Brief information Flashcards

Question

What are symptoms of severe asthma/ deterioration/ resp failure

Answer 1

Cyanosis, confusion, and lethargy indicating the onset of life-threatening acute severe asthma (status asthmaticus) and respiratory failure

Answer 2

Fourth intercostal space at the right border of the sternum ## Footnote This position is crucial for accurate ECG readings.

Answer 3

Fourth intercostal space at the left border of the sternum ## Footnote This placement helps in assessing the heart's electrical activity.

Answer 4

Halfway between V2 and V4 ## Footnote V3 serves as a reference point between the left and right chest leads.

Answer 5

Fifth intercostal space at the left midclavicular line ## Footnote V4 is important for monitoring the heart's electrical signals.

Answer 6

In the horizontal plane of V4 at the anterior axillary line * or halfway between V4 and V6 if the anterior axillary line is ambiguous ## Footnote Proper placement of V5 is vital for accurate ECG interpretation.

Answer 7

In the horizontal plane of V4 at the midaxillary line ## Footnote This placement helps in capturing the lateral aspect of the heart's electrical activity.

Answer 8

White or RA leadwire ## Footnote Correct identification of leadwires is essential for accurate ECG setup.

Answer 9

Green or RL leadwire ## Footnote This leadwire is part of the standard ECG setup.

Answer 10

Red or LL leadwire ## Footnote Ensuring correct connections is critical for obtaining reliable test results.

Answer 11

Black or LA leadwire ## Footnote This connection is part of the limb lead configuration.

Answer 12

Brown or V1 to V6 leadwires ## Footnote These leadwires are essential for capturing chest electrical signals.

Answer 13

An occlusion of blood flow within a coronary artery causing prolonged myocardial ischemia which leads to myocyte necrosis. Every MI has a central area of necrosis, surrounded by an area of hypoxic injury. Changes in cardiac function are based on the location and extent of the infarct Can rapidly lead to heart failure and cardiac arrest.

Answer 14

- Atherosclerosis - Coronary artery stenosis or spasm - Platelet aggregation - Thrombosis or embolism - Drug use (e.g. amphetamines or cocaine) - Ventricular hypertrophy - Carbon monoxide poisoning - Acute pulmonary disorders - Congenital coronary anomalies

Answer 15

- Prolonged pain, tightness/pressure or discomfort in the chest (angina), shoulder, arm, neck, jaw and/or back - Onset is typically sudden and severe - Pain/discomfort does not subside or respond to rest and/or medications - Diaphoresis - Pallor - Nausea/vomiting - Feeling anxious - Shortness of breath or tachypnea - Extreme fatigue (more common in females) Additional signs: - Abnormal heart sounds or murmurs - Increased heart rate & blood pressure - ECG changes (e.g. T wave inversion, ST elevation or depression) - Elevated cardiac enzymes

Answer 16

Angina is chest pain that occurs when the oxygen demand of the myocardium outweighs the available supply. ## Footnote It is usually transient and typically occurs with increased physical exertion or stress. Often due to atherosclerosis or coronary artery spasm.

Answer 17

Myocardial ischemia refers to a condition where there is insufficient blood flow to the heart muscle, leading to chest pain (angina). ## Footnote It is commonly associated with conditions like atherosclerosis.

Answer 18

Stable angina is predictable, occurs with exertion, and resolves with rest or use of nitroglycerine. ## Footnote It is characterized by a consistent pattern of occurrence.

Answer 19

Unstable angina is unpredictable, may occur at rest, and is of increasing severity, length, and/or frequency. ## Footnote It is often associated with atherosclerotic plaque rupture and is a strong predictor of myocardial infarction.

Answer 20

Unstable angina is often associated with atherosclerotic plaque rupture or outer erosion, resulting in transient episodes of thrombotic occlusion and vasoconstriction. ## Footnote These factors contribute to the unpredictability of the angina.

Answer 21

Symptoms of angina include: * pallor * diaphoresis * dyspnoea * chest discomfort or pressure ## Footnote With stable angina, discomfort usually improves once the triggering activity stops.

Answer 22

Nitrates, specifically GTN, are the first-line treatment for acute angina. ## Footnote Nitrates act as endothelium-independent vasodilators.

Answer 23

Beta blockers are used for prevention by reducing heart workload, slowing the heart rate, and decreasing the force of heart muscle contractions. ## Footnote This collectively lowers the demand for oxygen, alleviating chest pain.

Answer 24

Medications for angina include: * Nitrates * Beta blockers * Calcium channel blockers ## Footnote Each class of medication serves a different purpose in managing angina.

Answer 25

A condition where the heart cannot fill or eject blood efficiently, resulting in reduced cardiac output and increased congestion in the heart and/or lungs. ## Footnote HF is usually due to a structural or functional disorder that impairs ventricular systolic or diastolic function.

Answer 26

The pumping ability of the left ventricle fails and cardiac output decreases, causing blood to back up into the left atrium and lungs, leading to pulmonary congestion. ## Footnote If untreated, left-sided heart failure leads to right-sided heart failure, pulmonary oedema, and decreased cardiac output.

Answer 27

* Left ventricular myocardial infarction * Hypertension * Aortic and mitral valve stenosis or regurgitation ## Footnote Specifically, left anterior descending (LAD) occlusion and circumflex arteries are involved.

Answer 28

* Pulmonary congestion * ↑ pulmonary artery & venous pressure * Fluid accumulation in interstitial spaces of the lungs and alveoli * Reduced lung compliance * Impaired gas exchange * Dyspnea on exertion and fatigue * Cyanosis may reflect hypoxia

Answer 29

* Dyspnoea * Increased weight gain * Productive cough * Crackles and wheezing in lungs * Pulmonary oedema * Lethargy * Muscle weakness

Answer 30

Ineffective contractile function of the right ventricle leads to blood backing up into the right atrium and the peripheral circulation, resulting in peripheral oedema and engorgement of the kidneys and other organs.

Answer 31

* Occlusion in right coronary artery * Left heart failure causing pulmonary hypertension * Tricuspid valve regurgitation

Answer 32

* Peripheral oedema * Weight gain, fluid overload * Ascites (accumulation of fluid in the abdomen) * Venous hypertension * Hepatomegaly (enlarged liver) * Jugular vein distension * Hepatic congestion * Cyanosis

Answer 33

* Increase cardiac contractility * Reduce fluid/oedema * Reduce myocardial workload

Answer 34

* Sodium restriction * Fluid restriction * Calorie restriction, if indicated * Weight reduction, if indicated * DASH (Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension) * Beta blockers * Diuretics * Vasodilators * Oxygen therapy * Anticoagulants

Answer 35

The inability of the heart to provide enough blood and oxygen to the body. Congestive heart failure is a specific type of HF where fluid buildup (congestion) occurs in the body due to the heart's reduced pumping efficiency. The term "congestive" highlights the fluid retention aspect of the condition, particularly in the lungs and extremities.

Answer 36

An erratic, disorganised firing of impulses from the ventricles, causing the ventricles to quiver and are unable to contract or pump blood. This is a medical emergency.

Answer 37

A common ECG rhythm characterized by irregular and rapid heartbeats ## Footnote Atrial fibrillation can lead to complications such as stroke and heart failure.

Answer 38

An abnormal and rapid discharge of electrical signals in the ventricles ## Footnote Ventricular tachycardia can be life-threatening and requires immediate medical attention.

Answer 39

Cessation of electrical signals in the heart, also known as a 'flatline' ## Footnote Asystole is a critical condition indicating no heart activity.

