
They are personal data with the associated protections.
412
Why do some phishing emails contain deliberate spelling errors?
They are designed to trick less vigilant users; those who don't notice the errors are more likely to fall for the rest of the scam.
413
What is the primary 'privacy advantage' of a NAS over public Cloud storage (e.g., Google Drive)?
Data Sovereignty: You own the physical hardware and the data remains on your premises, meaning third-party providers cannot scan your files or change privacy policies.
414
What is the main disadvantage of RAID 5 compared to RAID 1?
It requires more complex hardware (a RAID controller) and has a slower write speed because it must calculate parity for every piece of data saved.
415
Under GDPR, what is 'Purpose Limitation'?
The principle that personal data must be collected for specified, explicit, and legitimate purposes and not further processed in a manner incompatible with those purposes.
416
What is a 'Privacy Policy' and what is a user's right regarding it?
A legal document stating how a company collects, uses, and protects user data; users have the right to be informed about this before using a service.
417
What is the GDPR 'Right of Access'?
The right for an individual to obtain a copy of all the personal data a company or organization has stored about them.
418
What is the 'Right of Rectification' under the GDPR?
The right for an individual to have inaccurate personal data rectified or completed if it is incomplete.
419
What is the GDPR 'Right to be Informed'?
The right for individuals to be provided with clear and concise information about how their data is being used, typically through a privacy policy.
420
What is the GDPR 'Right to Restrict Processing'?
The right to request that a company temporarily stops processing your personal data, for example, while the accuracy of the data is being contested.
421
What is the GDPR 'Right to Object'?
The right for individuals to object to the processing of their data for specific purposes, such as direct marketing or profiling.
422
What is 'Browser Fingerprinting' in the context of tracking?
Collecting information on hardware and software configuration to identify individual devices even without cookies.
423
What are 'Third-party cookies' and why are they controversial?
Cookies set by a domain other than the one you are visiting, used to track you across different websites for targeted advertising.
424
What is the 'Right of Rectification' under GDPR?
The right to have a company fix errors in the personal data they hold about you.
425
What is 'Exif' data?
Metadata included in shared pictures that can include location and time, potentially compromising privacy if not erased.
426
What is 'Privacy by Design'?
The approach of including privacy and data protection features at the beginning of the development of a product or service, rather than as an afterthought.
427
What is 'Exif' data and why should it be removed before sharing photos?
Metadata embedded in image files that can contain the exact GPS coordinates and time the photo was taken, potentially compromising the user's privacy.
428
When making online payments, what is the technical difference between providing a PIN and providing a CVV?
The PIN code is processed offline (locally at a terminal), whereas the CVV is processed online to verify the card.
429
What is the difference between eIDAS 1.0 and eIDAS 2.0 regarding digital ID?
eIDAS 1.0 establishes digital IDs recognized across member states; eIDAS 2.0 requires every member state to create an 'e-wallet' for IDs
430
What is a 'Privacy Policy' used for in digital services?
To inform users about what personal data is collected, why it is collected, and whether it is shared with third parties.
431
What are the four risk categories defined by the EU AI Act?
Unacceptable risk (banned), High risk (regulated), Limited risk (transparency), and Minimal risk (no regulation).
432
What are the eight fundamental rights under GDPR?
Right to be informed: Knowing how your data is used (privacy policy); Right of access: Getting a copy of all the data a company has on you; Right of rectification: fixing errors in the data they have on you; Right to erasure: demanding a complete deletion of data if there is no longer a legal reason to keep it, e.g., if necessary for original purpose; Right to data portability: moving data (e.g., musical history) from one service to another; Right of human intervention: asking a human to review significant AI decisions.
433
What does GDPR stand for?
General Data Protection Regulation
434
What are the seven key principles of the GDPR?
Lawfulness, fairness and transparency: what data is collected?; Purpose limitation: data can only be used for the purpose they gave; Data minimisation: only the minimum data needed for a task should be collected; Accuracy: You have the right to fix incorrect data; Storage limitation: Data can only be stored as long as it is justified by business needs; Integrity and confidentiality: Data must be kept safe (encryption);Accountability: Companies must prove they are following the rules.
435
What are the central security feature of the EU Digital Identity Wallet under eIDAS 2.0?
It uses your smartphone + fingerprint + pincode to verify your identity.
436
What is 'Differential Privacy'?
A system for sharing information about a dataset by describing the patterns of groups within the dataset while withholding information about individuals.
437
How is 'Protecting Personal Data and Privacy' defined?
To protect personal data and privacy in digital environments, and to understand how to use and share personally identifiable information while being able to protect oneself and others from damages.
438
What is 'Journaling' in a file system like NTFS or APFS?
A feature that keeps a log of changes to be made to the drive; this prevents data corruption if the system crashes or loses power during a file transfer.
439
What happens to your actual credit card number during an NFC payment?
For security, the actual card number is usually not transmitted; instead, a one-time digital 'token' is sent to the terminal to complete the transaction safely.
440
How does the DMA restrict Gatekeepers from using personal data across different services?
Gatekeepers are generally prohibited from combining personal data collected from one core service with data from other services (e.g., combining search data with social media data) without explicit user consent.
441
What physical condition can be attributed to the improper and prolonged use of a computer mouse?
Carpal tunnel syndrome.
442
What is the 'online disinhibition effect'?
The lack of restraint felt in online communication compared to offline communication, leading to flaming or inappropriate behaviors.
