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Chapter 8 Flashcards

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1
Q

The protein product of the RB gene acts primarily to:
A) Stimulate mitosis
B) Block DNA repair
C) Regulate cell cycle G1-S checkpoint
D) Promote apoptosis directly

A

C: RB regulates progression from G1 to S phase by binding transcription factors like E2F.

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2
Q

Which DNA repair mechanism repairs single-base mispairs?
A) Base excision repair
B) Mismatch repair
C) Homologous recombination
D) Non-homologous end joining

A

B: Mismatch repair is responsible for correcting single-base mispairs.

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3
Q

Ras genes encode for which type of protein?
A) Transcription factors
B) GTP-binding proteins
C) DNA repair enzymes
D) Nuclear receptors

A

B: Ras genes encode G-proteins involved in cell signaling.

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4
Q

Which compound can reduce carcinogen-DNA binding through detoxification?
A) Choline
B) Glutathione
C) Phenobarbital
D) PFOA

A

B: Glutathione conjugates with reactive electrophiles, preventing DNA adduct formation.

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5
Q

The protein product of the RB gene acts primarily to:
A) Stimulate mitosis
B) Block DNA repair
C) Regulate cell cycle G1-S checkpoint
D) Promote apoptosis directly

A

C: RB regulates progression from G1 to S phase by binding transcription factors like E2F.

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6
Q

The micronucleus test primarily detects:
A) Point mutations
B) DNA adducts
C) Chromosomal damage
D) Receptor binding

A

C: Micronuclei result from chromosomal fragments or whole chromosomes excluded from daughter nuclei.

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7
Q

Which best describes the promotion stage of carcinogenesis?
A) Irreversible genetic changes
B) Clonal expansion of initiated cells
C) Random mutation
D) DNA repair

A

B: Promotion involves proliferation of initiated cells and is typically reversible.

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8
Q

Which compound can reduce carcinogen-DNA binding through detoxification?
A) Choline
B) Glutathione
C) Phenobarbital
D) PFOA

A

B: Glutathione conjugates with reactive electrophiles, preventing DNA adduct formation.

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9
Q

What feature is characteristic of the progression stage in carcinogenesis?
A) Increased gap junction activity
B) Reversible cellular state
C) Irreversible genetic changes
D) Reduced proliferation

A

C: Progression involves accumulation of genetic changes making the process irreversible.

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10
Q

The micronucleus test primarily detects:
A) Point mutations
B) DNA adducts
C) Chromosomal damage
D) Receptor binding

A

C: Micronuclei result from chromosomal fragments or whole chromosomes excluded from daughter nuclei.

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11
Q

Chromium (VI) is classified as a human carcinogen because it:
A) Forms DNA methyl adducts
B) Generates lung tumors via inhalation
C) Is rapidly excreted in urine
D) Accumulates in adipose tissue

A

B: Chromium VI causes lung tumors and has occupational exposure evidence in humans.

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12
Q

The micronucleus test primarily detects:
A) Point mutations
B) DNA adducts
C) Chromosomal damage
D) Receptor binding

A

C: Micronuclei result from chromosomal fragments or whole chromosomes excluded from daughter nuclei.

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13
Q

What is the high dose used in a 2-year rodent bioassay based on?
A) LD50 value
B) Average daily intake
C) Maximum tolerated dose
D) Maximum effective dose

A

C: The highest dose in chronic bioassays is the maximum tolerated dose (MTD).

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14
Q

Which best describes the promotion stage of carcinogenesis?
A) Irreversible genetic changes
B) Clonal expansion of initiated cells
C) Random mutation
D) DNA repair

A

B: Promotion involves proliferation of initiated cells and is typically reversible.

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15
Q

What does the Ames test detect?
A) Chromosome aberrations
B) Point and frameshift mutations
C) DNA methylation changes
D) Protein aggregation

A

B: The Ames test uses bacterial strains to detect point and frameshift mutations.

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16
Q

Which DNA lesion is considered a biomarker of oxidative stress?
A) 6-O-methylguanine
B) 8-OHdG
C) Thymine glycol
D) Cyclobutane pyrimidine dimer

A

B: 8-OHdG is a widely recognized biomarker for oxidative DNA damage.