Answer 40

Rheumatic heart disease valve damage

Answer 41

Medication or surgery

Answer 42

Damage to heart valves requiring surgical repair or replacement

Answer 43

While in hospital after recovering from the acute phase or later when medication cannot maintain heart function

Answer 44

Mitral and/or aortic heart valves

Answer 45

Antibiotic prophylaxis

Answer 46

Every 28 days (or every 21 days in some cases)

Answer 47

Minimum of 10 years or until 21 or 30 years old depending on severity

Answer 48

While still in hospital, prior to discharge

Answer 49

Medications, bed rest, dental checks, cardiac medication, or surgery

Answer 50

[cardiac function and heart health]

Answer 51

Use of chemotherapeutic drugs to destroy or suppress the growth of cancer cells Uses non-selective cytotoxic drugs Actively dividing cells are most susceptible- including cancer cells, bone marrow blood cells & epithelial cells of the skin & GI tract.

Answer 52

- fatigue - Weakness - reduced blood cell numbers - impaired wound healing - nausea/vomiting, diarrhoea - alopecia - sterility - growth depression (children) - GI mucosal damage - teratogenicity (developmental abnormalities or birth defects in a fetus)

Answer 53

A widespread occurrence of an infectious disease over a whole country or the world at a particular time.

Answer 54

A notifiable disease is a disease or injury that health professionals are required to report to the local Medical Officer The Health Act 1956 lists which diseases require notification to the NPHS, and in some cases the local authority.

Answer 55

Dangers: Check for danger (assess and manage risks to the rescuer and others) ## Footnote Assessing dangers ensures the safety of the rescuer and bystanders before providing assistance.

Answer 56

Responsiveness: Check for response (if unresponsive) ## Footnote Checking responsiveness helps determine if the person is conscious or needs immediate medical attention.

Answer 57

If unresponsive, send for help ## Footnote Sending for help is crucial to ensure that professional medical assistance is on its way.

Answer 58

Airway: Open the airway ## Footnote Ensuring the airway is open is vital for effective breathing and oxygen delivery.

Answer 59

Check breathing (if not breathing / abnormal breathing) ## Footnote Assessing breathing is essential to determine if CPR is needed.

Answer 60

Start CPR: Give 30 chest compressions followed by two breaths ## Footnote CPR is a lifesaving technique used in emergencies when someone's heartbeat or breathing has stopped.

Answer 61

Attach an Automated External Defibrillator (AED) as soon as available and follow the prompts ## Footnote An AED can help restore a normal heart rhythm in cases of cardiac arrest.

Answer 62

Absolute insulin deficiency caused by destruction of beta cells, believed to be an autoimmune reaction.

Answer 63

A metabolic condition associated with insulin resistance and an impaired insulin secretion. This is a slow insidious onset.

Answer 64

Regulates metabolism of carbohydrate, protein, and fats, reducing blood-glucose concentration by facilitating glucose uptake into cells.

Answer 65

Identify and treat/eliminate underlying causes ## Footnote Addressing root causes can improve overall management of the condition.

Answer 66

Dietary changes, weight loss, and exercise ## Footnote These changes can significantly impact blood sugar levels and overall health.

Answer 67

Oral hypoglycemic drugs ## Footnote These medications help to lower blood sugar levels in patients with Type II diabetes.

Answer 68

(Oral hypoglycemic drugs) 1st line- Sulphonylurea class e.g. tolbutamide, glipizide, glibenclamide 2nd line Biguanides- Metformin ## Footnote These drugs stimulate basal insulin secretion by the pancreas and require functioning beta cells.

Answer 69

help control high blood sugar (glucose) levels in people with Type 2 diabetes by increasing insulin production, improving insulin sensitivity, reducing glucose absorption, or decreasing liver glucose production ## Footnote It also increases glucose utilization by peripheral cells.

Answer 70

Reduces LDL, VLDL and increases HDL ## Footnote This can benefit cardiovascular health.

Answer 71

When lifestyle changes and other medications aren't enough ## Footnote Insulin is crucial for regulating blood sugar levels.

Answer 72

Insulin binds to receptors on cells, enabling glucose to move from the bloodstream into the cells, where it's used for energy or stored

Answer 73

Fasting blood glucose (FBG) levels ## Footnote Patients should also be educated on managing hypoglycemia.

Answer 74

weight (kg) = 2 x (age + 4)

Answer 75

(IV amount in mL x drop factor) / (Hours x 60) OR (IV amount in mL x drop factor) / (time in minutes)

Answer 76

What you want ÷ what you’ve got x volume of stock solution

Answer 77

What you want ÷ what you’ve got x one tablet

Answer 78

Ulcerative colitis and Crohn's disease ## Footnote These conditions affect the gastrointestinal tract.

Answer 79

All layers ## Footnote Crohn's disease can affect any part of the GI tract but is most commonly found in the proximal colon and small intestine.

Answer 80

* Fissures * Fistulas * Adhesions * Damage to the enteric nervous system * Malnutrition or nutritional deficiencies * Obstruction * Anemia from not absorbing B12 ## Footnote Complications arise due to severe inflammation and its effects on the gut.

Answer 81

* Diarrhea * Fatty diarrhea * Less common blood in stool * Exacerbations * Hospital admissions ## Footnote Symptoms may vary in severity and frequency.

Answer 82

Large colon, most commonly distal colon ## Footnote Ulcerative colitis specifically affects the mucosa.

Answer 83

* Hemorrhoids * Anal fissures * Abscesses * Hemorrhage ## Footnote These complications arise from repeated inflammation.

Answer 84

* Large, watery, bloody diarrhea * Cramping * Exacerbations * Fever * Tachycardia * 10-20 stools per day ## Footnote Symptoms can lead to significant discomfort and health risks.

Answer 85

* Steroids * Antibiotics ## Footnote These treatments aim to dampen the immune response.

Answer 86

Malnutrition or nutritional deficiencies. Iron, vitamin B12, vitamin D, and zinc ## Footnote Intestinal absorption is significantly impacted.

Answer 87

A slow, progressive inflammation of the bowel or digestive tract. ## Footnote Exact cause unknown; considered idiopathic.

Answer 88

Altered immune response to intestinal bacteria, lymphatic obstruction, and infection, along with genetic predisposition. ## Footnote The exact cause remains unclear.

Answer 89

Avoidance of foods that worsen diarrhoea, raw fruits and vegetables if blockage occurs, and ensuring adequate caloric, protein, and vitamin intake. ## Footnote Diet plays a crucial role in managing symptoms.

Answer 90

Antispasmodics such as propantheline bromide, dicyclomine hydrochloride, and hyoscyamine. ## Footnote These medications help alleviate abdominal cramps.

Answer 91

Prednisone. ## Footnote Corticosteroids help reduce inflammation.

Answer 92

An episodic chronic inflammatory bowel disease that causes ulcerations of the mucosa in the colon. ## Footnote Characterized by crypt abscesses and mucosal ulceration.

Answer 93

Identification and avoidance of triggers, blood transfusions for anaemia if needed, relaxation and stress management techniques ## Footnote A comprehensive approach is often necessary.

Answer 94

Aminosalicylates (e.g., sulfaSALazine, balsalazide sodium) and corticosteroids (e.g., topical steroid enemas, oral or parenteral corticosteroids like prednisone and methylprednisolone sodium succinate). ## Footnote Aminosalicylates are more commonly used to reduce inflammation in the gut.

Answer 95

The presence of inflammation and damage to the digestive tract.

Answer 96

Disorder of gut–brain interaction that affects the large intestine.

Answer 97

Muscle spasms causing abdominal discomfort, bloating, and flatulence.

Answer 98

An abnormality in the neuromuscular control of intestinal smooth muscle.

