1
Q
(C1) Paramedic is considered a health care professional and should:
A
Maintain a professional demeanor, on & off duty.
2
Q
After stabilizing a patient who is exhibiting symptoms of a stroke, What is your next priority?
A
Determine the appropriate transport destination.
3
Q
Dr Eugene Nagel advanced emergency medical treatment in 1967 by:
A
Training Miami firefighters as paramedics.
4
Q
The 2009 National EMS Educational Standards’
A
Outline the minimum knowledge base a paramedic must possess to function in the field.
5
Q
The first EMS textbook, Emergency Care and transport of the sick and injured, was published in 1971 by the?
A
American Academy of Orthopedic Surgeons.
6
Q
The main purpose of continuing education is?
A
Remain current w/ the latest treatment guidelines.
7
Q
To start an IV, an EMS providers must be a minimum of a:
A
Advanced EMT.
8
Q
What components of the education agenda would you consult to determine the minimum knowledge & skills for each level of paramedic practice?
A
National EMS scope of practice model 2019.
9
Q
What is a critical point addressed by the “White paper” written in 1966 that was titled “Accidental death and disability: The neglected disease of modern society”
A
Allocation adequate resources for medical oversight.
10
Q
What statement regarding protocols is correct?
A
Protocols are developed in conjuction with national standards.
11
Q
A continuous quality improvement program should primarily focus on:
A
Improving patient care delivery.
12
Q
A major distinction between a paramedic and an EMT is that the paramedic:
A
Carries out advanced pharmacologic skills.
13
Q
After performing an EKG on a patient who is tachycardic, what EMS personnel could you ask to interpret the EKG?
A
Paramedic.
14
Q
After responding to an emergency call, your partner takes initiative prepare the patient care report. Your partner is exemplifying which attribute of a professional paramedic?
A
Self Motivation.
15
Q
After transferring a patient to the receiving facility, you should complete the patient care report:
A
At the hospital before the next call.
16
Q
After transporting a patient from a motor vehicle crash, you are cleaning and disinfecting your unit when you are dispatched to a patient with chest pain. Your uniform is noticeably dirty, and you are still sweating from the previous call. What statement regarding this scenario is correct?
A
You should maintain a professional attitude and care for the patient to the best of your ability.
17
Q
Common actions performed by the dispatcher after receiving an emergency call include:
A
Interpreting the information provided by the caller.
18
Q
If an emergency responder is appropriately trained and competent, he or she should be able to:
A
Recognize the seriousness of a patient’s condition, assess requirements for emergency medical care, and initiate appropriate emergency medical care.
19
Q
Records of your education, state or local credentials and recertification are held by a recognized agency through a process called:
A
Registration.
20
Q
Specific functions that the paramedic should perform prior to contacting medical control are called:
A
Standing orders.
21
Q
The entity that was created in 1966 and that provides authority and financial support for the development of basic advanced life support programs is the:
A
US Department of Transportation.
22
Q
The National EMS Core Content refers to:
A
Universal body of knowledge and skills for Prehospital care.
23
Q
What is the priority of the paramedic during the scene management of an emergency call?
A
Ensure the safety of the patient and bystanders.
24
Q
When performing prospective medical oversight, you are most likely to do what:
A
Choose medical equipment.
25
What is one of the 10 system elements developed by the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration in an effort to sustain EMS systems:
Medical oversight.
26
What medical care advences were made during the Vietnam War?
Average time to surgery was 1-2 hours.
27
Which of the six guiding principles of EMS Agenda 2050 are utilized when a paramedic safely develops and implements a new program?
Adaptable and innovative.
28
You arrive of the scene of a PT in cardiac arrest. Your protocols provide standing orders for cardiac arrest treatment. This means that you should:
Perform certain interventions prior to contacting medical control.
29
You and your team are attempting to resuscitate a 50yo female in cardiac arrest due to trauma. Your team consists of two EMT’s and an AEMT. What task would be most appropriate to assign the AEMT?
Intravenous therapy and fluid boluses.
30
You arrive on scene to find an unconscious 62y/o male PT. You note that the PT is not protecting their airway. What task could you delegate to the EMR?
Assisting with placing the PT on a backboard.
31
(C2) A low density lipoprotein level of 150 would be considered:
Borderline high.
32
Adrenocorticotropic hormone is produced by the:
Pituitary.
33
Feeling anxious in certain situations is normal and healthy. anxiety can be beneficial:
Allowing one to perform at high efficiency.
34
Reaction formation is a common defense mechanism in which:
Unwanted desires are prevented from being expressed.
35
The sould of reframing is to?
Change the meaning of a situation.
36
To maintain personal safety on a domestic abuse scene, a paramedic should do what?
Coordinate action w/ police.