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17
Q

What is the high dose used in a 2-year rodent bioassay based on?
A) LD50 value
B) Average daily intake
C) Maximum tolerated dose
D) Maximum effective dose

A

C: The highest dose in chronic bioassays is the maximum tolerated dose (MTD).

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18
Q

Which receptor is activated by phenobarbital in rodent liver tumor models?
A) AhR
B) CAR
C) PPARγ
D) PXR

A

B: Phenobarbital activates the CAR receptor, promoting liver tumors in rodents.

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19
Q

Which compound has demonstrated transplacental carcinogenicity?
A) Bisphenol A
B) Tamoxifen
C) Diethylstilbestrol
D) Clofibric acid

A

C: Diethylstilbestrol has been linked to vaginal tumors in daughters of exposed mothers.

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20
Q
A
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21
Q

Which best describes the promotion stage of carcinogenesis?
A) Irreversible genetic changes
B) Clonal expansion of initiated cells
C) Random mutation
D) DNA repair

A

B: Promotion involves proliferation of initiated cells and is typically reversible.

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22
Q

What does the Ames test detect?
A) Chromosome aberrations
B) Point and frameshift mutations
C) DNA methylation changes
D) Protein aggregation

A

B: The Ames test uses bacterial strains to detect point and frameshift mutations.

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23
Q

Which DNA lesion is considered a biomarker of oxidative stress?
A) 6-O-methylguanine
B) 8-OHdG
C) Thymine glycol
D) Cyclobutane pyrimidine dimer

A

B: 8-OHdG is a widely recognized biomarker for oxidative DNA damage.

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1
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24
Q

What does the Ames test detect?
A) Chromosome aberrations
B) Point and frameshift mutations
C) DNA methylation changes
D) Protein aggregation

A

B: The Ames test uses bacterial strains to detect point and frameshift mutations.