Answer 99

* Stress management * Lifestyle modifications * FODMAP to determine any irritants * Antidiarrhoeals, such as loperamide hydrochloride * Bulk-forming laxatives, such as psyllium husk powder * Probiotics and prebiotics

Answer 100

* GI: diarrhoea, vomiting * Renal: diuresis * Vascular: haemorrhage * Skin: burns ## Footnote These can significantly affect fluid balance.

Answer 101

* Heart failure * Liver failure * Kidney failure ## Footnote These conditions can cause excessive fluid retention.

Answer 102

Abnormal loss of normal fluids, inadequate intake, or plasma to interstitial shift ## Footnote It can lead to decreased fluid volume and potentially hypovolemic shock.

Answer 103

* Excess fluid volume * Impaired gas exchange * Risk for impaired skin integrity * Activity intolerance * Potential complications: pulmonary oedema, ascites ## Footnote Hypervolemia is characterized by excessive intake or retention of fluids.

Answer 104

* Monitor intake and output * Monitor cardiovascular changes * Assess respiratory changes * Assess neurological changes * Daily weight * Skin assessment * IV therapy ## Footnote These assessments help manage fluid status effectively.

Answer 105

Used to correct electrolyte imbalances, deliver medications, blood transfusions, or fluid replacement therapy ## Footnote IV therapy is crucial for managing dehydration and supporting patients in shock.

Answer 106

Gelatinous solutions containing particles suspended in solution that do not settle under gravity ## Footnote Colloids are used for volume expansion.

Answer 107

Clear fluids made up of water and electrolytes ## Footnote Crystalloids can cross a semipermeable membrane.

Answer 108

Isotonic for resuscitation ## Footnote It contains Na+, Cl-, K+, Ca2+, and lactate.

Answer 109

* 0.9% NaCl * Lactated Ringer’s * 5% dextrose and water (D5W) * 5% dextrose and 0.9% saline (various formulations) ## Footnote Isotonic solutions are used for fluid replacement.

Answer 110

Hypotonic solutions cause cells to swell, while hypertonic solutions cause cells to shrink ## Footnote This is due to the concentration gradient of solutes.

Answer 111

* Albumin * Dextran * Blood ## Footnote Colloids are used to expand plasma volume.

Answer 112

Signs of IV issues include local symptoms like pain, swelling, redness, heat, and discharge at the IV site, and systemic symptoms such as fever, chills, shortness of breath, dizziness, or a rapid heart rate

Answer 113

15 minutes

Answer 114

55% plasma, 45% RBCs, 1% platelets

Answer 115

* Unwell children * Aged individuals * Trauma cases * Patients with long COVID * Cancer patients * Elective surgery patients * Emergency surgery patients * Patients with congenital conditions * Solid organ and marrow transplant recipients * Patients with chronic illnesses * Patients experiencing obstetric bleeds

Answer 116

* Prescription * Informed consent * Patent vascular access * Patient identification (9 rights) * Equipment * Baseline observations * Documentation * Two certified staff

Answer 117

Febrile non-haemolytic transfusion reaction

Answer 118

* Delay in obtaining blood components * Transfusing wrong components for another patient * Over-transfusing leading to circulatory overload * Transfusion-transmitted bacterial infections * Risk of viral infections like HIV, Hep B, and C

Answer 119

* Prescribing unnecessary blood components * Incomplete request forms or sample tube labels * Improper collection of samples * Delays in communication * Transfusion of components intended for another patient * Failure to manage adverse reactions

Answer 120

* ABO and RhD blood groups * Red cell antibodies * Infectious diseases: HIV, HepB, HepC, Syphilis

Answer 121

Consider using emergency group O RhD negative units

Answer 122

* Baseline full observations within 60 minutes before transfusion * Remain in the room for the first 15 minutes * Full set of observations at 15 minutes after commencement of each unit * Check patient every 30 minutes thereafter * Complete full set of observations every 60 minutes

Answer 123

* More common with plasma and platelet components * Symptoms include flushed skin and morbilliform rash

Answer 124

* Stop transfusion * Check label and recipient identity * Replace IV set and give saline * Monitor closely and treat symptomatically

Answer 125

* Severe hypotension * Widespread urticaria * Wheezing and stridor * Severe anxiety

Answer 126

* Stop transfusion * Check label and recipient identity * Follow anaphylaxis guidelines: administer adrenaline * Replace IV set and give rapid IV colloid or saline

Answer 127

Fall in systolic BP >30mmHg and systolic BP <80mmHg

Answer 128

* RBC transfusions * Platelet transfusions * Plasma infusion

Answer 129

To elevate hemoglobin, iron, and oxygen levels in patients with anemia Can be done for - Volume of blood loss - Cardiac dysfunction - Atherosclerotic disease

Answer 130

For patients with leukemia or other cancers, especially after chemotherapy

Answer 131

* Liver failure * Severe infections * Significant burns

Answer 132

Within 24 hours of transfusion

Answer 133

Acute - Mild allergic reactions (urticarial) - Febrile non-haemolytic reaction -Transfusion-associated circulatory overload Delayed – > 24 hours of transfusion - Alloimmunisation (HLA antigen) - Alloimmunisation (RBC antigens)

Answer 134

In a domestic or vaccine fridge

Answer 135

2 - 6 degrees

Answer 136

20 - 24 degrees

Answer 137

Frozen at/below –25 °C for up to 12 months; once thawed, stored at 2 to 6 °C

Answer 138

Return the blood to the blood fridge or transfusion laboratory within 30 minutes

Answer 139

It becomes unsuitable for reissue or use for another patient

Answer 140

Within 30 minutes

Answer 141

Overnight transfusions whenever possible

Answer 142

* Normal saline (0.9% sodium chloride) * 4% albumin * Gelofusine * ABO compatible plasma

Answer 143

* Medications * Dextrose containing solutions * Calcium containing solutions (e.g., Haemaccel, Hartmann's solution, lactated Ringer's solution, Gelafusal)

Answer 144

* Patient * Prescription * Pack

Answer 145

A chemical that binds to opioid receptors found in the CNS, PNS, and GI tract Action potential firing of neurons within the sensory pain pathway Inhibits the opening of calcium channels, resulting in less pain conducting neurotransmitters released

Answer 146

* Analgesia * Cough suppression * Respiratory suppression * Sedation and sleep * Euphoria * Dysphoria * Miosis * Nausea and vomiting * Hypotension and bradycardia * Tolerance, dependence or addiction

Answer 147

Respiratory suppression

Answer 148

* Decreased GI motility * Increased tone in smooth muscle * Spasms of sphincter muscles * Suppression of some spinal reflexes * Release of histamine

Answer 149

* Morphine * Pethidine (synthetic) * Fentanyl * Alfentanil * Codeine * Methadone * Oxycodone

Answer 150

G-protein receptors linked to the inhibition of adenylate cyclase

Answer 151

Naloxone (a medicine that rapidly reverses an opioid overdose)

Answer 152

General term for a group of brain disorders that cause problems with memory and thinking Neurons involved with communication, metabolism, and repair are disrupted. ## Footnote Most common cause is Alzheimer disease, but there are other forms as well.

Answer 153

* Alzheimer disease * Vascular dementia * Lewy body dementia * Frontotemporal dementia * Parkinson disease dementia ## Footnote Each type has unique characteristics and symptoms.

Answer 154

Amyloid ## Footnote Amyloid plaques are associated with the degeneration of neurons.

Answer 155

* Gradual onset * Forgetfulness and subtle memory loss * Inability to concentrate * Personality changes; increased anxiety * Poor judgement * Taking longer to complete daily tasks * Trouble handling money ## Footnote Symptoms may vary by individual.

