CHN 2 Flashcards

(100 cards)

1
Q

The nurse performs a home visit to a 10-year-old boy with dengue fever. The boy is presenting with a positive tourniquet test, a fever, and
epistaxis. The boy is likely experiencing what grade of dengue fever?
a. Grade I
b. Grade II
c. Grade III
d. Grade IV

A

b. Grade II

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2
Q

villager asks the nurse about the Deng-Get Out 5S Strategy campaigned by the Department of Health to protect oneself from dengue fever.
All the following are included in the strategies, except:
a. Search and destroy mosquito breeding spots
b. Seek early consultation
c. Support fogging in hotspot areas
d. Self-medicate symptoms

A

d. Self-medicate symptoms

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3
Q

A patient with dengue fever is prescribed medications for symptom relief. All the following prescribed drugs would warrant physician
clarification, except:
a. Aspirin
b. Acetylsalicylic acid
c. Acetaminophen
d. Ampicillin

A

c. Acetaminophen

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4
Q

The nurse is conducting a health teaching session for a group of villagers about dengue fever. Which of the following statements about the
characteristics of the Aedes aegypti mosquito should the nurse include?
a. Nighttime biting behavior
b. Low-flying behavior
c. Preference for running water
d. Predominance in rural areas

A

b. Low-flying behavior

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5
Q

A patient was rushed to the emergency room due to dengue shock syndrome. Which of the following actions made by the nurse would likely
contribute to a poor prognosis?
a. Placing the patient in a reverse Trendelenburg position.
b. Obtaining orders for blood transfusion.
c. Establishing a large-bore intravenous line.
d. Avoiding intramuscular injections

A

a. Placing the patient in a reverse Trendelenburg position

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6
Q

Nurse Benjie assesses the community for potential sources of the suspected cholera outbreak. Which of the following observations would be
most concerning?
a. Residents store drinking water in covered clay jars.
b. Households regularly boil water before consumption.
c. Children are seen playing near open, stagnant drainage canals.
d. Barangay health workers distribute oral rehydration salts weekly

A

c. Children are seen playing near open, stagnant drainage canals.

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7
Q

Nurse Benjie educates local health volunteers about cholera. He emphasizes that the disease is caused by which specific type of bacterium?
a. Vibrio
b. Escherichia
c. Salmonella
d. Shigella

A

a. Vibrio

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8
Q

Due to limited supplies in the barangay, a local asks Nurse Benjie how to rehydrate a patient with cholera without using intravenous fluids.
Which of the following instructions by the nurse is most appropriate and practical using available resources?
a. “Boil guava leaves and give the extract to the patient every hour.”
b. “Have the patient sip coconut water frequently throughout the day.”
c. “Prepare coffee and encourage the patient to drink it warm.”
d. “Give carbonated soft drinks to help replenish lost fluids quickly.”

A

b. “Have the patient sip coconut water frequently throughout the day.”

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9
Q

In taking care of a patient diagnosed with cholera, the nurse will institute which transmission-based precaution?
a. Enteric precaution
b. Droplet precaution
c. Standard precaution
d. Airborne precaution

A

a. Enteric precaution

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10
Q

Nurse Benjie is conducting a health seminar on cholera in the barangay. Which of the following statements about the infection is inaccurate?
a. Cholera is an acute bacterial infection caused by a certain bacterium.
b. Symptoms usually appear from less than a day after infection up to five days.
c. Rice-water stools are considered the hallmark sign of the infection.
d. A good prognosis is still expected even if treatment is delayed beyond the first day of symptom onset.

A

d. A good prognosis is still expected even if treatment is delayed beyond the first day of symptom onset.

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11
Q

The nurse is aware that all the following bacterial pathogens can cause meningitis, except:
a. Neisseria meningitidis
b. Streptococcus pneumoniae
c. Escherichia coli
d. Salmonella typhi

A

d. Salmonella typhi

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12
Q

A patient with meningitis undergoes a lumbar puncture to examine the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). Which of the following findings would be
unexpected?
a. Elevated WBC count
b. Cloudy appearance of the CSF
c. Decreased protein level
d. Decreased glucose level

A

c. Decreased protein level

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13
Q

The nurse is administering mannitol to reduce the patient’s increased intracranial pressure. Which of the following assessment findings would
indicate that the medication is working?
a. Increased urinary output
b. Decrease in the patient’s blood pressure
c. Improvement in respiratory rate
d. Decrease in the level of consciousness

