Which section of the MCA 2005 refers to lasting powers of attorney?
What 2 decisions can a person confer authority on another for?
How old must a person be to confer an LPA?
What must a person have before they can confer a LPA?
A
Section 9
Financial matters, and their personal welfare
18 years old
Capacity
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2
Q
How old must a person be to make an advanced decision?
What must the patient do in order for an AD to be valid?
Does a withdrawal of an AD need to be in writing?
What can nullify an advanced decision?
What are the 3 things that can invalidate an AD?
What must an AD in relation to life sustaining treatment have? (2)
What are the barriers to advanced care planning? (5)
A
18 yrs old
Must specify the treatment they are refusing
No
A lasting power of attorney
Treatment not being specified, Any specified circumstances are absent, or if there are reasonable grounds to believe patient didnt anticipate something
In writing and witnessed, patient must make clear that it is to apply in that situation
Lack of skills, difficult conversations, resources, logistics, inequality in terms of access
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3
Q
What is an advanced statement?
What is its effect?
Is it legally binding?
A
Statement setting down preferences etc regarding future care
Provides guidance to those making decisions about the patient (Best interests)
No, only advisory
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4
Q
Do patients with capacity have the right to refuse treatment?
Is there a right to demand treatment?
Which case demonstrates this?
A
Yes
No
R v Burke
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5
Q
What does the double effect doctrine say?
What does s2 of the suicide act 1961 say?
What does s1 say?
What was the result of R v Purdy & Pretty v UK?
A
Doctors who administer medication to relieve a patients pain and suffering, but which could cause their death are legally protected
It is an offence to aid and abet the suicide of another person
Suicide is legal, no crime is committed
DPP set out factors which would lead to prosecution of a person aiding another to commit suicide. Doctors will very likely always be charged. There is no right to die in the UK
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6
Q
What is the aim of end of life care?
What is palliative care?
A
To allow a person to live as well as possible and die with dignity
Making a patient as confortable as possible with psychological, social and spiritual support for them
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7
Q
What are the 2 aspects of the health belief model?
What are the 2 key beliefs of threat perception?
What are the 2 key beleifs of behavioural evaluation?
A
Threat perception and behavioural evaluation
susceptibility to illness or health problems & anticipated severity of the illness
beliefs about the benefits of a recommended health behaviour & concerning the costs of or barriers to enacting that behaviour
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8
Q
What is stress?
What is a stressor?
What are the physiological symptoms of stress? (4)
What is activated when a situation is deemed stressful?
What is the short term response by the body? what pathway?
What is the long term response? what pathway?
A
Physiological response when we encounter a threat we feel we dont have the resources to deal with
Stimulus that causes stress
Increased HR, BR, decrease in digestive activity, and liver releases glucose for energy
Hypothalamus
Fight or flight response - Sympathomedullary pathway
Hypothalamic pituitary adrenal pathway
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9
Q
In the HPA axis what is activated first?
What does this then stimulate?
What hormone is secreted?
What is the purpose of it?
What does it also do which can be detrimental?
A
Hypothalamus
Pituitary gland
Adenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
Enables body to maintain steady supply of glucose to cope with the stressor
Suppresses the immune system
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10
Q
In the SAM pathway, what is activated first?
What does it then activate?
What does this secrete?
What is the physiological response? (2)
What happens when the threat is over?
A
Hypothalamus
Adrenal medulla
Adrenaline
Leads to arousal of SNS and reduces activity of PNS (Decrease in digestion etc)
When threat is over, the PNS takes over and balances the body again
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11
Q
What are the 2 types of coping responses?
What is emotion focused coping?
When is this useful?
Is it useful?
Who is more likely to use this method of coping? (Men or women)
What is problem focused coping?
Is it useful?
A
Emotion focused coping & Problem focused coping
Aim is to reduce negative emotional responses associated with stress
When the source of the stress is outside the persons control
No, Doesnt provide long term solution, just delays the persons problem
Women
Targets the cause of the stress, such as using social support or problem solving
Yes as it deals with the root cause of the stress, but only works if the stressor is within their control
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12
Q
How are neurons classified?
Identify the different types of neurons:
Unipolar
Bipolar
Multipolar
Pseudo-unipolar
A
Based on the number of axons and dendrites that extend from the soma
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13
Q
What are the other types of glial cells? (4)
What is the difference between an oligodendrocyte, and a Schwann cell?
1. What are the Mcdonald criteria used for?
2. What is required in terms of lesions?
3. What is the time requirement?
1. Early diagnosis of MS
2. Lesions in 2 areas out of 4 (Periventricular, juxtacortical, infratentorial, or spinal cord)
3. Must have new lesion with reference to baseline scan (2 attacks at least)
28
1. What are MRI scans used for?
2. What does it image?
3. Which molecule?
4. What is emitted by the protons?
5. What will be seen in non-myelinated areas?
1. Imaging the brain, spinal cord, etc.
2. Measuring water content in tissue
3. H+ or protons
4. Resonance signals, which are picked up
5. More water content - so bright spot or darkened area
29
1. What is a T1 weighted scan?
2. What does it show?
3. Why is it useful?
1. MRI exhanced with Gadolinium
2. Shows areas of active inflammation
3. Shows areas where the BBB has broken down, shouldnt normally cross it
30
1. What are the better prognostic factors?
2. Which are the poor prognostic factors?
1. Being female, caucasian, and low relapse rate
2. non-white, male, smokers, high relapse rate
31
1. What are the 7 components of a neurological exam?
1. General appearance
2. Mini mental status exam
3. Cranial nerve examination
4. Motor system examination
5. Sensory system examination
6. Reflex exam
7. Coordination exam
32
1. What is the visual evoked potential test?
2. What does it detect?
3. How is this relevant for MS?
4. What are the 3 other types of evoked potential?
1. Measures electrical activity of brain in response to stimulation
2. Detects slowing of electrical conduction
3. Can show demyelination as this would lead to slowed conduction
4. Visual evoked potential, brainstem auditory evoked potentials, sensory evoked potentials
33
1. What are some of the symtpoms of Major Depressive disorder?
2. What must the patient have to be diagnosed under DSM IV?
3. Within what time period must they have these symptoms?
1. Low mood, self esteem, loss of libido, sleep disturbance
2. Little interest or pleasure in things nearly every day & Feeling down and depressed more than half of the days
3. 2 weeks
34
1. What areas are thought to be involved? (3)
2. What are the 2 types of depressive syndrome?
3.
1. What are the areas of the dorsal neural system?
2. Is it underactive or overactive?
1. Hippocampus, Dorsal anterior cingulate, DLPFC
2. Underactive - leads to apathy, deficits in attention
38
1. What are the genetic vulnerabilities which lead to MDD?
2. What are the 3 variations of the gene?
3. Which has a higher likelihood of MDD?
4. What is the normal combination of the alleles?
1. Which serotonin receptors are positive?
2. What type of receptors are they?
3. What does NA do to th 5HT receptor?
4. What does the a2 receptor do?
1. All except for 5HT1 and 5HT5
2. All are G protein except for 5HT3
3. Activates a1 receptor, Increases firing of the 5HT cell
4. Decrease firing, so switches off 5-HT release
40
1. What is thought to be the cause of depression?
2. What hormone is increased in the brain? (2)
3. What does this affect?
4. What causes the decrease in hippocampal volume?
1. Deficit of NA and 5-HT transmitters
2. Corticotrophin releasing hormone (CRH) & Cortisol
3. Dysregulates the amygdala, and increases MAO so decreases NT's
4. Decrease in BDNF or malfunction of its receptor (TrkB)