Answer 156

* Difficulty remembering past * Disorientation * Episodes of wandering * Moodiness in social situations * Bladder and bowel changes * Shorter attention span * Misperceptions about environment * Misidentification of objects and people * Decline in word finding * Personality changes (e.g., irritability) * Restlessness and agitation * Suspicion and fear of imaginary situations * Complaints of misplaced objects * Inappropriate actions or impulses * Motor problems * Nocturnal awakening ## Footnote The moderate stage is characterized by more severe cognitive decline.

Answer 157

* General deterioration in personal hygiene * Difficulty swallowing * Increased amount of time sleeping * Weight loss * Loss of bowel and bladder control * Groans or grunts ## Footnote Severe stage indicates significant decline in physical and cognitive abilities.

Answer 158

* Monitoring neurological status * Level of orientation and agitation * Response to medications * Fluid intake and nutrition status * Elimination – urinary and bowels * Sleep hygiene * Delirium screening * Oral health * Environment for safety * Pressure injuries * Weight ## Footnote These considerations help in providing comprehensive care.

Answer 159

Rapid onset disturbance in mental abilities resulting in confused thinking and reduced awareness of the environment ## Footnote Usually temporary and resolves when the underlying cause is addressed.

Answer 160

* Alcohol Withdrawal Syndrome * Brain Tumor * Chronic Kidney Disease * Dementia * Drug Withdrawal Syndrome * Fluid and Electrolyte Imbalance * Heatstroke * Infection * Stroke ## Footnote Identifying the cause is crucial for treatment.

Answer 161

* Safety measures to decrease risk of injury * Monitor medications that may exacerbate delirium * Monitor memory, mood, and cognition changes * Encourage good sleep hygiene * Use comfort measures * Maintain a consistent routine * Identify yourself and others in interactions * Approach the patient calmly * Prepare for diagnostic tests * Obtain blood samples as ordered ## Footnote These measures aim to stabilize the patient and provide comfort.

Answer 162

Allergies, Medical conditions, Height & weight, Physical examination, Laboratory tests ## Footnote Pre-op assessments are taken during a pre-op phone call and hospital admission.

Answer 163

* Smoking * Age * Nutrition * Obesity * Genetics * Medical conditions (e.g., diabetes) * Obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) * Immunosuppression * Fluid and electrolyte imbalance * Postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV) * Postoperative urinary retention (POUR) ## Footnote These factors can significantly impact surgical outcomes.

Answer 164

* Consent * Identification/Labels * Vital signs * Pre-op Checklist ## Footnote These documents ensure patient safety and proper procedure compliance.

Answer 165

* Venous thromboembolism * Pressure Injury * Skin tears * Hypothermia * Fluid and Blood Loss Monitoring * Pulmonary dysfunction * Allergic reactions * Proper specimen management ## Footnote Continuous assessments are crucial for patient safety during surgery.

Answer 166

* Length of surgery * Venous compression * Hypovolaemia/dehydration * Hypotension * Hypothermia * Use of a tourniquet, especially during prolonged inflation ## Footnote Recognizing these risks can help in implementing preventive measures.

Answer 167

A set of specific practices and procedures performed to make equipment and areas free from all microorganisms and to maintain that sterility. ## Footnote Sterility is critical in preventing infections during surgery.

Answer 168

Only Sterile Items Are Used Within the Sterile Field ## Footnote This principle ensures that the surgical environment remains uncontaminated.

Answer 169

* Sign in led by anesthetist * Time out led by surgeon * Sign out led by nurse * Verbally confirm with team after final count * Name of procedure recorded * Instrument, needle, sponge counts are correct * Specimen labeling * Plan for VTE prophylaxis * Equipment problems to be addressed * Post-operative concerns/plan for recovery ## Footnote This checklist is essential for ensuring patient safety and communication among the surgical team.

Answer 170

* Phase 1 (OT to PACU or ICU) * Phase 2 (to ward/discharge) * Airway * Breathing * Circulation ## Footnote These priorities focus on stabilizing the patient after surgery.

Answer 171

* Airway/Breathing (Artificial Airways, Patency, SpO2, Oxygen, Lung sounds) * Circulation (BP, Temperature, IV Fluids, Urine output) * Neurological (Consciousness, Motor & sensory function) * Others (Dressing/Drainage, Nausea & vomiting, Pain) ## Footnote Comprehensive assessments in the PACU are vital for monitoring recovery.

Answer 172

[stable] ## Footnote Stability is crucial for ensuring safe transfer and recovery.

Answer 173

* Vital Signs * Activity Level * Nausea and vomiting * Pain * Surgical Bleeding Score≥9 (fit for discharge) ## Footnote This scoring system helps determine if a patient is ready for discharge.

Answer 174

* Nausea and/or vomiting * Abdominal distension * Paralytic ileus * Urinary retention * Constipation * Pain * Shock * Haemorrhage * Hypoxia * Pulmonary embolism * Wound infection * Wound dehiscence ## Footnote Awareness of these problems can aid in early detection and management.

Answer 175

* Consent (Gillick competence) * Weight-based treatment * Speaking their language * Safety (e.g., fasting, restraint) ## Footnote Tailoring care to this group is essential for effective treatment.

Answer 176

* Degenerative Changes * Frailty * Cognitive Impairment * Discharge conditions ## Footnote These factors can significantly impact surgical outcomes and recovery.

Answer 177

Spirituality is a dynamic and intrinsic aspect of humanity through which persons seek ultimate meaning, purpose, and transcendence, and experience relationship to self, family, others, community, society, nature, and the significant or sacred. ## Footnote Spirituality is expressed through beliefs, values, traditions, and practices.

Answer 178

Climate- Rising sea levels, flooding, drought, and changing weather patterns. Reduced staff- Inequitable access to specialist care, primary care, or any care in general. Geographical isolation- Hard to reach hospitals, limited wifi/cellphone service, expsesive to leave town for health.

Answer 179

Ageing population profiles ## Footnote An ageing population can lead to increased healthcare demands and a need for specialized care.

Answer 180

Rural trauma and medical emergencies ## Footnote The service aims to enhance local capabilities in handling emergencies.

Answer 181

By providing further training to local GPs and nurses ## Footnote This training equips them with additional skills and interventions for emergency situations.

Answer 182

Emergency 24 hour on call service ## Footnote This ensures that rural communities have access to immediate medical assistance.

Answer 183

An umbrella term for disorders associated with a progressive decrease in airflow within the lungs due to structural changes

Answer 184

* Emphysema * Chronic bronchitis

Answer 185

* Breathlessness/shortness of breath * Cough (typically productive) * Chest tightness * Wheezing * Dyspnoea * Nostril flaring * Accessory muscle breathing * Pursed lip breathing * Barrel chest * Cyanosis, finger clubbing or other signs of chronic low oxygen levels

Answer 186

A condition resulting in enlargement of the alveolar air spaces, leading to hyperinflation and decreased gas exchange * Breakdown of alveolar walls & septa * Breakdown of pulmonary capillaries * Breakdown of elastic fibers around alveoli Reduced elasticity causes a decrease in the ability for the alveoli and bronchioles to remain open, making expiration difficult

Answer 187

Exposure to irritants/noxious particles, mostly from cigarette smoke Oxidants destroy tissue and inactivate anti-proteases. Protease promotes cell and proteint breakdown, where anti-protease inhibit too much protease- making a balance.