How well did you know this?
1
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25
Chromium (VI) is classified as a human carcinogen because it: A) Forms DNA methyl adducts B) Generates lung tumors via inhalation C) Is rapidly excreted in urine D) Accumulates in adipose tissue
B: Chromium VI causes lung tumors and has occupational exposure evidence in humans.
26
DNA methylation typically occurs on which base and has what effect? A) Adenine, increases transcription B) Cytosine, reduces transcription C) Guanine, prevents mutation D) Thymine, enhances stability
B: Methylation at the 5' position of cytosine generally silences gene transcription.
27
Which compound has demonstrated transplacental carcinogenicity? A) Bisphenol A B) Tamoxifen C) Diethylstilbestrol D) Clofibric acid
C: Diethylstilbestrol has been linked to vaginal tumors in daughters of exposed mothers.
28
Which compound can reduce carcinogen-DNA binding through detoxification? A) Choline B) Glutathione C) Phenobarbital D) PFOA
B: Glutathione conjugates with reactive electrophiles, preventing DNA adduct formation.
29
The protein product of the RB gene acts primarily to: A) Stimulate mitosis B) Block DNA repair C) Regulate cell cycle G1-S checkpoint D) Promote apoptosis directly
C: RB regulates progression from G1 to S phase by binding transcription factors like E2F.
30
Which best describes the promotion stage of carcinogenesis? A) Irreversible genetic changes B) Clonal expansion of initiated cells C) Random mutation D) DNA repair
B: Promotion involves proliferation of initiated cells and is typically reversible.
31
What feature is characteristic of the progression stage in carcinogenesis? A) Increased gap junction activity B) Reversible cellular state C) Irreversible genetic changes D) Reduced proliferation
C: Progression involves accumulation of genetic changes making the process irreversible.
32
The concept of hormesis in toxicology implies that: A) All exposures are harmful B) Low doses may be beneficial C) High doses are therapeutic D) Dose is irrelevant to risk
B: Hormesis is a biphasic dose-response where low doses yield beneficial effects.
33
The micronucleus test primarily detects: A) Point mutations B) DNA adducts C) Chromosomal damage D) Receptor binding
C: Micronuclei result from chromosomal fragments or whole chromosomes excluded from daughter nuclei.
34
What event marks the initiation phase of carcinogenesis? A) Cell differentiation B) DNA adduct formation C) Apoptosis D) Angiogenesis
B: Initiation involves DNA damage such as adduct formation that may result in mutation.
35
Which DNA lesion is considered a biomarker of oxidative stress? A) 6-O-methylguanine B) 8-OHdG C) Thymine glycol D) Cyclobutane pyrimidine dimer
B: 8-OHdG is a widely recognized biomarker for oxidative DNA damage.
36
The concept of hormesis in toxicology implies that: A) All exposures are harmful B) Low doses may be beneficial C) High doses are therapeutic D) Dose is irrelevant to risk
B: Hormesis is a biphasic dose-response where low doses yield beneficial effects.
37
Which DNA repair mechanism repairs single-base mispairs? A) Base excision repair B) Mismatch repair C) Homologous recombination D) Non-homologous end joining
B: Mismatch repair is responsible for correcting single-base mispairs.
38
The concept of hormesis in toxicology implies that: A) All exposures are harmful B) Low doses may be beneficial C) High doses are therapeutic D) Dose is irrelevant to risk
B: Hormesis is a biphasic dose-response where low doses yield beneficial effects.
39
Which receptor is activated by phenobarbital in rodent liver tumor models? A) AhR B) CAR C) PPARγ D) PXR
B: Phenobarbital activates the CAR receptor, promoting liver tumors in rodents.
40
What event marks the initiation phase of carcinogenesis? A) Cell differentiation B) DNA adduct formation C) Apoptosis D) Angiogenesis
B: Initiation involves DNA damage such as adduct formation that may result in mutation.
41
Ras genes encode for which type of protein? A) Transcription factors B) GTP-binding proteins C) DNA repair enzymes D) Nuclear receptors
B: Ras genes encode G-proteins involved in cell signaling.
42
Which receptor is activated by phenobarbital in rodent liver tumor models? A) AhR B) CAR C) PPARγ D) PXR
B: Phenobarbital activates the CAR receptor, promoting liver tumors in rodents.
43
What is the high dose used in a 2-year rodent bioassay based on? A) LD50 value B) Average daily intake C) Maximum tolerated dose D) Maximum effective dose
C: The highest dose in chronic bioassays is the maximum tolerated dose (MTD).
44
Ras genes encode for which type of protein? A) Transcription factors B) GTP-binding proteins C) DNA repair enzymes D) Nuclear receptors