A

a. Increased urinary output

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14
Q

In caring for a patient with meningitis, which transmission-based precaution should the nurse implement?
a. Enteric precautions
b. Droplet precautions
c. Standard precautions
d. Airdrop precautions

A

b. Droplet precautions

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15
Q

Which of the following nursing management interventions would not be effective in preventing the potential spread of meningitis to other
individuals?
a. Administering antibiotics as prescribed
b. Wearing appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE) when caring for the patient
c. Placing the patient in a positive pressure room
d. Isolating the patient from other individuals with respiratory symptoms

A

b. Wearing appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE) when caring for the patient

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16
Q

The nurse is required to report the incidence of this disease to the appropriate authorities in their locality. This mandate is outlined in which
Philippine law?
a. RA 7277
b. RA 9165
c. RA 11332
d. RA 10918

A

c. RA 11332

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17
Q

Nurse Juan is interviewing the patient to determine when the symptoms first appeared, aiming to establish the time frame from the initial
point of infection to the onset of the first signs and symptoms. The nurse is trying to determine which stage of disease progression?
a. Incubation period
b. Prodromal period
c. Period of illness
d. Period of decline
e. Convalescence period

A

a. Incubation period

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18
Q

The patient, having history of exposure to a COVID-positive individual within 14 days prior to symptom onset, exhibits a positive rapid
antigen test and positive consolidations in the chest X-ray results. The patient would be classified as a:
a. Suspected case
b. Probable case
c. Possible case
d. Confirmed case

A

b. Probable case

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19
Q

In diagnosing a patient with symptoms consistent with COVID-19, which of the following tests would be used to evaluate whether the body
has developed immunity against the infection?
a. Reverse transcription-polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR)
b. C-reactive protein
c. Rapid antigen test
d. Rapid antibody test

A

d. Rapid antibody test

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20
Q

The nurse is caring for a patient who is diagnosed with COVID-19 and is at risk for developing respiratory distress. Which of the following
actions should the nurse take to ensure optimal management of the patient’s condition?
a. Provide analgesics and antipyretics to manage fever and pain
b. Place an endotracheal tube at the bedside in anticipation of airway compromise
c. Instruct the patient to perform deep breathing exercises to improve lung function
d. Allow the patient to take small, frequent sips of water to stay hydrated

A

b. Place an endotracheal tube at the bedside in anticipation of airway compromise

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21
Q

Nurse Maria is aware that all the following patients are treated using Category I tuberculosis treatment regimen, except:
a. Patient A who has a new negative smear but with extensive parenchymal involvement
b. Patient B who has pericardial tuberculosis.
c. Patient C who has recurrent tuberculosis.
d. Patient D who was newly diagnosed with tuberculosis.

A

c. Patient C who has recurrent tuberculosis.

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22
Q

The nurse is conducting a Mantoux test for a group of patients with suspected tuberculosis. According to the Centers for Disease Control and
Prevention (CDC), all the following patients would have a positive reading, except:
a. Patient A, with an induration of 15 mm.
b. Patient B, a malnourished client, with an induration of 11 mm.
c. Patient C, a PLHIV, with an induration of 8 mm.
d. Patient D, a 2-year-old child, with an induration of 6 mm.

A

d. Patient D, a 2-year-old child, with an induration of 6 mm.

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23
Q

A patient with tuberculosis is taking their drug regimen, HRZE, for the first time. Which of the following statements made by the patient
would warrant the nurse to raise immediate concern?
a. “I noticed my skin is getting yellowish.”
b. “My finger joints have been stiff and painful lately.”
c. “I take a vitamin B6 supplement to prevent tingling and numbness in my extremities.”
d. “I should call the doctor immediately if I experience any decline in vision.”

A

a. “I noticed my skin is getting yellowish.”

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24
Q

The National Tuberculosis Control Program (NTP) includes several key policies aimed at controlling tuberculosis in the population. All of
the following are key policies of case finding under the program, except:
a. Passive case findings shall be implemented in all health stations.
b. Symptomatic PTB patients shall be asked to undergo other tests when at least one sputum specimen yields a negative result.
c. Only trained medical technologists/microscopists shall perform direct sputum smear microscopy.
d. No tuberculosis diagnosis shall be made based on chest X-ray results alone.