Answer 188

Alpha 1-antitrypsine deficiency

Answer 189

Pursed-lipped breathing

Answer 190

* Flattening of the diaphragm * Alterations to thoracic cavity shape (barrel chest) * Increased use of accessory muscles to breathe * Hypoxemia & hypoxia * Hypercapnia * Atelectasis * Generalized tissue (e.g. muscle) wasting

Answer 191

Inflammation of the airways characterized by a productive cough lasting more than 3 months a year for at least two consecutive years

Answer 192

Long-term exposure to noxious chemicals from smoking or other environmental irritants

Answer 193

* Bronchial edema * Increased mucus glands & hypersecretion of mucus * Impaired cilia function Causing increased airway resistance.

Answer 194

* Hypoxemia & hypoxia * Hypercapnia * Increased use of accessory muscles to breathe

Answer 195

First-line medication- Anticholinergics via inhalation, such as ipratropium bromide. Short-acting beta2 agonists (SABA) such as salbutamol sulfate. Other- Corticosteroids, mucolytic agents. To improve breathing pattern: Pursed lip breathing. Inspiratory muscle training

Answer 196

An autosomal recessive condition resulting in abnormalities of the chloride channel proteins, eading to decreased chloride secretion. This causes the body to produce thick, sticky mucus that blocks and damages organs. Primarily the lungs and pancreas, leading to breathing problems, severe digestive issues, malnutrition, and chronic infections

Answer 197

- Chronic cough - Dyspnea - Persistent lung infections - Malnutrition and poor growth - diarrhoea, fat in stool, severe constipation, or bulky stools - Salty tasting skin - Pancreatitis - Wheezy respirations - tachypnea

Answer 198

* Chest physiotherapy * Positive pressure devices * Inhaled mucus thinning solutions. * Antibiotics * Nutritional supplementation & enzymes. Pancreatic enzymes. * IV fluids, antibiotics, oxygen therapy,

Answer 199

Two mutations in the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) gene

Answer 200

Decreased secretion of chloride and increased reabsorption of sodium and water across epithelial cells

Answer 201

A sweat test using pilocarpine solution Sodium levels greater than 60 mEq/L on at least two separate occasions

Answer 202

Muscarinic acetylcholine (mACh) receptors on bronchiole smooth muscle

Answer 203

Acute asthma, maintenance asthma, and COPD

Answer 204

Applies continuous positive airway pressure to keep airways open

Answer 205

Improve respiratory rate, dyspnoea, and work of breathing in asthma

Answer 206

May worsen lung hyperinflation

Answer 207

CPAP alone may not improve ventilation

Answer 208

Pneumonia is an infection that causes inflammation and fluid or pus to fill the alveoli in one or both lungs, that impairs gas exchange. It is an "umbrella term" covering various syndromes that result in air sacs filling with fluid or pus, causing symptoms like cough, fever, and difficulty breathing ## Footnote Caused by microorganisms including mycobacteria, bacteria, viruses, protozoa, and fungi. Can be cause by aspiration

Answer 209

Alveoli, alveolar ducts, and interstitial spaces ## Footnote Inflammation leads to air sacs filling with fluid or pus.

Answer 210

Often diagnosed by a combination of symptoms, a physical examination (listening to the lungs), and a chest X-ray. On asucltataion most likley hear crackles and sometimes ronchi

Answer 211

Bacterial - CP - Cough with Purulent sputum production - Fever/ Chills - Tachypnoea - Headaches - Muscle aches Viral - Non-productive cough - Fever/chills - Headache - Muscle aches - fatuige Other - Sputum: green, yellow or bloody - Tachycardia - Pleuritic chest pain - Dyspnoea

Answer 212

Full blood count, sputum culture, gram stain, smear, rapid antigen testing ## Footnote Cultures should be collected prior to administering antibiotics if possible.

Answer 213

- Meds: Antibiotics, antiviral agents, analgesics, antipyretics, bronchodilators - Maintaining a patent airway: Other treatments may include non-invasive ventilation and nasal high-flow oxygen. - Ensuring adequate oxygenation - Managing fluid balance - Promoting comfort and nutrition ## Footnote Amoxicillin is an example of an antibiotic that may be used.

Answer 214

Full or partial collapse of the lung caused by a collection of air in the pleural space, resulting in loss of negative intrapleural pressure

Answer 215

A condition in which air becomes trapped in the pleural space, usually caused by trauma to the lung or punctured lung. Causes compression of the lung on the affected side and pressure on the heart and vessels. Pushes lung and vessels to the unafected side (mediastinal shift). Compromising lung function, and blood return to the heart. Leading to hypotension and shock

Answer 216

Can develop from any pneumothorax

Answer 217

* Severe SOB * Acute pain * Distended jugular veins * Pallor * Anxiety * Tracheal deviation away from the affected side * Weak, rapid pulse * Hypotension * Tachypnoea * Cyanosis * Absent breath sounds on the affected side * Decreased cardiac output * Chest pain * Cardiac arrest

Answer 218

Needle decompression of the chest to relieve trapped air in the pleural space. Then Chest Tube Insertion (Tube Thoracostomy

Answer 219

* Administer oxygen based on oxygen saturation levels and arterial blood gas analysis * Assist with chest tube insertion and maintain suction * Ensure chest tube placement and patency * Provide chest tube care as directed

Answer 220

An infectuous bacterial disease that primarily affects the lungs but can also spread to other parts of the body Transmission occurs via airborne droplet nuclei. Bacteria involved: Mycobacterium bacilli

Answer 221

Inhaled mycobacterium bacilli travel to the alveoli where they are ingested by macrophages (Initail step to the immune response) Then the T-cell response causes granuloma formation around the bacilli- making them dormant. While it attempts to contain the bacteria, it can fail to eliminate them, allowing the infection to persist, spread, and cause tissue damage. The granuloma may also lead to significant inflammation, leading to tissue damage.

Answer 222

Symptoms may include: * Asymptomatic after a 4- to 8-week incubation period * Prolonged cough (sometimes with blood) * Weakness and fatigue * Anorexia, weight loss * Low-grade fever * Night sweats * Chest pain; pleuritic chest pain * Haemoptysis ## Footnote Symptoms can vary and may be mild or absent initially.

Answer 223

Symptoms include: * Chest pain * Nonproductive or productive cough containing blood or mucopurulent or blood-tinged sputum * Low-grade fever * Dyspnoea * Weight loss ## Footnote Reactivated TB can lead to more severe respiratory symptoms.

Answer 224

- Tuberculin skin test (TST/ T-SPOT) - Blood tests (IGRA: Interferon-Gamma Release Assays) - CXRAY - sputum smears ## Footnote This test is a common screening tool for tuberculosis.

Answer 225

Common findings include: * Nodular lesions * Patchy infiltrates * Cavity formation * Scar tissue * Calcium deposits ## Footnote Radiographic findings help assess the extent of lung involvement.

Answer 226

Antitubercular therapy for at least 6 months with: * Isoniazid * Rifampicin or rifabutin * Ethambutol hydrochloride * Pyrazinamide Other - Symptom Management - Respiratory Assessment - Sputum Collection: Patients provide sputum samples regularly to monitor the effectiveness of treatment. The patient is considered non-infectious after three negative sputum cultures. ## Footnote These medications are crucial for effective treatment of TB.

Answer 227

Issues include: * Drug-resistant TB * Increasing drug resistance * HIV co-infection ## Footnote These factors complicate TB control and treatment efforts.

