Ch. 49 Flashcards

(60 cards)

1
Q

Which of the following drugs are also known as clot busters?
a. fibrinolytics
b. diuretics
c. analgesics
d. anticholinergics

A

a. fibrinolytics

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2
Q

Tegretol, Dilantin, and Zarontin are:
a. antidiarrheals
b. antidepressants
c. anticonvulsants
d. anticoagulants

A

c. anticonvulsants

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3
Q

Medications given ______ reach the bloodstream more rapidly than other routes.
a. transdermally
b. orally
c. by injection
d. sublingually

A

c. by injection

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4
Q

The purpose of the _________ is to provide accurate, reliable, and current information about most prescribed medications and related products.
a. nursing drug handbook
b. Physician’s Desk Reference for Nonprescription Drugs
c. Physician’s Desk Reference (PDR)
d. product inserts provided by the manufacturer with a medication

A

c. Physician’s Desk Reference (PDR)

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5
Q

Patients with which of the following conditions should not take over-the-counter (OTC) decongestants without first consulting with their doctor?
a. hepatitis
b. low blood pressure
c. heart disease
d. diabetes

A

c. heart disease

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6
Q

Which of the following types of drug information appear last in the Product Information section of the PDR?
a. brand names
b. warnings
c. how supplied
d. adverse reactions

A

c. how supplied

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7
Q

The effects of a drug are categorized as ______ if they are generalized throughout the body.
a. remote
b. systemic
c. myopic
d. local

A

b. systemic

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8
Q

Which of the following is a Schedule II controlled substance?
a. heroin
b. small amounts of codeine in cough preparations
c. phenobarbital
d. morphine

A

d. morphine

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9
Q

Which type of drug stops the development, maturation, or spread of a cancer cell?
a. sedative
b. vasopressor
c. hemostatic
d. antineoplastic

A

d. antineoplastic

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10
Q

The trade name of a drug:
a. is usually more difficult to remember than the generic name
b. is assigned by the drug manufacturer for marketing
c. must be approved by CMS
d. is never capitalized

A

b. is assigned by the drug manufacturer for marketing

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11
Q

Vasodilators do which of the following:
a. allow for decreased circulation to the area supplied by the vessel
b. raise blood pressure
c. cause the inner diameter of the vessel walls to widen
d. relax the smooth muscle outside the vessel walls

A

c. cause the inner diameter of the vessel walls to widen

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12
Q

A Schedule IV controlled substance may be refilled:
a. up to two times in one month
b. never
c. up to five times in six months
d. no more than once

A

c. up to five times in six months

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13
Q

Which section of the PDR lists the page number of each product by both brand and generic names?
a. Section 4
b. Section 1
c. Section 3
d. Section 2

A

d. Section 2

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14
Q

The medical assistant’s list of commonly prescribed medications should include which of the following?
a. all the responses are correct
b. possible side effects
c. usual dosage
d. contraindications

A

a. all the responses are correct

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15
Q

A _____ controlled substance has a high potential for psychological dependence.
a. Schedule IV
b. Schedule V
c. Schedule 1
d. Schedule III

A

d. Schedule III

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16
Q

Medications in the storage cabinet or closet should be organized:
a. by date of arrival in the office or alphabetically
b. according to their expiration date or classification
c. alphabetically or according to their classification
d. by date of arrival in the office or according to their expiration date.

A

c. alphabetically or according to their classification

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17
Q

Antihypertensives control blood pressure by:
a. speeding up the heart rate
b. blocking calcium channels
c. causing arterial smooth muscle to contract
d. opening calcium channels

A

b. blocking calcium channels

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18
Q

Which of the following consist of medication bound together by substances that dissolve in stomach acids?
a. tablets
b. suppositories
c. inhalants
d. powders

A

a. tablets

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19
Q

In most states, the disposal of controlled substances requires witness of destruction by which of the following?
a. nurses
b. licensed pharmacists
c. all of the responses are correct
d. law enforcement personnel (in some cases)

