Chapt 5 Microbial pathogenesis Flashcards by Esther Vázquez

Bordetella pathogenesis

Paralyze ciliary beat

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Helicobacter pathogenesis

Breakdown mucus

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Main chemoattractant for Brachyspira hyodyseneteriae

Mucus (and gobblet cells) of colon and caecum

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What intestinal cells are not covered by mucus

M cells

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Main colonization target for Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae

Cilia or microvili (adhesion –> ciliostasis)

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Main colonization target For Lawsonia intracellularis

Epithelial cells (endocytosis) –> escape from phagolysosome

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Example of cell polarity / dependant entry

Parvovirus, influenza (domain specific receptor)

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Pathogenesis Rhodoccous equi

Leukocyte trokan horse (leukocyte trafficking macrophages and dendritic cells)

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Pathogenesis Bovine herpesvirus 5

Nerve ending entry - retrograde axonal transport until CNS

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Examples of microorganisms using M cell entry

PCV2, Salmonella, prions (transcytosis)

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Which of the following microorganism entry trough transcytosis
a. Rhodococcus equi
b. Leptospira spp.
c. Poxviruses
d. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

d. Erysiperlothrix rhusiopathiae

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Which of the following microorganism entry trough using intercellular direct entry (motility)
a. Rhodococcus equi
b. Leptospira spp.
c. Poxviruses
d. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

b. Leptospira spp

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Clostridum enterotoxin target on tight junctions

A. ZO-1
B. ZO-2
C. claudin
D. Cingulin

C. Claudin

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Helicobacter pylori target ok tight junctions

A. ZO-1
B. ZO-2
C. claudin
D. TAMPs

C. claudin

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Clostridium difficile, toxin A, target

A. ZO-1
B. ZO-2
C. claudin
D. TAMPs

A. ZO-1

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Reovirus target

JAM of tigh junctions

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Examples of diseases of barrier systems

Epitheliogenesis imperfecta
Primary ciliary dyskinesia

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Other organs affected in ciliary dyskinesia

Reproductive system, auditory canal and ependimal cells (ventricular system)

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Which of the following microorganism does NOT cause ciliary paralysis
a. Filobacterum rodentium
b. Haemophilus influenzae
c. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
d. Mycobacterium spp

d. Mycobacterium spp

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What is the mechanism of action for Staphylococcus aureus alpha-toxin?
A. Enzymatic lysis
B. Pore formation
C. Dysfunction of ion pumps
D. Inhibition of protein synthesis

B. Pore formation

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What is the mechanism used by PCV2 to cross mucosae ?
A. Intercellular direct entry (motility)
B. Leukocyte trafficking
C. Endocytosis via M cells
D. Endocytosis via epithelial cells

C. Endocytosis via M cells

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What is the mechanism used by Leptospira spp. to cross mucosae ?
A. Intercellular direct entry (motility)
B. Leukocyte trafficking
C. Endocytosis via M cells
D. Endocytosis via epithelial cells

A. Intercellular direct entry (motility)

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What is the mechanism used by Rhodoccocus equi to cross mucosae ?
A. Intercellular direct entry (motility)
B. Leukocyte trafficking
C. Endocytosis via M cells
D. Mucosa associate nerve endings

B. Leukocyte trafficking

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What is the mechanism used by Lawsonia intracellularis to cross mucosae ?
A. Intercellular direct entry (motility)
B. Leukocyte trafficking
C. Endocytosis via M cells
D. Endocytosis via epithelial cells

D. Endocytosis via epithelial cells

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What is the mechanism used by Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae to cross mucosae ? A. Intercellular direct entry (motility) B. Leukocyte trafficking C. Endocytosis via M cells D. Endocytosis via epithelial cells

D. Endocytosis via epithelial cells

What is the mechanism used by Bovine herpes virus 4 to cross mucosae ? A. Intercellular direct entry (motility) B. Mucosa associated nerve endings C. Endocytosis via M cells D. Endocytosis via epithelial cells

B. Mucosa associated nerve endings

What is the main virulence factor of Listeria monocytogenes A. LPS B. Invasin C. Neuraminidase D. Haemaglutinin

B. Invasin (inlB)

What is the mechanism of action for Clostridium perfringes alpha-toxin? A. Enzymatic lysis B. Pore formation C. Dysfunction of ion pumps D. Inhibition of protein synthesis

A. Enzymatic lysis (phospholipase C)

What is the mechanism of action for Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis? A. Enzymatic lysis B. Selective protein inactivation C. Dysfunction of ion pumps D. Inhibition of protein synthesis

D. Inhibition of protein synthesis

What is the mechanism of action of enterotoxigenic E.coli? A. Enzymatic lysis B. Selective protein inactivation C. Dysfunction of ion pumps D. Inhibition of protein synthesis

C. Dysfunction of ion pumps

What is the mechanism of action for Clostridium botulinum toxin? A. Enzymatic lysis B. Selective protein inactivation C. Dysfunction of ion pumps D. Inhibition of protein synthesis