Answer 228

A complex condition characterized by progressive and irreversible destruction of nephrons

Answer 229

There is a progressive reduction in GFR and subsequent reductions in nephron function and other kidney functions

Answer 230

The progressive decline in GFR

Answer 231

* Diabetes mellitus * Hypertension * Glomerulonephritis * Polycystic kidney disease

Answer 232

Functioning nephrons adapt to pick up the extra 'workload'

Answer 233

* Glomerular hypertension * Hyperfiltration * Hypertrophy * Glomerulosclerosis * Tubulointerstitial inflammation * Fibrosis

Answer 234

Less than 10% of renal function remaining

Answer 235

A syndrome characterized by azotemia and systemic symptoms

Answer 236

* Fatigue * Anorexia * Nausea/vomiting * Weight loss * Hypertension * Pruritis * Neurological changes * Musculoskeletal changes * Cardiovascular changes

Answer 237

To slow progression of the disease

Answer 238

* Adequate calorie intake * Protein restriction * Sodium restriction * Potassium restriction * Phosphate restriction

Answer 239

* Vitamin D supplementation * Fluid evaluation * Erythropoietin supplementation * ACE inhibitors or receptor blockers * Hyperglycemic control & insulin (for patients with diabetes)

Answer 240

Dialysis or renal transplant

Answer 241

Narrowed lumen reduces O2 and blood flow to the nephron glomerulus, causing ischemic injury. ## Footnote This leads to immune cell secretion of growth factors, resulting in glomerular sclerosis and diminished filtering ability.

Answer 242

Excess glucose sticks to the efferent arteriole, causing stiffness or narrowing, leading to obstruction and increased pressure, which results in hyperfiltration and sclerosis. ## Footnote This impairs the kidneys' ability to filter blood, progressing to CKD.

Answer 243

* Lupus or rheumatoid arthritis * HIV * Long-term use of NSAIDs * Tobacco and other toxins ## Footnote These factors can contribute to kidney damage and chronic kidney disease.

Answer 244

* Estimated GFR * Serum urea and creatinine levels * Sodium, potassium, phosphate, and ammonia levels * Urinalysis (proteinuria, glycosuria, urinary RBCs, leukocytes, casts, and crystals) * Elevated albumin/creatinine ratio ## Footnote These tests help evaluate kidney function and damage.

Answer 245

* Prevent and manage anemia * Control diabetes, hypertension, and electrolyte disturbances * Restrict sodium * Use ACEIs or ARBs to control hypertension and proteinuria * Use antidiabetic agents like metformin and SGLT2 inhibitors ## Footnote Effective management can slow the progression of CKD.

Answer 246

A progressive loss of renal function that results in end-stage renal disease if left untreated ## Footnote Caused by chronic hypertension or kidney disease

Answer 247

Less than 15 mL/minute/1.73 m2 ## Footnote This is classified as Stage G5

Answer 248

* Oliguria * Increase in BUN/Cr * Decrease in eGFR * Hypervolemia * Hyperkalaemia * Metabolic acidosis * Decrease in calcium * Hypertension * Oedema * Fatigue * Weight loss * Changes in mental status * Dry skin * Tremors * Pericarditis * Tachypnoea * Nausea * Stomatitis * Diarrhoea * Haematuria * Muscle weakness * Anaemia

Answer 249

Complete loss of kidney function

Answer 250

* Antihypertensives * Diuretics * Erythropoietin for anaemia * Sodium bicarbonate * Antibiotics * Intravenous fluids * Calcium with vitamin D * Dialysis may be needed * Phosphate binder * Sodium polystyrene

Answer 251

* Monitor vital signs * Monitor strict intake and output * Monitor for fluid overload and oedema * Cardiac monitoring if needed * Monitor electrolytes * Elevate lower extremities * Provide skin care * Administer medications as ordered

Answer 252

A procedure that filters the body's blood by increasing the movement of fluid across a semipermeable membrane

Answer 253

* Peritoneal dialysis * Haemodialysis

Answer 254

The removal of waste products through a vascular access such as an arteriovenous (AV) fistula

Answer 255

Vital signs and labs

Answer 256

The removal of waste products using the patient’s own peritoneal cavity, without the use of artificial membranes

Answer 257

Administering a dialysate through a catheter while simultaneously withdrawing blood through a separate lumen

Answer 258

* Signs of infection at the access site * Vital signs * Daily weights * Oedema * Lung sounds

Answer 259

* Muscle and abdominal cramping * Hypotension * Disequilibrium syndrome * Air embolism

Answer 260

Stop dialysis immediately, monitor vital signs, place oxygen on patient, call doctor immediately

Answer 261

A catheter is surgically placed in the peritoneum for infusing and withdrawing dialysate

Answer 262

* Infection * Peritonitis * Abdominal pain

Answer 263

Strict aseptic technique

Answer 264

cloudy drainage from the peritoneum

Answer 265

An approach that improves the quality of life of people and their families/whanau facing the potential problems associated with life-limiting illness through the prevention and relief of suffering by means of assessment and management of physical, psychosocial and spiritual needs. ## Footnote Palliative care focuses on enhancing life quality rather than curing the illness.

Answer 266

It will be high as a newborn and then gradually become lower as they grow older. ## Footnote Heart rates are generally higher in infancy and decrease with age.

Answer 267

It will be high as a newborn and then gradually become lower as they grow older. ## Footnote Respiratory rates are typically higher in newborns and decrease as the child ages.

Answer 268

It will generally become higher (both systolic and diastolic) as they get older. ## Footnote Blood pressure increases as children grow, reflecting changes in body size and vascular resistance.

Answer 269

73/55 (BP), 80–180 (HR), 30–80 (RR), 36.8 (T)(Auxiliary) ## Footnote These values represent the expected ranges for blood pressure, heart rate, respiratory rate, and temperature in newborns.

Answer 270

90/55 (BP), 80–140 (HR), 20–40 (RR), 37.7 (T) (Rectal) ## Footnote Vital signs vary with age; this data is specific to the 1-3 year age group.

Answer 271

95/75 (BP), 75–120 (HR), 15–25 (RR), 37 (T) (Oral) ## Footnote These values are relevant for children in the 6-8 year age range.

Answer 272

102/62 (BP), 75–110 (HR), 15–25 (RR), 37 (T) (Oral) ## Footnote Vital signs for children continue to stabilize as they approach adolescence.

Answer 273

Intravenous, subcutaneous, intramuscular, oral, intrathecal (spinal canal) ## Footnote Intravenous can be further categorized into intermittent infusions, continuous infusions, and bolus.

Answer 274

They are considered 'cytotoxic' and kill cells by preventing them from dividing ## Footnote Cells that are unable to divide will die.

Answer 275

* Causing damage to cellular DNA or RNA * Interrupting chemical processes required for cell division

Answer 276

Cancer cells divide more rapidly than normal cells

Answer 277

Drug and dose dependent ## Footnote Side effects may present at different times during and after treatment.

Answer 278

Hours to days

Answer 279

Days to weeks

Answer 280

Weeks to months

Answer 281

Months to years

Answer 282

De-escalation is the first-line, least restrictive response for managing aggression in healthcare settings.

Answer 283

* Reduces the need for hands-on restraint * Supports therapeutic relationships * Improves staff well-being and job satisfaction

Answer 284

* Maintaining safety * Self-regulation * Effective communication * Continual assessment and action

Answer 285

Ensuring safety of healthcare staff and others

Answer 286

Assess situations carefully to avoid escalating conflicts with shows of force or crowding.

Answer 287

At least two arm’s lengths distance

Answer 288

Move individuals to quieter areas and reduce onlookers.

Answer 289

[first-line, least restrictive]

Answer 290

To provide treatment in the least restrictive environment.

Answer 291

An abnormal state of mind characterized by delusions, disorders of mood, perception, or cognition that poses a serious danger to health or safety.

Answer 292

The person must pose a serious danger to themselves or others or seriously diminish their capacity to care for themselves.

Answer 293

An applicant who is 18 or over and can provide a written application stating their relationship to the proposed patient.