37
When gathering a history on a deceased patient from a family member, a paramedic should?
Inquire about organ donation options.
38
What is a main dietary source of trans fatty acids?
Fried foods.
39
What is the most important nutrient that is needed for cellular function?
Water.
40
What is accurate regarding standard precautions?
They involve the use of protective barriers.
41
A paramedic, known for struggling with calculating medication doses, tells you that they are the fastest at applying a sling and swathe. What defense mechanism is the paramedic exhibiting?
Compensation.
42
A patient reports that they stopped smoking cigarettes 3 weeks ago. What body changes do you expect the patient to experience?
Improved circulation.
43
A survey of more than 30,000 EMS personnel found that chronic and critical incident stressors may increase an EMS providers risk for:
Post traumatic stress.
44
According to the Center for Disease Control and Prevention’s exercise pyramid, which activity should be performed two to three days a week?
Stretching.
45
After the body is exposed to a stressor, approximately how long does it take the alarm reaction to activate?
A few seconds.
46
How do saturated fats raise cholesterol levels?
They inhibit the pathway through which excess cholesterol is normally removed.
47
In what year did the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention develop recommendations for prevention of HIV transmission in health care settings?
1987
48
Melatonin is secreted by the:
Pineal Gland.
49
Saturated fats should be limited to what percentage of daily calories?
10
50
The nutrient that activated enzymes, releases energy, and promotes bone growth is:
Magnesium.
51
Upon arriving at a patient house, you learn that the patient has an active TB infection. What should you do before treating the patient?
Ask the PT to wear a surgical mask.
52
What should you do when exposed to a patient’s blood or body fluids?
Wash the affected area immediately with soap and water.
53
When assessing a patient at the scene of an emergency, a paramedic gets easily frustrated when a patient doesn’t cooperate. When the patient apologizes, the paramedic brushes off the apology and ignores the patient for the rest of the call. The paramedic is exhibiting signs of:
Compassion fatigue.
54
When performing tactical breathing to manage stress on a call, you should breathe in for how many seconds before holding?
4 seconds.
55
When preparing to come into contact with a hostile patient, it is imperative to do which of the following first?
Carefully review your surroundings.
56
When should the paramedic wear a HEPA respirator or N95 mask?
When working with a PT with TB or another respiratory illness.
57
What is an example of an aerosol-generating procedure (AGP) that requires the use of appropriate PPE?
Bag-mask ventilations.
58
What is part of the physiologic response to stress?
Mobilization of glucose.
59
What should a paramedic do in the event of a potential exposure to an infectious disease?
Obtain a full medical follow-up.
60
What statement regarding critical incident stress management is accurate?
It is optional, but not currently a mandatory intervention.
61
(C3) According to the Haddon matrix, what is a post event strategy to reduce the severity of injury
Ambulance is equipped w/ current equipment.
62
If a 16y/o is killed in a car crash, how many years of potential life lost?
49
63
In financial planning of prevention programs, EMS liaisons should look to the CDC for?
Grants.
64
Related to automobile crashes, what should be considered a host in the pre-event phase?
Driving experience.
65
The leading cause of death in the US is?
Heart Disease.
66
When caring for a female patient who has experienced minor injuries in a car accident, you learn that she wasn't wearing a seatbelt. When is the best time for a teachable moment?
Immediately following the accident.
67
When providing a wellness check in the home of an 87-year-old male patient, you notice that their meds are in unmarked containers. What should you do?
Inform the pt of the dangers of putting meds in unmarked containers.
68
What is an example of a passive intervention
Developing child resistant medication bottles.
69
What was the second leading cause of unintentional death in 2020.
MVA.
70
What would be the most effective intervention in preventing serious head and chest injuries in an MVA?
Instituting safety practices, including laws and requiring the use of seat belts in vehicles.
71
A community health assessment is necessary before:
Interventions are designed.
72
According to the Emergency Medical Services: Agenda for the Future, the EMS systems of the future focus on:
Preventing injuries and illnesses.
73
According to the Center for Disease Control and Prevention, epidemiology is used to control:
Health problems.
74
Despite funding limitations, you have a duty to provide; what on any call in which a preventable event has occurred?
Education.
75
During which step of a teachable moment would you determine what factors or hazards may have caused the injury?
Observe the scene.
76
In 2020, the death rate in the United States increased by 15.9% for which reason?
Covid 19
77
What can you do better to prepare for incidents that may involve human trafficking?
Identify outside resources.
78
What classification would be assigned to the injury received by a 2-year-old child who drinks a bottle of household cleaner?
Unintentional.
79
When providing community health education for non-English speaking populations, what can you do to improve comprehension of materials?
Augment written material with illustrations.
80
When providing community health education, what tools can you use as a dynamic visual?
Internet resource.