B: Ras genes encode G-proteins involved in cell signaling.
45
Ras genes encode for which type of protein? A) Transcription factors B) GTP-binding proteins C) DNA repair enzymes D) Nuclear receptors
B: Ras genes encode G-proteins involved in cell signaling.
46
The concept of hormesis in toxicology implies that: A) All exposures are harmful B) Low doses may be beneficial C) High doses are therapeutic D) Dose is irrelevant to risk
B: Hormesis is a biphasic dose-response where low doses yield beneficial effects.
47
What feature is characteristic of the progression stage in carcinogenesis? A) Increased gap junction activity B) Reversible cellular state C) Irreversible genetic changes D) Reduced proliferation
C: Progression involves accumulation of genetic changes making the process irreversible.
48
Which compound can reduce carcinogen-DNA binding through detoxification? A) Choline B) Glutathione C) Phenobarbital D) PFOA
B: Glutathione conjugates with reactive electrophiles, preventing DNA adduct formation.
49
DNA methylation typically occurs on which base and has what effect? A) Adenine, increases transcription B) Cytosine, reduces transcription C) Guanine, prevents mutation D) Thymine, enhances stability
B: Methylation at the 5' position of cytosine generally silences gene transcription.
50
Which compound has demonstrated transplacental carcinogenicity? A) Bisphenol A B) Tamoxifen C) Diethylstilbestrol D) Clofibric acid
C: Diethylstilbestrol has been linked to vaginal tumors in daughters of exposed mothers.
51
Chromium (VI) is classified as a human carcinogen because it: A) Forms DNA methyl adducts B) Generates lung tumors via inhalation C) Is rapidly excreted in urine D) Accumulates in adipose tissue
B: Chromium VI causes lung tumors and has occupational exposure evidence in humans.
52
Chromium (VI) is classified as a human carcinogen because it: A) Forms DNA methyl adducts B) Generates lung tumors via inhalation C) Is rapidly excreted in urine D) Accumulates in adipose tissue
B: Chromium VI causes lung tumors and has occupational exposure evidence in humans.
53
What feature is characteristic of the progression stage in carcinogenesis? A) Increased gap junction activity B) Reversible cellular state C) Irreversible genetic changes D) Reduced proliferation
C: Progression involves accumulation of genetic changes making the process irreversible.
54
Which receptor is activated by phenobarbital in rodent liver tumor models? A) AhR B) CAR C) PPARγ D) PXR
B: Phenobarbital activates the CAR receptor, promoting liver tumors in rodents.
55
What feature is characteristic of the progression stage in carcinogenesis? A) Increased gap junction activity B) Reversible cellular state C) Irreversible genetic changes D) Reduced proliferation
C: Progression involves accumulation of genetic changes making the process irreversible.
56
Ras genes encode for which type of protein? A) Transcription factors B) GTP-binding proteins C) DNA repair enzymes D) Nuclear receptors
B: Ras genes encode G-proteins involved in cell signaling.
57
What is the significance of decreased gap junctional communication in tumors? A) It promotes cell death B) It enhances immune detection C) It allows unregulated growth D) It increases differentiation
C: Loss of gap junctional communication reduces growth-inhibitory signals.
58
DNA methylation typically occurs on which base and has what effect? A) Adenine, increases transcription B) Cytosine, reduces transcription C) Guanine, prevents mutation D) Thymine, enhances stability
B: Methylation at the 5' position of cytosine generally silences gene transcription.
59
Which compound has demonstrated transplacental carcinogenicity? A) Bisphenol A B) Tamoxifen C) Diethylstilbestrol D) Clofibric acid
C: Diethylstilbestrol has been linked to vaginal tumors in daughters of exposed mothers.
60
Which compound has demonstrated transplacental carcinogenicity? A) Bisphenol A B) Tamoxifen C) Diethylstilbestrol D) Clofibric acid
C: Diethylstilbestrol has been linked to vaginal tumors in daughters of exposed mothers.
61
Which DNA repair mechanism repairs single-base mispairs? A) Base excision repair B) Mismatch repair C) Homologous recombination D) Non-homologous end joining
B: Mismatch repair is responsible for correcting single-base mispairs.
62
Ras genes encode for which type of protein? A) Transcription factors B) GTP-binding proteins C) DNA repair enzymes D) Nuclear receptors
B: Ras genes encode G-proteins involved in cell signaling.
63
The protein product of the RB gene acts primarily to: A) Stimulate mitosis B) Block DNA repair C) Regulate cell cycle G1-S checkpoint D) Promote apoptosis directly