B. Selective protein inactivation (cleavage of SNARE protein)

What is the mechanism of action for Clostridium tetani tetanospasmin ? A. Enzymatic lysis B. Selective protein inactivation C. Dysfunction of ion pumps D. Inhibition of protein synthesis

B. Selective protein inactivation (cleavage of SNARE protein)

What is the mechanism of action for Salmonella? A. Enzymatic lysis B. Selective protein inactivation C. Dysfunction of ion pumps D. Inhibition of protein synthesis

C. Dysfunction of ion pumps

Which proteins are increased in a cell infected by papillomavirus? A. p53 B. Rb C. p16 D. Bax

C. p16

Which of the following mechanisms is NOT true regarding poxvirus a. Produces a homolog of EGFR b. Degrades p53 c. Encodes a BCL-2 homolog d. Blocks the action of type I interferon

b. Degrades p53

What is FALSE regarding polyclonal antibodies? a. They recognise multiple epitopes b. They have lower avidity than monoclonal antibodies c. They have lower specificity than monoclonal antibodies d. They affinity is highly variable

b. They have lower avidity than monoclonal antibodies

Mechanism of immune evasion by influenza viruses a. Secretion of endotoxins b. Attach to the receptor via adhesins c. Binding through haemagglutinases d. Biofilm formation

c. Binding through haemagglutinases

Which of these pathogens does NOT cause ciliary dyskenesia a. Haemophilus influenza b. Mycoplasma pneumpniae c. Bordetella pertussis d. Listeria monocytogenes

d. Listeria monocytogenes

Immune evasion used by herpesviruses a. Evasion of recognition by CD8 t cytotoxic lymphocytes and CD4 t helper cells b. Inhibition of IFN apha receptor c. Carbohydrate capsule to avoid phagocytosis d. Autophagy modulation

a. Evasion of recognition by CD8 t cytotoxic lymphocytes and CD4 t helper cells (express MHC class I homologues)

Example of microorganisms using macrophage inhibitory factor (MIF) and reason

Entamoeba histolyitica, Leishmania, Toxoplasma gondii, etc. Function MIF - stimulate pro inflammatory cytokines, recruitment of neuts and macrophages, promotes macrophage survival

What is the mechanism used by Mycobacterium tuberculosis to successfully replicate in macrophages? A. Escape from the phagolysosome using pore-forming protein B. Blockage of phagolysosome formation C. Change of the lysosomal pH D. Inhibition of mitochondrial energy metabolism

B. Blockage of phagolysosome formation

Which organism uses a Type I secretion system to activate caspase-1 in macrophages? A. Leptospira spp. B. Salmonella spp. C. Escherichia coli D. Listeria monocytogenes

B. Salmonella spp.

Which transcription factor promotes Th1 differentiation in CD4+ T lymphocytes? A. T-bet B. FoxP3 C. ROR-γt D. GATA-3

A. T-bet

Which of the followings is a mechanism of immune evasion of Coxiella burnetti? a. Biofilm formation b. Secretion of endotoxins c. Inhibition of pyroptosis through cleavage of caspase 1 d. Avoidance of cytosolic detection by NLP3 inflammasome

D. Avoidance of cytosolic detection by NLP3 inflammasome

What type of virulence factor of enterotoxogenic E. coli is K99 /F5? a) Adhesin b) Invasin c) Hemolysin d) Exotoxin

a) Adhesin

Poxviruses use which method of cell entry? a) cell polarity-dependent b) dendritic c) nerve ending d) M cell

d) Dendritic cell

Herpes virus use which method of cell entry? a) cell polarity-dependent b) dendritic c) nerve ending d) M cell

Nerve ending

PCV2 use which method of cell entry? a) cell polarity-dependent b) dendritic c) nerve ending d) M cell

d) M cell

Parvovirus use which method of cell entry? a) cell polarity-dependent b) dendritic c) nerve ending d) M cell

a) cell polarity-dependent

Which process is unique to segmented RNA viruses? A. Reassortment B. Antigenic Shift C. Recombination D. Genetic Drift

A. Reassortment

Determine the mechanism of pathology of E.coli a. Production of toxins. b. Adhesion and mucosa invasion c. Bacterial colonization and toxin production d. Ciliostasis

c. Bacterial colonization and toxin production (does not invade cells)

What is the Listeria monocytogenes transcription factor to switch from sapropytic to intra host infectious stage? a. PrfA b. LLO (Lysteriolysin O) c. PlcB (phospholipase B) d. Actin Assembly inducing protein (ActA)

a. PrfA expression of PrfA itself is thermo-regulated and becomes efficient at mammalian body temperature

How does Listeria moncytogenes is internalized in non phagocytic cells? a. Passive diffusion b. Receptor mediated endocytosis c. Caveloae mediated endocytosis d. Potocytosis

b. Receptor mediated endocytosis

Where does InA (InternalinA) (Listeria monocytogenes) bind to a. Proteoglycans b. E-cadherin c. Vimentin d. Actin

b. E-cadherin (virulence factor involved in internalization)