A

b. Symptomatic PTB patients shall be asked to undergo other tests when at least one sputum specimen yields a negative result.

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25
The nurse is collecting a sputum specimen from a patient with suspected tuberculosis. Which of the following actions made by the nurse is correct? a. Give oral care only after the procedure. b. Label the specimen and store in a cool fridge for four hours prior to sending the specimen to the laboratory. c. All specimen with unknown collection dates are for immediate discard. d. Sputum is to be collected prior to bedtime.
c. All specimen with unknown collection dates are for immediate discard.
26
In caring for the child with diphtheria, the nurse will implement which of the following transmission-based precautions? a. Enteric precautions b. Droplet precautions c. Standard precautions d. Airdrop precautions
b. Droplet precautions
27
During morning rounds, the nurse assesses a patient with diphtheria and notes a respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute. Which of the following actions by the nurse would demonstrate a lack of competence? a. The nurse lowers the head of the bed. b. The nurse prepares an intubation kit at the bedside table. c. The nurse administers supplementary oxygen. d. The nurse monitors the oxygen saturation of the patient.
a. The nurse lowers the head of the bed.
28
Diphtheria, if left untreated, can lead to serious consequences, including death. Which of the following forms of diphtheria is considered the most deadly? a. Nasal diphtheria b. Pharyngeal diphtheria c. Laryngeal diphtheria d. None of the above
c. Laryngeal diphtheria
29
The patient with diphtheria is scheduled to undergo Schick's test. This test is used to determine: a. Immunity to diphtheria b. The presence of diphtheria toxins c. The extent of diphtheria infection d. The susceptibility to tuberculosis
a. Immunity to diphtheria
30
All the following nursing interventions are appropriate for managing diphtheria, except: a. Monitoring for arrhythmias and chest pain. b. Planning rest and activity periods. c. Implementing airborne precautions. d. Serving a soft diet.
c. Implementing airborne precautions.
31
Avian flu, commonly known as bird flu, is caused by which strain of the influenza virus that primarily affects birds but can also infect humans and other animals? a. Influenza A (H1N1) b. Influenza A (H5N1) c. Influenza B (Yamagata) d. Influenza A (H3N2)
b. Influenza A (H5N1)
32
In an effort to reduce the spread of infection, the community health nurse actively identifies individuals with symptoms and isolates them from healthy individuals. What is this practice known as? a. Quarantine b. Isolation c. Containment d. Social distancing
b. Isolation
33
Disinfection practices were implemented in all areas with live and processed poultry products to minimize the spread of avian flu. Which type of disinfection refers to the immediate disinfection conducted after the affected individual discharges infectious secretions? a. Terminal disinfection b. Concurrent disinfection c. Routine disinfection d. Environmental disinfection
b. Concurrent disinfection
34
The nurse epidemiologist is involved in developing new strategies to address a disease outbreak. In which phase of the epidemiological approach is the nurse participating? a. Descriptive epidemiology b. Analytical epidemiology c. Experimental epidemiology d. Evaluative epidemiology
c. Experimental epidemiology
35
The nurse would be correct in recommending all of the following methods to eliminate and prevent the spread of bird flu, except: a. Perform selective disinfection of farms. b. Rapidly destroy all infected or exposed birds. c. Ensure proper disposal of carcasses and quarantining of exposed poultry. d. Strict limitation of movement of any live poultry.
a. Perform selective disinfection of farms.
36
The nurse assesses the community for behaviors that may place residents at risk for acquiring bilharziasis. Which of the following activities would raise the most concern to the nurse? a. Swimming in a local freshwater lake b. Eating raw fish caught in the local river c. Using contaminated water for irrigation d. Washing clothes in a nearby stream
a. Swimming in a local freshwater lake
37
The residents ask the nurse about the causative agent of bilharziasis. The nurse would be correct in educating the residents that the disease is caused by a: a. Protozoa b. Bacteria c. Parasite d. Virus
c. Parasite
38
A resident with suspected bilharziasis expresses to the nurse that, aside from the itchy skin, they have also been experiencing hematuria. The nurse would be correct to suspect that this resident is infected with which species of schistosomes? a. Schistosoma mansoni b. Schistosoma haematobium c. Schistosoma japonicum d. Schistosoma mekongi
b. Schistosoma haematobium
39
If left untreated or inadequately managed, bilharziasis can lead to a variety of serious complications over time. Which of the following complications would not typically result from an untreated bilharziasis infection? a. Bladder cancer b. Liver cirrhosis c. Ascites d. Pulmonary embolism