Answer 294

A medical certificate from a registered medical practitioner stating reasonable grounds for believing the person is mentally disordered.

Answer 295

To nominate a psychiatrist or qualified medical practitioner for the examination and determine the time and place.

Answer 296

The person is free from further assessment and treatment under the Act.

Answer 297

5 days from the date the patient receives written notice.

Answer 298

Make an application for review of their condition by a judge.

Answer 299

Administration of psychiatric medications, limitation of movement, and the use of restraint and seclusion.

Answer 300

De-escalation, medication, restraint, then seclusion.

Answer 301

Complete a certificate of further assessment determining the patient's mental disorder status.

Answer 302

14 days from the date the patient receives written notification.

Answer 303

Whether the patient is fit to be released from compulsory status.

Answer 304

The responsible clinician must apply to the court for a compulsory treatment order.

Answer 305

They remain subject to assessment and treatment for a further 14 days or until the application is heard.

Answer 306

Yes, clients may appeal at any time.

Answer 307

[treatment]

Answer 308

Detention in a specified hospital and acceptance of treatment.

Answer 309

To detain a patient for up to 6 hours if they believe the patient to be mentally disordered.

Answer 310

Staff must place the client under Section 111 before taking other actions.

Answer 311

Shock occurs when the cardiovascular system fails to maintain adequate tissue perfusion, resulting in widespread impairment of cellular metabolism and function. ## Footnote Shock can lead to severe consequences if not addressed promptly.

Answer 312

Shock ultimately progresses to multiple organ failure and death if homeostatic compensatory mechanisms, or clinical intervention, are not successful. ## Footnote Timely intervention is crucial to prevent the deterioration of the patient's condition.

Answer 313

Homeostatic compensatory mechanisms attempt to maintain tissue perfusion during shock. ## Footnote These mechanisms can become overwhelmed, leading to further complications.

Answer 314

Uncontrolled inflammatory and stress responses can result in positive feedback loops leading to a progressive worsening of the physiological state. ## Footnote This escalation can make clinical intervention more challenging.

Answer 315

tissue perfusion

Answer 316

To prevent harm using practical, evidence-based practices and procedures to protect patients, visitors, residents, clients and health workers from being harmed by avoidable infections in the healthcare setting. ## Footnote IPC stands for Infection Prevention and Control.

Answer 317

* PPE * Administrative controls * Engineering controls * Elimination ## Footnote PPE stands for Personal Protective Equipment.

Answer 318

Work policies and procedures that prevent pathogen exposure. ## Footnote Administrative controls are essential in managing infection risks.

Answer 319

Hospital design and room set up. ## Footnote Engineering controls aim to reduce exposure to hazards through physical changes.

Answer 320

Removes or prevents entry of the pathogen. ## Footnote Elimination is the most effective way to control infection risks.

Answer 321

1. Before touching a patient 2. Before a procedure 3. After a procedure or body fluid exposure risk 4. After touching a patient 5. After touching a patient's surroundings ## Footnote These moments are critical for preventing healthcare-associated infections.

Answer 322

HH; Gown/Gloves ## Footnote HH stands for Hand Hygiene

Answer 323

HH; Surgical mask / Eyewear ## Footnote HH stands for Hand Hygiene

Answer 324

HH; N95/ Eyewear ## Footnote HH stands for Hand Hygiene

Answer 325

HH; Gown/Gloves Mask/Eyewear ## Footnote HH stands for Hand Hygiene

Answer 326

Stay away if unwell ## Footnote This is part of Protective precautions

Answer 327

Stay at home and notify manager ## Footnote Includes influenza-like illness, diarrhea, and/or vomiting

Answer 328

48 hours without fever and/or diarrhea ## Footnote Important for preventing the spread of illness

Answer 329

Perform 5 moments of hand hygiene ## Footnote Critical for infection control

Answer 330

Clean, disinfect or reprocess ## Footnote Ensures equipment and surfaces are safe

Answer 331

Follow respiratory hygiene and cough etiquette ## Footnote Helps prevent the spread of respiratory infections

Answer 332

Use and dispose of sharps safely ## Footnote Prevents needle-stick injuries and infections

Answer 333

Use PPE ## Footnote Personal Protective Equipment is essential in healthcare settings

Answer 334

Use aseptic touch technique ## Footnote Reduces the risk of contamination

Answer 335

Perform regular cleaning ## Footnote Maintains a safe and hygienic environment

Answer 336

Handle and dispose of waste and used linen safely ## Footnote Essential for infection control and safety

Answer 337

50% ## Footnote This statistic highlights the importance of early intervention in mental health.

Answer 338

Self-harm ## Footnote This emphasizes the critical need for mental health support among adolescents.

Answer 339

80% ## Footnote Often goes untreated, leading to long-term consequences.

Answer 340

Alcohol and substance use ## Footnote This can negatively impact both physical and mental health.

Answer 341

Cannabis ## Footnote This indicates a significant public health concern regarding substance use.

Answer 342

* Motor vehicle accidents * Suicide ## Footnote These risks highlight the dangers associated with substance abuse.

Answer 343

* Loved, safe & nurtured * Have what they need * Are happy & healthy * Are learning & developing * Are accepted, respected & connected * Are involved & empowered ## Footnote These priorities aim to enhance the overall wellbeing of children and youth.

Answer 344

They feel loved and supported, safe from harm, and can spend quality time with family ## Footnote Indicators include feeling loved and safe, family wellbeing, and injury prevalence.

Answer 345

nutritious food ## Footnote It also emphasizes stable and affordable housing.

Answer 346

Best possible health, good mental wellbeing, and recovery from trauma ## Footnote Indicators include prenatal care and mental wellbeing.

Answer 347

They are positively engaged in education and developing essential skills ## Footnote Indicators include school attendance and social skills.

Answer 348

They feel valued and connected to their culture, free from discrimination ## Footnote Indicators include sense of belonging and experience of bullying.

Answer 349

They contribute positively to their communities and have their voices heard ## Footnote This includes making healthy choices and exercising autonomy.

Answer 350

True ## Footnote This includes risks like physical assault and drowning.

Answer 351

A chronic functional disorder of the colon characterized by constipation or diarrhoea, cramping abdominal pain, flatulence, and the passage of mucus in the stool ## Footnote IBS has no organic cause and is considered a functional disorder of the GI system.

Answer 352

Psychological stressors ## Footnote Stress can significantly impact gastrointestinal function and symptoms.

Answer 353

A group of chronic disorders including Crohn's disease and ulcerative colitis ## Footnote IBD is characterized by inflammation of the gastrointestinal tract.

Answer 354

15 – 25 years ## Footnote This age range indicates a critical period for the development of IBD.

Answer 355

* Pesticides * Food additives * Tobacco * Radiation ## Footnote These environmental factors may contribute to the development or exacerbation of IBD.

Answer 356

Positive family history ## Footnote A family history of IBD significantly increases individual risk.

Answer 357

* Abdominal distension * Bloating * Flatulence * Urgency * Relief following defecation * Fatigue * Sleep disturbance * Cramping pain (lower quadrants) * Straining * Hard to loose/watery stools ## Footnote These symptoms can greatly affect quality of life.

Answer 358

* Eliminating symptoms * Normalizing quality of life * Restoring growth * Preventing complications * Minimizing adverse effects of medications ## Footnote Effective treatment aims to manage both the disease and its impact on patients' lives.

Answer 359

True ## Footnote The prevalence of IBD is higher in developed nations, possibly due to lifestyle and environmental factors.

Answer 360

* Crohn's disease * Ulcerative colitis ## Footnote Both conditions share similarities but also have distinct characteristics.