C: RB regulates progression from G1 to S phase by binding transcription factors like E2F.
64
The concept of hormesis in toxicology implies that: A) All exposures are harmful B) Low doses may be beneficial C) High doses are therapeutic D) Dose is irrelevant to risk
B: Hormesis is a biphasic dose-response where low doses yield beneficial effects.
65
Ras genes encode for which type of protein? A) Transcription factors B) GTP-binding proteins C) DNA repair enzymes D) Nuclear receptors
B: Ras genes encode G-proteins involved in cell signaling.
66
Which receptor is activated by phenobarbital in rodent liver tumor models? A) AhR B) CAR C) PPARγ D) PXR
B: Phenobarbital activates the CAR receptor, promoting liver tumors in rodents.
67
What feature is characteristic of the progression stage in carcinogenesis? A) Increased gap junction activity B) Reversible cellular state C) Irreversible genetic changes D) Reduced proliferation
C: Progression involves accumulation of genetic changes making the process irreversible.
68
Chromium (VI) is classified as a human carcinogen because it: A) Forms DNA methyl adducts B) Generates lung tumors via inhalation C) Is rapidly excreted in urine D) Accumulates in adipose tissue
B: Chromium VI causes lung tumors and has occupational exposure evidence in humans.
69
What is the high dose used in a 2-year rodent bioassay based on? A) LD50 value B) Average daily intake C) Maximum tolerated dose D) Maximum effective dose
C: The highest dose in chronic bioassays is the maximum tolerated dose (MTD).
70
What event marks the initiation phase of carcinogenesis? A) Cell differentiation B) DNA adduct formation C) Apoptosis D) Angiogenesis
B: Initiation involves DNA damage such as adduct formation that may result in mutation.
71
What feature is characteristic of the progression stage in carcinogenesis? A) Increased gap junction activity B) Reversible cellular state C) Irreversible genetic changes D) Reduced proliferation
C: Progression involves accumulation of genetic changes making the process irreversible.
72
What event marks the initiation phase of carcinogenesis? A) Cell differentiation B) DNA adduct formation C) Apoptosis D) Angiogenesis
B: Initiation involves DNA damage such as adduct formation that may result in mutation.
73
The micronucleus test primarily detects: A) Point mutations B) DNA adducts C) Chromosomal damage D) Receptor binding
C: Micronuclei result from chromosomal fragments or whole chromosomes excluded from daughter nuclei.
74
Which best describes the promotion stage of carcinogenesis? A) Irreversible genetic changes B) Clonal expansion of initiated cells C) Random mutation D) DNA repair
B: Promotion involves proliferation of initiated cells and is typically reversible.
75
The concept of hormesis in toxicology implies that: A) All exposures are harmful B) Low doses may be beneficial C) High doses are therapeutic D) Dose is irrelevant to risk
B: Hormesis is a biphasic dose-response where low doses yield beneficial effects.
76
What is the high dose used in a 2-year rodent bioassay based on? A) LD50 value B) Average daily intake C) Maximum tolerated dose D) Maximum effective dose
C: The highest dose in chronic bioassays is the maximum tolerated dose (MTD).
77
The micronucleus test primarily detects: A) Point mutations B) DNA adducts C) Chromosomal damage D) Receptor binding
C: Micronuclei result from chromosomal fragments or whole chromosomes excluded from daughter nuclei.
78
Which compound can reduce carcinogen-DNA binding through detoxification? A) Choline B) Glutathione C) Phenobarbital D) PFOA
B: Glutathione conjugates with reactive electrophiles, preventing DNA adduct formation.
79
Which receptor is activated by phenobarbital in rodent liver tumor models? A) AhR B) CAR C) PPARγ D) PXR
B: Phenobarbital activates the CAR receptor, promoting liver tumors in rodents.
80
Which best describes the promotion stage of carcinogenesis? A) Irreversible genetic changes B) Clonal expansion of initiated cells C) Random mutation D) DNA repair
B: Promotion involves proliferation of initiated cells and is typically reversible.
81
What event marks the initiation phase of carcinogenesis? A) Cell differentiation B) DNA adduct formation C) Apoptosis D) Angiogenesis
B: Initiation involves DNA damage such as adduct formation that may result in mutation.
82
What event marks the initiation phase of carcinogenesis? A) Cell differentiation B) DNA adduct formation C) Apoptosis D) Angiogenesis
B: Initiation involves DNA damage such as adduct formation that may result in mutation.
83
What event marks the initiation phase of carcinogenesis? A) Cell differentiation B) DNA adduct formation C) Apoptosis D) Angiogenesis
