Chapter 22 & 29 Module Deck

Question 1

Which of the following would most likely cause conjuctivitis?

Answer 1

Pollen.

Question 2

Which of the following statements regarding cerumen removal from the ears is correct?

Answer 2

Cerumen should not be removed from the ears.

Question 3

Symptoms of temporomandibular joint disorder include:

Answer 3

An uneven bite.

Question 4

Patient’s with Epiglottitis often present with:

Answer 4

Dysphagia.

Question 5

Which part of the ear is affected by otitis media?

Answer 5

Middle ear.

Question 6

A common cause of a perforated eardrum is:

Answer 6

Infection.

Question 7

Which of the following is the earliest sign of glaucoma?

Answer 7

Loss of peripheral vision.

Question 8

The septum of the nose is comprised of:

Answer 8

Cartilage.

Question 9

Which of the following is a typical symptom of sinusitis?

Answer 9

Pressure on one side of the head.

Question 10

Systematic signs of a dental abscess include:

Answer 10

Fever and chills.

Question 11

Which of the following is a function of the retina?

Answer 11

Sends messages through the optic nerve to the brain.

Question 12

You would most likely encounter oral candidiasis in a patient:

Answer 12

Who is immunocompromised.

Question 13

Which of the following statements regarding epiglottitis is correct?

Answer 13

It occurs more often in adults.

Question 14

The maxillary sinuses are located:

Answer 14

Behind the cheekbones.

Question 15

One of the main causes of vision loss in central retinal vein occlusion is:

Answer 15

Macular edema.

Question 16

Fever, hoarseness, and swollen lymph nodes in the neck are common clinical signs of:

Answer 16

Laryngitis.

Question 17

A hordeolum is commonly known as which of the following?

Answer 17

Sty.

Question 18

Irrigation of the ear is contraindicated for patient’s who have which of the following conditions?

Answer 18

Diabetes.

Question 19

Headaches, nausea, vomiting, narrowing vision fields, and a “graying” in the field of vision are consistent with:

Answer 19

Papilledema.

Question 20

Which of the following conditions must be treated with 100 minutes to prevent permanent vision loss?

Answer 20

Central retinal artery occlusion.

Question 21

Glaucoma develops from an overaccumilation of:

Answer 21

Aqueous humor.

Question 22

The oropharynx begins at the:

Answer 22

Uvula.

Question 23

A 70yo female complains of itching in both her ears, as well as loss of hearing. You should suspect?

Answer 23

Cerumen impaction.

Question 24

A 7-year-old patient presents with swelling and redness around the tissues posterior to the orbital septum. The patient has a fever and reports fatigue and eye pain. What should you suspect.

Answer 24

Orbital cellulitis.

Question 25

What common mouth disorders presents with white patches on oral mucosa involving the mouth, tongue, palate, gums, and sometimes the throat?

Answer 25

Oral candidiasis.

Question 26

When treating patients with both epistaxis and elevated blood pressure, primary management should focus on which of the following?

Answer 26

Reducing Anxiety. Controlling hemorrhage.

Question 27

A 4-year-old presents with a productive cough, difficulty breathing, and a high fever. What should you suspect?

Answer 27

Tracheitis.

Question 28

You are assessing an older man who has asthma and uses an inhaled corticosteroid on a regular basis. He has white patches on his tongue and the inside of his mouth. He is conscious and alert, and his airway is patent. You should:

Answer 28

Provide supportive care and transport.

Question 29

Aqueous humor flows out from the eye through which type of channel?

Answer 29

Meshlike.

Question 30

A patient with labyrinthitis would be expected to experience:

Answer 30

Vertigo.

Question 31

Fournier gangrene is caused by:

Answer 31

A bacterial infection.

Question 32

Which of the following is a sign of uremia?

Answer 32

Thin extremities.

Question 33

Which of the following systemic effects of uremia is treated with avoidance of magnesium antiacids?

Answer 33

Skeletal.

Question 34

Overflow incontinence may be caused by which of the following conditions?

Answer 34

Nerve damage from diabetes.

Question 35

The pain associated with kidney stones most often:

Answer 35

Begins in the flank region and radiates to the groin.

Question 36

Endocrine manifestations of uremia include:

Answer 36

Osteomalacia.

Question 37

Which of the following is accurate regarding severe hyperkalemia?

Answer 37

Widening of the QRS complex is common.

Question 38

Clinical findings of spermatic cord varicocele include:

Answer 38

A palpable soft, irregular mass posterior to and above the testes when the patient is standing.