Answer 361

GI ## Footnote Gastrointestinal infections and food intolerances like lactose, sorbitol, and xylitol can contribute to IBS symptoms.

Answer 362

* Colon cancer * Skin lesions * Eye lesions * Joint abnormalities * Liver disease ## Footnote The chronic inflammation associated with IBD can lead to various complications beyond gastrointestinal symptoms.

Answer 363

Preventing and treating conditions related to the nervous system ## Footnote This includes the brain, spinal cord, nerves, and muscles.

Answer 364

Conditions related to the nervous system ## Footnote Such as disorders affecting the brain, spinal cord, nerves, and muscles.

Answer 365

When the tip of the cannula slips out of or through the vein ## Footnote This can lead to complications in IV therapy.

Answer 366

Infection in the vessel wall ## Footnote Can be mechanical, chemical, or bacterial in nature.

Answer 367

Bacteria in subcutaneous tissue ## Footnote This can occur due to improper technique or hygiene.

Answer 368

Increased BP, pulse, respirations, and dyspnea ## Footnote Indicates excess fluid in the body.

Answer 369

Air bubble that enters the bloodstream ## Footnote Most commonly seen with central venous access devices (CVAD).

Answer 370

Sudden chest or shoulder pain, dyspnea, hypotension, cyanosis, and changed level of consciousness ## Footnote These symptoms require immediate medical attention.

Answer 371

Pyrexia ## Footnote Pyrexia refers to an elevated body temperature, often indicating infection or inflammation.

Answer 372

Increased respiratory rate ## Footnote Tachypnoea can be a sign of respiratory distress or other medical conditions.

Answer 373

Increased heart rate ## Footnote Tachycardia may result from exercise, anxiety, or medical conditions.

Answer 374

Bradycardia ## Footnote Bradycardia is characterized by a slower than normal heart rate.

Answer 375

Low blood pressure ## Footnote Hypotension can cause dizziness or fainting and may indicate shock.

Answer 376

Changes in awareness or responsiveness ## Footnote This can indicate a range of conditions from hypoxia to neurological issues.

Answer 377

Decreased urine output ## Footnote Oliguria can be a sign of kidney dysfunction or dehydration.

Answer 378

Septic shock is part of the continuum of sepsis characterized by circulatory and cellular metabolic abnormalities that significantly increase morbidity.

Answer 379

Septic shock develops as the inflammatory response to sepsis affects tissue perfusion.

Answer 380

* Activation of macrophages * Complement system * Coagulation * Release of inflammatory mediators and chemicals

Answer 381

Widespread vasodilation and increased capillary permeability leading to hypotension.

Answer 382

Tachycardia with increased cardiac output.

Answer 383

It falls due to the depression of myocardial contractility by inflammatory chemicals.

Answer 384

* Fall in cardiac output * Decreased vascular resistance * Coagulation

Answer 385

* Temperature instability (too high or too low) * Tachycardia * Increased respiratory rate (>20 breaths/minute) * Hypoxemia * Increased white blood cell counts * Oliguria, renal dysfunction * Confusion, impaired mental activity * Respiratory distress syndrome * Coagulopathies * Hyperbilirubinemia & jaundice

Answer 386

* Antimicrobial therapy & control of infection source * Fluid resuscitation * Inotropes * Vasopressors * Cardiorespiratory support (oxygen, ventilation)

Answer 387

Airway ## Footnote Focus on removing obstructions and assessing swallowing ability.

Answer 388

Breathing * RR (Respiratory Rate) * SpO2 (Oxygen Saturation) * Rate, rhythm, depth * Use of accessory muscles * Work of breathing * Wheeze/crackles * Equal breath sounds * Oxygen use

Answer 389

Circulation ## Footnote Assess heart rate, blood pressure, and peripheral circulation.

Answer 390

Disability ## Footnote Involves assessing pupils, blood glucose level, and brain protection.

Answer 391

Exposure * Identify injuries * Protect from hypothermia * Check for critical skin conditions

Answer 392

Appearance includes * Height * Weight * Grooming * Mode of dress * Identifying scars, marks, or tattoos

Answer 393

Eye contact, posture, psychomotor activity, distractibility, and evidence of hallucinations

Answer 394

A pattern of observable behaviour expressing a subjectively experienced feeling state. ## Footnote Can be broad, restricted, blunted, flat, inappropriate, or labile.

Answer 395

A pervasive feeling tone not related to an object, influencing perception of the world.

Answer 396

How the client speaks and their capacity to manipulate symbols in words, images, and ideas.

Answer 397

Suicidal intent refers to the intensity of desire to end life, while suicidal risk refers to the probability of a suicide attempt.

Answer 398

* Being controlled * Thought removal/blocking * Thought insertion * Thought broadcasting * Reference/misinterpretation * Nihilism * Persecutory * Grandiose

Answer 399

Awareness, orientation, memory, abstract thought, intelligence, insight, and judgement.

Answer 400

Assess for effective cough ## Footnote An effective cough indicates that the person is able to expel the foreign material.

Answer 401

Provide reassurance and encouragement to keep coughing ## Footnote This helps the person to expel the foreign material.

Answer 402

Call for help ## Footnote This is crucial for obtaining assistance in a choking situation.

Answer 403

Up to five sharp back blows ## Footnote These should be delivered with the heel of one hand in the middle of the back.

Answer 404

Perform up to five chest thrusts ## Footnote Chest thrusts are similar to CPR compressions but delivered at a slower rate.

Answer 405

Continue alternating five back blows with five chest thrusts ## Footnote This cycle should be repeated until the obstruction is relieved.

Answer 406

Perform a finger sweep if solid material is visible ## Footnote This can help remove the blockage from the airway.

Answer 407

Call for help and start CPR ## Footnote CPR is essential if the person does not regain consciousness.

Answer 408

Airway adjuncts (LMA/ ETT) ## Footnote LMA stands for Laryngeal Mask Airway and ETT stands for Endotracheal Tube.

Answer 409

Waveform capnography ## Footnote Waveform capnography provides real-time feedback on the quality of CPR and ventilation.

Answer 410

IV / IO access ## Footnote IO stands for Intraosseous access, which may be used when IV access is difficult.

Answer 411

Plan actions before interrupting compressions (e.g. charge manual defibrillator) ## Footnote This ensures that compressions are minimized during critical interventions.

Answer 412

Adrenaline 1 mg after 2nd shock (then every 2nd loop) ## Footnote Adrenaline is critical for improving coronary and cerebral perfusion during cardiac arrest.

Answer 413

Amiodarone 300mg after 3 shocks ## Footnote Amiodarone is an antiarrhythmic medication used in advanced life support.

Answer 414

Adrenaline 1 mg immediately (then every 2nd loop) ## Footnote Administering adrenaline quickly is crucial in non-shockable cardiac arrest scenarios.

Answer 415

* Hypoxia * Hypovolaemia * Hyper / hypokalaemia / metabolic disorders * Hypothermia / hyperthermia * Tension pneumothorax * Tamponade * Toxins * Thrombosis (pulmonary / coronary) ## Footnote These conditions can often be treated and may lead to improved patient outcomes.

Answer 416

Re-evaluate ABCDE ## Footnote ABCDE stands for Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability, and Exposure.

Answer 417

Aim for: SpO2 94-98% ## Footnote Maintaining appropriate oxygen saturation is essential for patient recovery.

Answer 418

Aim for normocapnia ## Footnote Normocapnia indicates normal levels of carbon dioxide in the blood, which is important for metabolic function.

Answer 419

Targeted temperature management ## Footnote This involves controlling the patient's body temperature to improve neurological outcomes after cardiac arrest.

Brief information Flashcards

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