81
When using the systematic approach to health assessment and injury prevention program, what is the last step in the cycle?
Evaluate and revise.
82
What is an example of a secondary injury prevention?
Administering EPI to a PT in anaphylactic shock.
83
What is the most appropriate use of a teachable moment?
Advising the unrestrained passenger with minor injuries following a motor vehicle accident that she easily could have been killed.
84
What resources would be considered a municipal resource?
Animal control services.
85
What results in the most years of potential life lost?
Unintentional injury.
86
What would be an example of an engineering prevention strategy?
Vaccines.
87
What would be considered a passive intervention?
Engineering.
88
William Haddon is best known for the tool he developed to understand what?
Injury sequence.
89
You are tasked with developing an educational program for caretakers of the elderly on fall prevention. To be effective, the program should inform the caretakers to:
Adopt safety precautions.
90
You arrive at the scene of a rollover and find the car lying in the ditch. Upon examining the 19-year-old male patient, you notice they were not wearing their seatbelt and they admit to texting on their cell phone at the time of the accident. What was an environmental factor contributing to the crash?
Lack of guardrails.
91
(C4) A pertinent positive finding when dealing with a gunshot victim would be the:
Location of bullet entry.
92
Documentation of “Swelling to the left leg”.
Is too vague.
93
If an EMS call is cancelled En Route, the paramedic should document:
The name of the cancelling authority.
94
If you work three 12 - hour shifts in a row and wait a week to submit your patient care reports, you would likely:
Be reprimanded by your agency.
95
The National Emergency Medical Services Information System (NEMSIS):
Collects relevant data from each state and uses it for research.
96
97
Upon arriving to the scene of a car accident, you notice an off-duty physician performing CPR on the patient. What is necessary to include in your PCR?
The name of the physician and the procedures performed.
98
What would likely happen if a paramedic’s patient care reports is subjective, poorly written, and incomplete?
Potential allegations of libel by the patient.
99
What constitutes minimum data that must be included in every patient care report.
Chief complaint, level on consciousness, vital signs, assessment, and patient age and sex.
100
What incident times is commonly documented on the patient care report?
Time of arrival at the hospital.
101
What would be found both on the National Emergency Medical Service Information System list and on any patient care report?
Time of dispatch.
102
After assessing a 44-year-old female patient involved in a minor vehicle crash, you find that they sustained very minor injuries that do not warrant EMS transport. What should you do first?
Advise the dispatch center of the decision and document the event.
103
After revising a PCR, you notice that the paramedic recorded the wrong dosage of fentanyl given to the patient. What should you do?
Ask the paramedic who recorded the wrong dosage to correct the error.
104
During a multiple casualty incident, documentation often occurs initially:
On triage tags.
105
During your assessment of a patient with chest pain, you observe difficulty breathing, absence of diminished breath sounds, tachycardia, and weakness in the lower extremities. What findings would be classified as a pertinent negative?
Absence of diminished breath sounds.
106
If a person refusing care has an obvious injury or medical condition that requires immediate medical attention, what should you do first?
Involve online medical control for further guidance.
107
If you transport a patient against their wishes, it is imperative that you:
Thoroughly document your reasoning for doing so.
108
If your barrier devices fail or do not offer enough protection after being exposed to body fluids or other potentially toxic or infectious agents, you should complete a:
Occupational exposure report.
109
On the way to the scene of an emergency, dispatch informs you that your emergency call has been canceled, what should you do?
Document the cancelling authority and the time of cancellation.
110
The budget of a typical EMS system is primarily dependent on:
Reimbursement.
111
What is one of the main reasons for accurately documenting patient care?
To demonstrate continuity of care.
112
What needs to be documented when revising a PCR?
The reason for the revision.
113
When assessing a patient with an active TB infection, the patient coughs in your face before you are able to put your face mask on. What is your priority?
Contact your EMS Supervisor.
114
When choosing details to include in a PCR, a paramedic should:
Provide accurate, complete details.
115
When using the CHEATED charting method, which element would include the patient’s response to the care provided?
Evaluation.
116
When using the SOAP format to organize a PT report, which information would you include in the objective data section?
Elevated blood glucose.
117
Which is the last step in the CHART method?
Patient transport.
118
What is included when using the CHART method to complete a PCR?
Transport.
119
What is subjective data?
A complaint of chest pressure.
120
What statement contains both objective and subjective information?
“The patient appeared confused and stated that he had a headache.”
121
What statement regarding revisions or corrections to a PCR is correct?
Only the person who wrote the original report can revise or correct it.
122
(C5) 9-1-1 Became the universal number for calling EMS in:
1988
123
A physician who receives a standardized EMS report should be able to quickly know:
The name of the responding unit.