B: Initiation involves DNA damage such as adduct formation that may result in mutation.
84
What event marks the initiation phase of carcinogenesis? A) Cell differentiation B) DNA adduct formation C) Apoptosis D) Angiogenesis
B: Initiation involves DNA damage such as adduct formation that may result in mutation.
85
What is the significance of decreased gap junctional communication in tumors? A) It promotes cell death B) It enhances immune detection C) It allows unregulated growth D) It increases differentiation
C: Loss of gap junctional communication reduces growth-inhibitory signals.
86
Which receptor is activated by phenobarbital in rodent liver tumor models? A) AhR B) CAR C) PPARγ D) PXR
B: Phenobarbital activates the CAR receptor, promoting liver tumors in rodents.
87
The concept of hormesis in toxicology implies that: A) All exposures are harmful B) Low doses may be beneficial C) High doses are therapeutic D) Dose is irrelevant to risk
B: Hormesis is a biphasic dose-response where low doses yield beneficial effects.
88
The micronucleus test primarily detects: A) Point mutations B) DNA adducts C) Chromosomal damage D) Receptor binding
C: Micronuclei result from chromosomal fragments or whole chromosomes excluded from daughter nuclei.
89
Which DNA repair mechanism repairs single-base mispairs? A) Base excision repair B) Mismatch repair C) Homologous recombination D) Non-homologous end joining
B: Mismatch repair is responsible for correcting single-base mispairs.
90
What does the Ames test detect? A) Chromosome aberrations B) Point and frameshift mutations C) DNA methylation changes D) Protein aggregation
B: The Ames test uses bacterial strains to detect point and frameshift mutations.
91
What does the Ames test detect? A) Chromosome aberrations B) Point and frameshift mutations C) DNA methylation changes D) Protein aggregation
B: The Ames test uses bacterial strains to detect point and frameshift mutations.
92
Which compound can reduce carcinogen-DNA binding through detoxification? A) Choline B) Glutathione C) Phenobarbital D) PFOA
B: Glutathione conjugates with reactive electrophiles, preventing DNA adduct formation.
93
What event marks the initiation phase of carcinogenesis? A) Cell differentiation B) DNA adduct formation C) Apoptosis D) Angiogenesis
B: Initiation involves DNA damage such as adduct formation that may result in mutation.
94
Which DNA repair mechanism repairs single-base mispairs? A) Base excision repair B) Mismatch repair C) Homologous recombination D) Non-homologous end joining
B: Mismatch repair is responsible for correcting single-base mispairs.
95
Which DNA repair mechanism repairs single-base mispairs? A) Base excision repair B) Mismatch repair C) Homologous recombination D) Non-homologous end joining
B: Mismatch repair is responsible for correcting single-base mispairs.
96
What is the significance of decreased gap junctional communication in tumors? A) It promotes cell death B) It enhances immune detection C) It allows unregulated growth D) It increases differentiation
C: Loss of gap junctional communication reduces growth-inhibitory signals.
97
Which compound can reduce carcinogen-DNA binding through detoxification? A) Choline B) Glutathione C) Phenobarbital D) PFOA
B: Glutathione conjugates with reactive electrophiles, preventing DNA adduct formation.
98
Which compound can reduce carcinogen-DNA binding through detoxification? A) Choline B) Glutathione C) Phenobarbital D) PFOA
B: Glutathione conjugates with reactive electrophiles, preventing DNA adduct formation.
99
Ras genes encode for which type of protein? A) Transcription factors B) GTP-binding proteins C) DNA repair enzymes D) Nuclear receptors
B: Ras genes encode G-proteins involved in cell signaling.
100
The protein product of the RB gene acts primarily to: A) Stimulate mitosis B) Block DNA repair C) Regulate cell cycle G1-S checkpoint D) Promote apoptosis directly
C: RB regulates progression from G1 to S phase by binding transcription factors like E2F.
101
Which transgenic mouse model carries a mutant Ras gene for cancer research? A) TgAC B) Big Blue C) MutaMouse D) P53 knockout
A: TgAC mice carry an activated Ras oncogene and are used in carcinogenicity testing.
102
Which compound has demonstrated transplacental carcinogenicity? A) Bisphenol A B) Tamoxifen C) Diethylstilbestrol D) Clofibric acid
C: Diethylstilbestrol has been linked to vaginal tumors in daughters of exposed mothers.
103
Which DNA repair mechanism repairs single-base mispairs? A) Base excision repair B) Mismatch repair C) Homologous recombination D) Non-homologous end joining
B: Mismatch repair is responsible for correcting single-base mispairs.
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