Question 39

Hypotension, tachycardia, dizziness and thirst are signs and symptoms of which type of acute kidney injury?

Answer 39

Prerenal.

Question 40

Which of the following most accurately describes pyelonephritis?

Answer 40

It is an inflammation of the kidney parenchyma.

Question 41

Cardiac failure is associated with which classification of acute renal failure?

Answer 41

Prerenal.

Question 42

A potential complication of an internal graft/fistula is the development of a(n):

Answer 42

Pseudoaneyrysm.

Question 43

Which of the following is a sign of symptom of acute renal failure?

Answer 43

Tinnitus.

Question 44

Which of the following is accurate regarding the physical examination of patients with genitourinary or renal disorders?

Answer 44

The paramedic should monitor electrocardiographic findings and vital signs.

Question 45

Epididymitis in young men usually occurs as a result of infection with:

Answer 45

Neisseria gonnorrhoeae.

Question 46

Which of the following is a nervous system manifestation of chronic kidney disease?

Answer 46

Anxiety.

Question 47

The basic functional unit of the kidney is the:

Answer 47

Nephron.

Question 48

Urinary tract infection in older adults is often mistaken for:

Answer 48

Early dementia.

Question 49

Urinary calculi affect which percentage of the adult population in the United States?

Answer 49

11%

Question 50

What is the underlying mechanism in hematologic manifestations of uremia?

Answer 50

Reduced erythropoietin production.

Question 51

Which of the following accurately describes the kidneys?

Answer 51

The inferior border of one finger's width superior to the iliac crest.

Question 52

Ten years after kidney transplant surgery, what percentage of living donor kidneys will still be functioning?

Answer 52

65%

Question 53

Patients with acute kidney failure are considered oliguric if they secrete less than how many milliliters or urine per day?

Answer 53

500

Question 54

A 3-year-old patient presents with symptoms of otitis media. Prehospital treatment should be directed at:

Answer 54

Relieving unbearable symptoms.

Question 55

A 48-year-old patient reports a sudden increase of floaters and light flashes in their field of vision. What is your priority when treating the patient?

Answer 55

Providing rapid transport to a medical facility.

Question 56

Which of the following is a cause of rhinitis?

Answer 56

Chemical irritants.

Question 57

A patient presents with fever, a headache, and a unilaterally sore throat. What should you suspect?

Answer 57

Peritonsillar abscess.

Question 58

Which of the following is a sign of symptom of prerenal acute kidney injury?

Answer 58

Dizziness.

Question 59

Black widow spider bites can cause which condition?

Answer 59

Priapism.

Question 60

As compared to the general population, patient's with end-stage renal disease are how many times likely to die from cardiovascular disease?

Answer 60

20

Question 61

Unlike peritoneal dialysis, hemodialysis:

Answer 61

Involves the circulation of blood through a machine.

Question 62

End-stage renal disease occurs when:

Answer 62

The kidneys have lost all ability to function.

Question 63

Most urinary tract infections:

Answer 63

Occur in women due to the relatively short urethra and its close proximity to the vagina and rectum.

Question 64

Emptying of urine from the bladder often without the urge to urinate is known as:

Answer 64

Overflow incontinence.

Question 65

When managing a patient with a surgical anastomosis, the paramedic should:

Answer 65

Take the blood pressure from a different extremity.

Question 66

Following dialysis, if there is a disproportionate decrease in the osmolality of the extracellular fluid compared with that of the intracellular compartment in the brain or cerebrospinal fluid, this could result in:

Answer 66

Movement of water into the brain.

Question 67

A fluid-filled sac along the spermatic cord in the scrotum is known as a(n):

Answer 67

Hydrocele.

Question 68

Urinary retention is commonly caused by which of the following conditions?

Answer 68

Kidney stones.

Question 69

Which of the following is a possible cause of Intrarenal acute renal failure?

Answer 69

Malignant hypertension.

Question 70

Urinary tract infection in older adults is often mistaken for:

Answer 70

Early dementia.

Question 71

How long does it take to perform continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis?

Answer 71

4 hours.

Question 72

Which of the following accurately describes the kidneys?

Answer 72

The inferior border is one finger's width superior to the iliac crest.

Question 73

Which of the following is affected by glaucoma?

Answer 73

Optic nerve.

Question 74

Which of the following is the best way to prevent the spread of conjunctivitis?

Answer 74

Proper handwashing.