124
How close should you keep your mouth to the microphone to improve the quality of your radio communication:
2 to 3 Inches.
125
If you are sending data back and forth from the field to your dispatch center, but the data are flowing one direction at a time, you are using:
Half-duplex mode.
126
The ability of multiple agencies or systems to to share the same radio frequency is called:
Trunking.
127
The use of telemetry to confirm cardiac rhythms before treatment:
Is less common, as most EMS systems rely on paramedics to assess the cardiac rhythm and make independent treatment decisions.
128
When communicating medical information via radio, you should be:
simple, brief, and direct.
129
Which frequency is regulated by the Federal Communications Commission
10Hz
130
What statement regarding 12-lead ECG telemetry is correct?
Most newer systems use facsimile technology to allow transmissions of 12-lead ECG.
131
Which type of communication system is the most powerful radio in the communication system?
Base station.
132
A communication system allows an EMS agency to exchange:
Essential information.
133
Dispatcher training should meet the standards set by:
The National Highway Traffic Safety Administration.
134
EMS in the NATO alphabet is:
Echo, Mike, Sierra.
135
EMS radio systems are designed to allow the use of one channel by multiple users at the same time through the inclusion of:
The Continuous Tone0Coded Squelch System.
136
How many public safety answering points would you expect in a town of 2,000 residents?
1
137
If all the dispatchers at a particular location are taking emergency calls, a well designed EMS dispatch centers phones will:
Forward the call to an alternate dispatch center.
138
If you invented a new technology for EMS communications that used radio waves, you would
have to clear it with the:
Federal Communications Commission.
139
If you were designing an EMS communications system for a very hilly county in your state,
what radio band would be best to use?
Very high frequency high band.
140
In a city of 1,000,000 residents, EMS calls would be handled by public safety answering points while fire calls would be handled by:
A second public safety answering point.
141
Related to communications, a cell is:
The area of EMS headquarters used to hold communications equipment.
142
The role of simplex mode communications in EMS is for:
Public safety announcements.
143
The standard that is critical for the design of two-way radios is:
Public safety answering point.
144
The use of Global Positioning System that helps direct you to the patient involves:
A satellite system.
145
What kind of time scale can be obtained for data in the most EMS systems today?
Near real time.
146
When exchanging EMS information, always:
Maintain Confidentiality.
147
When speaking with a patient:
Do everything possible to maintain confidentiality.
148
Which kind of EMS communications device could most easily lead to privacy violations?
Cell phone.
149
What is a key tool for an EMS dispatcher?
Emergency medical dispatch guide cards.
150
What is inadvisable for a dispatcher to do during an EMS call?
Hang up if the caller is abusive.
151
What usually has the most powerful transmitter?
Base station radio.
152
(C6)
Paramedic 45-2
flashcards
Decks in class (45)
# Cards
-
Chapter 1 Pre/Post30
-
Chapter 2 Pre/Post30
-
Chapter 3 Pre/Post30
-
Chapter 4 Pre/Post30
-
Chapter 5 Pre/Post30
-
Chapter 6 Pre/Post30
-
Chapter 7 Pre/Post30
-
Chapter 8 Pre/Post30
-
Chapter 9: Pre/Post Quiz30
-
Chapter 1549
-
Chapter 15 pop quiz146
-
Chapter 23 Deck47
-
Misc from popquiz66
-
Phase 1 review86
-
Phase 1 Exam116
-
Chapter 21 Pre/Post10
-
12 Lead interpretation12
-
Axis Shifts19
-
Cardiology Quiz 02/25/202650
-
Cardiology Quiz 03/04/202640
-
Cardiology Quiz 03/12/202660
-
Midterm Practice Test148
-
Chapter 10: Pre/Post Quiz30
-
Chapter 11: Pre/Post Quiz30
-
A&P Misc. Questions125
-
Chapter 12: Pre/Post Quiz11
-
Chapter 13: Pre/Post Quiz13
-
Chapter 16: Pre/Post Quiz14
-
Chapter 17: Pre/Post Quiz22
-
Midterm26
-
Neurology Pop Quiz 03/31/202615
-
Practice Quiz 04/03/202669
-
Chapter 22: Pre/Post Quiz35
-
Chapter 24: Pre/Post Quiz32
-
Chapter 29: Pre/Post Quiz33
-
Chapter 22 & 29 Module Deck74
-
Entirety Deck152
-
22/29 Study Guide144
-
Chapter 22 & 29 Module Test Deck98
-
Practice Quiz Chapter 24,25,44 04/09/202675
-
Chapter 25: Pre/Post Quiz22
-
Chapter 26: Pre/Post Quiz0
-
Chapter 30: Pre/Post Quiz0
-
Chapter 33: Pre/Post Quiz0
-
Chapter 34: Pre/Post Quiz0