443
What is 'digital burnout' and what are its common symptoms?
A state of physical and emotional exhaustion caused by the constant use of digital technologies and the pressure to be 'always on,' leading to reduced productivity and anxiety.
444
How can 'ergonomic accessories' help prevent physical strain during digital work?
Tools like vertical mice, split keyboards, and monitor stands help maintain a neutral body posture, reducing the risk of repetitive strain injuries.
445
What is 'Computer Vision Syndrome' (CVS) and how can it be mitigated?
Eye strain and discomfort caused by prolonged screen use; it can be mitigated by the '20-20-20 rule' (every 20 minutes, look at something 20 feet away for 20 seconds).
446
What are some psychological and physical harms of excessive use of digital technologies?
Pyschological: body dysmprphia, anxiety, eating disorders; Physical: spinal issues, eye strain, sleep deprivation
447
What are some signs of digital addictions?
Loss of control, withdrawal symptoms, dysfunctional mood regulation
448
How can 'Blue Light Filters' on devices impact health?
They reduce the amount of short-wavelength light emitted by screens, which is thought to interfere with the production of melatonin and disrupt sleep cycles.
449
What is 'Technostress'?
A modern disease of adaptation caused by an inability to cope with new computer technologies in a healthy manner, leading to anxiety and fatigue.
450
What is 'Cyberbullying'?
Repeated behavior aimed at scaring, angering, or shaming targets using digital technologies.
451
How can 'Digital Silos' or 'Filter Bubbles' impact a person's mental well-being?
By isolating them in an echo chamber of their own views, they can increase radicalization, social anxiety, and a distorted sense of reality.
452
What is 'Doomscrolling' and how does it affect well-being?
It is the excessive consumption of negative news online, which has a passive but highly negative impact, reducing life satisfaction.
453
In the context of protecting vulnerable groups online, what is 'Grooming'?
An action or behavior used by an attacker to establish an emotional connection with a vulnerable person under the age of consent for malicious purposes.
454
What does 'Protecting Health and Well-being' involve?
To be able to avoid health-risks and threats to physical and psychological well-being while using digital technologies.
455
What specifically does the 'EU repairability score' measure?
It evaluates how easy it is to dismantle and repair a product is.
456
Is the use of the internet via Wi-Fi completely ecologically clean?
No, the electricity consumption by the router means it is considered a polluting technology.
457
Why does ''Dark Mode'' save battery on an OLED screen but not significantly on an LCD screen?
On an OLED screen, black pixels physically turn off to save energy, whereas LCD screens rely on a continuous backlight that just blocks the light to show black.
458
What is planned obsolescence?
Designing a product to stop functioning correctly after a certain period of time to force replacement.
459
What is the 'Right to Repair' legislation aiming to achieve in the EU?
It mandates that manufacturers must make spare parts and repair manuals available to professional repairers and consumers for several years after a product's release to extend device lifespan.
460
What is the 'Carbon Footprint' of a digital activity?
The total amount of greenhouse gases (including carbon dioxide and methane) generated by the electricity used to power devices and data centers for that activity.
461
What is the environmental benefit of 'Cloud Computing' over maintaining individual company servers?
Large data centers often have much higher energy efficiency (PUE) and better cooling systems than small, local server rooms, potentially reducing the overall carbon footprint.
462
Why is 'E-waste' (Electronic Waste) a significant environmental concern?
Devices contain toxic heavy metals (like lead and mercury) that can leak into the ground if not recycled properly, and they contain rare earth minerals that are energy-intensive to mine.
463
What is 'Green IT'?
The practice of environmentally sustainable computing, including energy-efficient hardware, responsible e-waste recycling, and optimizing software to use fewer server resources.
464
What does 'PUE' (Power Usage Effectiveness) measure in a data center?
The ratio of total energy used by a computer data center facility to the energy delivered to the actual computing equipment; a ratio closer to 1.0 indicates high efficiency.
465
Why is 'Cloud Computing' sometimes considered an environmental solution?
It allows for 'storage as a service,' reducing the need for individuals to buy and power their own physical hardware.
466
How does 'Streaming' video compare to 'Downloading' in terms of energy consumption?
Streaming often consumes more energy over time if the same video is watched repeatedly, as the data must be transmitted from the server every time.
467
Give three reasons why e-commerce might have a particularly negative environmental impact.
Additional packaging, last mile in delivery, high rate of returns.
468
How can you reduce the energy consumption of devices and digital services?
Use WiFi rather than data connectivity when at home, close appps, optimise e-mail attachements, lowering streaming quality.
469
Name a few low-tech possibilities to lower the environmental impact of digital technologies.
Buying products with high energy efficiency, turning devices off instead of stand-by, turning off WiFi when not in use, not printing documents, repair devices.
470
How does the 'Once-Only' principle in e-Government help the environment?
By reducing the need for physical travel and the printing/mailing of paper documents through efficient data sharing between authorities.
471
What does the 'EU Right to Repair' mandate for manufacturers?
It mandates that even after a warranty expires, manufacturers must offer repair services for a 'reasonable price' to extend the device's life.
472
Besides energy use, what is a major environmental cost of developing large AI systems?
They require significant 'physical costs' in terms of hardware resources (RAM/CPU) and natural resources like water for cooling data centers.
473
Name two digital technologies with a very high environmental impact?
Training AI, mining bitcoin.
EU Digital Knowledge
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