A

c. all of the responses are correct

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20
Q

Which class of antiarrhythmic drugs interferes with potassium channels to prolong the period in which the next heartbeat can occur?
a. Class I
b. Class IV
c. Class III
d. Class II

A

c. Class III

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21
Q

Narcotics do not:
a. cause hyperactivity
b. sometimes cause respiratory depression
c. provider a greater level of pain relief than analgesics
d. interfere with the central nervous system’s recognition of pain impulses

A

a. cause hyperactivity

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22
Q

Which type of drug counteracts poisons and their effects selectively by binding with the toxin to inhibit further absorption?
a. antibiotic
b. antidote
c. hypnotic
d. expectorant

A

b. antidote

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23
Q

Which of the following is not required to be included on a prescription?
a. checkbox indicating whether it should be dispense at written (DAW)
b. practitioner’s name and address
c. number of refills
d. the medical assistant’s signature

A

d. the medical assistant’s signature

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24
Q

Antihypertensives prevent or control high blood pressure by:
a. decreasing heart rate
b. all the responses are correct
c. reducing circulating fluid volume
d. dilating blood vessels

A

b. all the responses are correct

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25
An implantable device that may provide a constant and consistent delivery of a specific dose of medication. Examples include pain medication and insulin pumps
Liquids
26
Antipyretics reduce fever by acting on which part of the brain? a. midbrain b. hypothalamus c. pons d. pituitary gland
b. hypothalamus
27
When adding or subtracting fractions, you must first: a. add the denominators b. change any mixed fractions to improper fractions c. change any improper fractions to mixed fractions d. make sure each fraction has the same numerator
b. change any mixed fractions to improper fractions
28
percent means ___________ and a ___________ expresses a value that is part of 100. a. ratio of/percentage b. percentage/per hundred c. per hundred/ratio d. per hundred / percentage
d. per hundred / percentage
29
The first system of medication measurement was the __________ system. a. metric b. household c. apothecary d. English
c. apothecary
30
If a provider marks a prescription dispense as written (DAW), it means: a. only the specific medication prescribed may be given to the patient b. the patient should only take the medication with meals c. the pharmacist must mix ingredients together to create the medication d. a trade or generic medication may be substituted
a. only the specific medication prescribed may be given to the patient
31
If you are administering drops to a patient's right eye, the patient's head should be: a. leaning all the way back, not tilting to either side b. tilted slightly to the left c. facing forward d. tilted slightly to the right
d. tilted slightly to the right
32
When taking ______, the patient must remain upright for at least on hour following administration. a. an osteoporosis medication such as Boniva b. Valium c. Coumadin d. any cholesterol-lowering drug
a. an osteoporosis medication such as Boniva
33
The benefits of an immunization registry include all but which of the following? a. eliminating all potentially harmful side effects of immunizations b. preventing over-immunization of children c. ensuring that new immunizations are provided as thy become available d. preventing under-immunization of children
a. eliminating all potentially harmful side effects of immunizations
34
Which of the Seven Rights refers to how the mediation is administered? a. right technique b. right time c. right medication d. right patient
a. right technique
35
Which of the following varies state by state and is a requirement for a medication order to be considered legal? a. DEA number of the prescriber b. Signature of the prescriber c. Frequency or how often the medication is ordered d. Route of administration of the medication
b. Signature of the prescriber
36
The route of administration of a given drug is chosen based on which of the following? a. biotransformation b. rate of absorption desired c. all responses are correct d. distribution
c. all responses are correct
37
Which of the following statements is false regarding medication errors? a. Some errors might require emergency intervention b. Some errors require monitoring the patient c. It is okay to cover it up if the intent is to protect patient privacy d. Medication errors cost billions of dollars each rear in the US
c. It is okay to cover it up if the intent is to protect patient privacy
38
By which of the following routes would the medical assistant not administer medications? a. rectal b. injectable c. oral d. intravenous
d. intravenous
39