d. Pulmonary embolism
40
Which of the following prevention and control measures is most important in reducing the risk of bilharziasis in a community? a. Submit stool samples for examination to Schistosomiasis Control Teams (SCTs) b. Fence off or tie stray animals to prevent contamination c. Avoid contact with schistosomiasis-infested waters d. Keep the environment clean and participate in community disease control efforts
c. Avoid contact with schistosomiasis-infested waters
41
Chickenpox is a contagious viral disease that can spread easily among children and adults. Which of the following viruses is responsible for causing chickenpox? a. Herpes simplex virus b. Varicella-zoster virus c. Epstein-Barr virus d. Cytomegalovirus
b. Varicella-zoster virus
42
The nurse is assessing a student's rash and suspects it may not be caused by chickenpox. Which of the following signs would lead the nurse to consider a different underlying pathology? a. The rash appears as small, red spots that turn into fluid-filled blisters. b. The rash begins on the face and spreads to the rest of the body. c. The rash is accompanied by muscle aches and swollen lymph nodes. d. The rash is widespread, but lesions appear to be in different stages of healing.
b. The rash begins on the face and spreads to the rest of the body.
43
A chickenpox patient receives a prescription for pharmacologic therapy to manage the disease. Which of the following medications would the nurse question the physician about? a. Acyclovir b. Acetaminophen c. Cloxacillin d. Oxycodone
c. Cloxacillin
44
The nurse checks the immunization records of a patient with chickenpox. The vaccine for chickenpox is classified as which type of vaccine? a. Toxoidb. b. Live attenuated c. Inactivated d. Protein derivative
b. Live attenuated
45
Which of the following teaching points should the nurse avoid when providing instructions on managing pruritus in a patient with chickenpox? a. Encourage the patient to apply calamine lotion to affected areas. b. Advise the patient to take warm baths with oatmeal or baking soda. c. Recommend the use of over-the-counter antihistamines to relieve itching. d. Instruct the patient to scratch the lesions to relieve the itching.
d. Instruct the patient to scratch the lesions to relieve the itching.
46
A female patient presents to the clinic with complaints of vaginal itching and soreness. Upon examination, the nurse notes a greenish-yellow, odorous discharge. Based on the symptoms, the nurse would most likely suspect which of the following conditions? a. Bacterial vaginosis b. Candidiasis c. Trichomoniasis d. Pelvic inflammatory disease
c. Trichomoniasis
47
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a female patient diagnosed with chlamydia. The nurse emphasizes the importance of using condoms to prevent transmission. Which of the following is an additional teaching point the nurse should provide? a. Chlamydia can be effectively treated with tetracycline. b. Chlamydia is always symptomatic in females. c. Chlamydia can be transmitted even if the male partner does not show symptoms. d. Chlamydia does not affect fertility in females.
c. Chlamydia can be transmitted even if the male partner does not show symptoms.
48
A patient is diagnosed with gonorrhea and prescribed ceftriaxone 125 mg IM. The nurse provides education regarding prevention. Which of the following actions would the nurse recommend to prevent the spread of gonorrhea? a. Use condoms consistently and correctly during sexual activity b. Encourage the patient to avoid antibiotics in the future c. Recommend sexual activity only with new partners d. Advise the patient to limit sexual activity to once a week
a. Use condoms consistently and correctly during sexual activity
49
A 32-year-old male patient presents with a persistent discharge from his penis, painful urination, and swollen testicles. The nurse suspects gonorrhea. Which of the following is the first-line treatment for uncomplicated gonorrhea? a. Azithromycin b. Metronidazole c. Ceftriaxone d. Tetracycline
c. Ceftriaxone
50
A 24-year-old female patient is diagnosed with Chlamydia trachomatis. The nurse educates her about the importance of following through with treatment. Which of the following statements by the patient indicates the need for further education? a. “I will ensure that both my partner and I complete the prescribed antibiotic regimen.” b. “I should return for a follow-up test in 3 months to ensure the infection is cleared.” c. “I can resume sexual activity once I start my antibiotics.” d. “I should notify any sexual partners so they can also be treated.”
c. “I can resume sexual activity once I start my antibiotics.”
51
In the Philippines, organ donation is legalized and regulated under which specific law that governs the practice of organ and tissue transplantation? a. Republic Act No. 7170 b. Republic Act No. 10918 c. Republic Act No. 9165 d. Republic Act No. 8423
a. Republic Act No. 7170
52