How does Listeria monocytogenes escape from the primary vacuole? a. PrfA b. LLO (Lysteriolysin O) c. PlcB (phospholipase B) d. Actin Assembly inducing protein (ActA)

b. LLO (Lysteriolysin O)

What is the most consistent location for Prsc protein? a. Hippocampus b. Cerebellum c. Frontal cortex d. Medulla oblongata

d. Medulla oblongata

Which of the following microorganism can traverse intact skin a. Dermatophytes b. Staphylococcus aureus c. Schistosoma larvae d. Leishmania

c. Schistosoma larvae (they dissolve adhesive proteins holding the keratinocytes together)

Main Ig present in the mucus layer of the gastrointestinal tract a. IgA b. IgE c. IgG d. IgM

a. IgA

What is the mechanism of disease of Salmonella enterica a. Adhesion and local proliferation b. Adhesion and mucosal invasion c . Disease without establishing an infection d. “Hijacking” of host pathways of antigen uptake

b. Adhesion and mucosal invasion (Invade the mucosa and lamina propria)

What is the mechanism of disease of Vibrio cholerae a. Adhesion and local proliferation b. Adhesion and mucosal invasion c . Disease without establishing an infection d. “Hijacking” of host pathways of antigen uptake

a. Adhesion and local proliferation (multiply in the overlying mucus layers)

Which of the following microorganism multiply in the overlying mucus layer a. Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli b. Shigella c. Salmonella enterica d. Campylobacter jejuni

a. Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli (and Vibrio cholerae)

Which of the following immune evasion methods is more likely to increase viral pathogenicity? a. Antigenic drift b. Recombination c. Spontaneous point mutations d. Reassortment

d. Reassortment (new strain formed by combination of either two or more different virus or strains of the same virus)

Which of the following immune evasion methods is more commonly used by influenza viruses? a. Antigenic drift b. Recombination c. Spontaneous point mutations d. Reassortment

d. Reassortment

Which of the following influenza genomic fragments is involved in attachment and binding to the cell? a. N b. NS C. HA D. PB1

C. HA

Which of the following influenza genomic fragments is involved in immune evasion? a. N b. NS C. HA D. PB1

b. NS

Which of the following influenza genomic fragments is NOT involved in the replication cycle a. PB1 b. PB2 C. M D. NA

D. NA (attachment and binding to the target cell)

Sialic acid capsule from E. coli will a. Inhibit alternative complement activation b. Inhibit classical complement activation c. Inhibit phagocytosis by binding to Fc portion of antibodies d. Diminish phagocyte oxidate burst

a. Inhibit alternative complement activation (it avoids C3b binding)

Protein A from S. aureus will a. Inhibit alternative complement activation b. Inhibit classical complement activation c. Inhibit phagocytosis by binding to Fc portion of antibodies d. Diminish phagocyte oxidate burst

c. Inhibit phagocytosis by binding to Fc portion of antibodies

Which of the following molecules is upregulated in chronic viral infections a. PD-1 b. CTLA-4 c. IL-1 d. IFNY

a. PD-1 (inhibitory receptor activated with chronic T cell stimulation)

Explain epitope spreading concept

immune response against one self antigen causes tissue damage, releasing other antigens, and resulting in the activation of lymphocytes that recognize these newly encountered epitopes (autoimmune disease)

Which of the followings is a mechanism of immune evasion of S. aureus? a. Biofilm formation b. Secretion of endotoxins c. Inhibition of pyroptosis through cleavage of caspase 1 d. Avoidance of cytosolic detection by NLP3 inflammasome

a. Biofilm formation (BAP - biofilm associated protein)

Which of the following virulence factors is NOT used by E. coli a. Release of iron from intracellular stores b. Pili as adhesins c. Inhibit host protein synthesis d. Production of a pore forming protein

d. Production of a pore forming protein (Listeria, to escape the phagosome) (Release of Iron by enterochelin)

Where do superantigens bind to a. MHC II and alpha beta domains of the TCR a. MHC II and Vbeta domains of the TCR b. MHC I and alpha beta domains of the TCR c. MHC I and Vbeta domains of the TCR

a. MHC II and Vbeta domains of the TCR

Which of the following is true regarding Clostridium tetani tetanospasmin a. SNARE protein cleavage b. Increase glycine c. Increase GABA d. Decrease Acetylcholine

a. SNARE protein cleavage (glycine and GABA are inhibitory neurotransmitters and they won't be release)

Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding bacterial transduction a. It is a type of horizontal transfer of resistance b. It requires direct bacteria - bacteria contact c. It involves virus that transfer DNA d. Bacteriophages play a major role

b. It requires direct bacteria - bacteria contact

Which of the following Streptococcus equi virulence factors degrades fibrin a. Streptolysin S b. Streptokinase c. SeeH d. Leukocidal toxin

b. Streptokinase

Chapt 5 Microbial pathogenesis Flashcards

(76 cards)