Companies that produce immunizations are required to assign lot number to each batch of the product. These lot number are used to provide: a. assist the manufacturer so they can conduct an evaluation to find the cause of the patient's problem b. all the responses are correct c .track and report any adverse evens experienced by one or more patients d. provide the manufacturer with information needed to file a report with the Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
b. all the responses are correct
40
When preparing a medication, you first obtain the order from the chart and then: a. document the prescription correctly in the patient's chart b. obtain the prescriber's signature c. compare patient identifiers d. fill in the prescription fields
c. compare patient identifiers
41
For immunizations, record the name of the medication, lot number, and: a. container's expiration date b. all the responses are correct c. serial number (f applicable) d. name of the manufacturing pharmaceutical company
b. all the responses are correct
42
When administering an IM injection by the Z-track method, after expelling the medication you should remove the needle quickly and: a. squeeze the injection site gently b. let go of the skin quickly c. massage the area d. hold your bare finger over the injection site to encourage clotting
b. let go of the skin quickly
43
Intradermal (ID) injections are used in ______ and tuberculin testing. a. allergy b. hepatitis c. pregnancy d. cancer
a. allergy
44
Cervarix and Gardasil are vaccines for: a. hepatitis B b. human immunodeficiency virus c. hepatitis A d. human papillomavirus
d. human papillomavirus
45
Rubella is also known as: a. German measles b. mumps c. whooping cough d. scarlet fever
a. German measles
46
The _______ is the preferred injection site for infants and young children. a. rectus femoris b. vastus intermedius c. vastus medialis d. vastus lateralis
d. vastus lateralis
47
The parenteral route of administering medication: a. all the responses are correct b. is injecting medication through the skin or directly into a vein or artery c. involves increased risks d. involved increased costs
a. all the responses are correct
48
Which of the following statements is true about needle safety? a. Some have a sheath cover that clicks into place to cover the used needle completely b. All the responses are correct c. Some needle and syringe units have a shield that locks into place over used needles to prevent injury to the user d. There are safety devices that activate by the touch of a finger to click a shield over the used needle or retract the needle into a sleeve on the syringe
b. All the responses are correct
49
Each small line on a 3-mL syringe represents __ mL. a. 1/2 b. 1/3 c. 1/4 d. 1/10
d. 1/10
50
What is the incubation period for rubeola measles? a. 5-10 days b. 2-3 days c. 14-28 days d. 7-23 days
d. 7-23 days
51
Which of the following are human symptoms of rabies? a. vomiting, headache, and convulsions b. fever, aggressive behavior, and hallucinations c. blurred vision, joint pain, and hunger d. irrational behavior and foaming of the mouth
b. fever, aggressive behavior, and hallucinations
52
How long is the needle used to administer intramuscular (IM) injections? a. five to seven inched or longer b. smaller than one inch c. one to three inches or longer d. no longer than two inches
c. one to three inches or longer
53
When are medical assistants permitted to change an IV bag? a. when it contains either fluids or medications b. they are never allowed to c. when it contains only medications d. when it contains only fluids
b. they are never allowed to
54
Diphtheria diagnosis is confirmed by: a. breathing test b. urinalysis c. throat culture d. blood testing
c. throat culture
55
Subcutaneous injections are not commonly given at which part of the body? a. abdominal area b. upper outer part of the arm c. upper buttock d. upper thigh
c. upper buttock
56
The Varivax vaccine is given by injection to children between the ages of: a. 4 and 8 months b. 3 and 5 years c. 7 and 10 years d. 12 and 15 months
d. 12 and 15 months
57
Which agency publishes an annual recommended childhood and adolescent immunization schedule for the United States? a. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) b. The Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) c. The Food and Drug Administration d. The Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA)
a. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
58
Which complication of Hemophilus influenza type B could cause a child to choke to death if immediate treatment is not given? a. arthritis b. tendonitis c. meningitis d. epiglottis
d. epiglottis
59
Medical assistants are not permitted to administer medications through which of the following route(s)? a. intradermal b. intramuscular c. intrathecal d. subcutaneous
c. intrathecal
60
Which of the following is an example of a killed pathogen vaccine? a. varicella b. diphtheria c. tetanus d. rabies
d. rabies