Prior to retrieval surgery, all the following legal requirements must be met, except: a. Declaration of brain death by the patient’s attending physician. b. An organ donor card. c. Consent from donation from the next of kin. d. Approval from the hospital ethics committee.
d. Approval from the hospital ethics committee.
53
indicates the need for further teaching? a. “We can still choose to donate even if my brother didn’t carry a donor card.” b. “The body will be disfigured after the organs are removed.” c. “The transplant team is different from the team providing end-of-life care.” d. “We can say no to donation at any point before the retrieval process begins.”
b. “The body will be disfigured after the organs are removed.”
54
Which of the following organs or tissues is not considered viable for transplantation in current medical practice? a. Corneas b. Skin c. Thymus tissue d. Cerebral tissue
d. Cerebral tissue
55
A 16-year-old patient expresses the desire to become an organ donor. Which of the following is required for the patient to be eligible to donate organs upon death? a. The patient must wait until reaching the age of 18 to make a donation decision. b. Parental or legal guardian consent is required for organ donation. c. The patient must have an organ donor card signed by a physician. d. The patient must undergo a psychological evaluation to confirm the decision
b. Parental or legal guardian consent is required for organ donation.
56
Smoking-related diseases and mortality are known to be dose-related, meaning the more a person smokes, the higher their risk of developing certain diseases and dying from them. Which of the following parameters is not associated with this dose-related risk? a. Pattern of inhaling b. Amount of cigarettes smoked per day c. Age at which smoking is initiated d. Passive smoke exposure
d. Passive smoke exposure
57
The community health nurse is educating residents about the harmful chemicals found in cigarettes. Which of the following is least likely to be a component of cigarette smoke? a. Lead b. Naphthalene c. Nitrogen d. Hexamine
c. Nitrogen
58
A smoker expresses a desire to quit and speaks with the nurse about the benefits of quitting, particularly in relation to the risk of coronary artery disease (CAD). Which of the following statements would the nurse use to educate the patient? a. Persons who quit smoking have similar death rates from CAD as those who continue to smoke. b. After 10 years of not smoking, the risk of death from CAD approaches that of a nonsmoker. c. After 15 years of not smoking, pre-cancerous cells are replaced by healthy cells. d. Men under age 65 years who stop smoking reduce their CAD risk by 10%.
d. Men under age 65 years who stop smoking reduce their CAD risk by 10%.
59
A nurse is assisting a smoker in quitting and follows established smoking cessation guidelines. Which of the following practices is recommended as part of a successful smoking cessation intervention? a. Smoking cessation should be discussed only once during the patient's visit. b. Brief counseling interventions of 3 minutes are effective, with more intensive counseling being more beneficial. c. Patients should not be asked about their smoking status unless they report symptoms related to smoking. d. Smoking cessation interventions should be handled solely by the physician without the involvement of other healthcare professionals.
b. Brief counseling interventions of 3 minutes are effective, with more intensive counseling being more beneficial
60
Which of the following is not one of the four pillars established by WHO for successful anti-tobacco programs? a. Aggressive health information dissemination combined with comprehensive advertising bans on tobacco products b. Government-supported programs to encourage and help smokers break free of their addiction to smoking c. The taxation of tobacco products to create an economic disincentive for the buying of higher-priced cigarettes d. Increasing availability of tobacco products to discourage their consumption
d. Increasing availability of tobacco products to discourage their consumption
61
Which of the following is a role of the community health nurse in promoting mental health? a. Provide therapy for individuals with severe mental disorders. b. Teach families the importance of emotional support during critical life events. c. Diagnose and treat mental health disorders. d. Recommend specific psychiatric medications for patients in the community.
b. Teach families the importance of emotional support during critical life events.
62
According to data as of 2025, most Philippine provinces have at least one mental health facility catering to the population. All the following Philippine provinces still do not have these facilities, except: a. Guimaras b. Marinduque c. Batanes d. La Union
c. Batanes
63
Mental health problems present a public health burden in four key areas. Which of the following describes the burden characterized by the denial of equal participation in productive employment and normal social life due to misconceptions and stereotypes associated with mental illness? a. Defined burden b. Undefined burden c. Hidden burden d. Future burden
c. Hidden burden
64
Which of the following factors are considered part of the undefined burden of mental health? a. Increased government-funding demand for mental health institutions for the aging population b. Violation of human rights of those who are mentally ill c. The quality of life of those with mental disorders d. Emotional burden for family members of the mentally ill
d. Emotional burden for family members of the mentally ill
65
All the following are specific examples of the future burden of mental health problems, except: a. Increased demand for mental health services b. Rejection of work from employers c. Generational transmission of mental health issues d. Economic decline due to increasing prevalence of mental health issues in the workforce
b. Rejection of work from employers
66
The cancer screening program conducted by the community health team is aimed at detecting cancer in its early stages. This activity falls under which level of prevention? a. Primary b. Secondary c. Tertiary d. Quaternary
b. Secondary
67
The American Cancer Society developed the acronym “CAUTION US” as a guide to remember the early warning signs of cancer. Which of the following correctly matches the letters in the acronym with their corresponding meanings? Select all that apply. I. C: Change in neurological status II. A: A sore that does not heal III. T: Thickened mucus or secretions IV. S: Slow, progressive weight loss V. N: Nagging cough or hoarseness in voice a. I, II, V b. I, III, IV, V c. II, III, IV d. II, V e. III, IV
d. II, V
68
The nurse is teaching a group of women about proper techniques for breast self-examination. Which of the following statements by a participant indicates that the teaching has been effective? a. “I should perform the examination about two weeks after my last menstrual cycle.” b. “In palpating my breasts, I should use my palms.” c. “Since I have undergone a hysterectomy, I still should examine my breasts the same day each month.” d. “These examinations need to be done by a professional only.”
b. “In palpating my breasts, I should use my palms.” c. “Since I have undergone a hysterectomy, I still should examine my breasts the same day each month.
69
According to the Global Cancer Observatory under the World Health Organization, which type of cancer is the leading cause of cancerrelated mortality in the Philippines? a. Breast cancer b. Lung cancer c. Ovarian cancer d. Hepatic cancer
b. Lung cancer
70
The nurse is educating a female client about the necessary preparations before undergoing a Pap smear. Which of the following statements made by the client indicates correct understanding of the nurse’s teaching? a. “I should not have sexual intercourse at least 24 hours prior to the test.” b. “Douching is necessary to prepare the examination area.” c. “Since I am sexually active, I should have my Pap smear every three years.” d. “I can undergo my routine smear two days after my menses.”
a. “I should not have sexual intercourse at least 24 hours prior to the test.”
71
following is not considered a core responsibility of the nurse in family planning service delivery? a. Ensuring the continuous availability of family planning supplies and logistics b. Providing individualized counseling on family planning methods, including their benefits and possible side effects c. Making the final decision on the most appropriate family planning method for the client d. Educating clients about the effectiveness, complications, and management of reproductive health concerns
c. Making the final decision on the most appropriate family planning method for the client
72
The nurse is counseling a postpartum mother about the Lactational Amenorrhea Method (LAM) as a temporary form of family planning. Which of the following conditions must be met for LAM to be considered effective? a. The mother has resumed menstruation but continues breastfeeding regularly. b. The infant is less than 6 months old and is fully or nearly fully breastfed, and the mother remains amenorrheic. c. The mother provides breast milk via bottle, and the infant is 8 months old. d. The mother uses LAM in combination with barrier methods for better effectiveness.
b. The infant is less than 6 months old and is fully or nearly fully breastfed, and the mother remains amenorrheic.
73
During a community family planning seminar, Nurse Eliza discusses male sterilization as a permanent birth control option. She explains the nature of a vasectomy and addresses common misconceptions. Which of the following points shared by the nurse is accurate? a. Vasectomy prevents pregnancy immediately after the procedure. b. Vasectomy lowers hormone levels and reduces a man’s sexual performance. c. Vasectomy is a permanent method that does not affect sexual ability or hormone levels. d. Vasectomy requires regular contraceptive resupply from health centers
c. Vasectomy is a permanent method that does not affect sexual ability or hormone levels.
74
During a family planning seminar, a participant expresses concern that using contraceptives might cause abortion or lead to permanent infertility. Which of the following statements by the nurse best addresses this misconception? a. “Only hormonal contraceptives can sometimes act as abortifacients, so natural methods are safer.” b. “Temporary family planning methods are reversible and do not cause abortion or permanent infertility.” c. “Most contraceptives can decrease fertility over time, so use them only if you’re sure you don’t want more children.” d. “You should discuss these concerns with a physician because nurses are not trained to answer such questions.”
b. “Temporary family planning methods are reversible and do not cause abortion or permanent infertility.
75
Which of the following family planning methods is least effective in preventing pregnancy? a. Female sterilization b. Male condom c. Basal Body Temperature (BBT) method d. Vasectomy
c. Basal Body Temperature (BBT) method
76
Which of the following is the recommended practice for infant and young child feeding? a. Initiate breastfeeding within 3 hours after birth and extend breastfeeding for up to 1 year b. Exclusively breastfeed for the first 6 months and introduce complementary foods at 5 months c. Initiate breastfeeding within 1 hour after birth, exclusively breastfeed for the first 6 months, and continue breastfeeding up to two years or beyond d. Introduce milk supplements at 4 months while continuing breastfeeding for 1 year
c. Initiate breastfeeding within 1 hour after birth, exclusively breastfeed for the first 6 months, and continue breastfeeding up to two years or beyond
77
A mother asks nurse Judy about the benefits of breastfeeding to the mother. The nurse would be correct to educate that all the following are maternal benefits of breastfeeding, except: a. Reduces the woman’s risk of excessive blood loss after birth b. Provides natural methods of delaying pregnancies c. Reduces the risk of ovarian and breast cancers. d. Provides additional immunity to communicable diseases.
d. Provides additional immunity to communicable diseases.
78
The nurse educates the group of mothers about the legal mandate that requires both public and private health institutions to encourage, protect, and support the practice of breastfeeding. The nurse is referring to which Philippine law? a. Republic Act 10173 b. Republic Act 10028 c. Executive Order 51 d. Letter of Instruction 949
b. Republic Act 10028
79
Which of the following is the most appropriate guideline for fluid intake in young children? a. Fizzy drinks are suitable for children as long as they are given in moderation. b. Fruit juices can be given freely as they provide essential nutrients and hydration. c. Drinks should not replace foods or breastfeeding and should only be given in small amounts during meals. d. Teas and coffee can be given with meals as they help in iron absorption.
c. Drinks should not replace foods or breastfeeding and should only be given in small amounts during meals.
80
Nurse Judy advises a group of mothers about the proper breastfeeding technique. What is the best practice to prevent breast problems like engorgement and infection? a. Breastfeed the baby from one breast only during each feeding. b. Always use a breast pump for milk extraction. c. Alternate between both breasts during each feeding. d. Offer the same breast during each feeding for consistency.
c. Alternate between both breasts during each feeding.
81
All the following plants are not approved by the Department of Health for alternative medicine use, except: a. Ginseng b. Ginkgo biloba c. Garlic d. Ginger
c. Garlic
82
A client inquires about the proper preparation of akapulko for treating gout. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide? a. Boil the plant material in an uncovered clay pot for 20 minutes over a low flame and wash the liquid over the painful area. b. Crush the plant material and apply directly over the painful joint. c. Say to the client, “Hindi po ginagamit ang akapulko para sa rayuma.” d. Mix the plant material with alcohol and apply the mixture over the area.
d. Mix the plant material with alcohol and apply the mixture over the area.
83
All the following ailments are indications for yerba buena, except: a. Arthritis b. Fainting c. Colds d. Diarrhea
b. Fainting
84
Nurse Marco educates the group about some reminders when using herbal medicine. Which of the following teaching points will possibly lead to complications for the patient? a. Use only the part of the plant being advocated. b. Use only one kind of herbal plant for each type of symptoms or sickness. c. Stop giving herbal medication in case untoward reactions occur. d. Adjust dosages based on the duration, frequency, and severity of symptoms.
d. Adjust dosages based on the duration, frequency, and severity of symptoms.
85
The nurse is educating a client with diarrhea and recommends the use of tsaang gubat as a natural remedy. However, the client shares that tsaang gubat is not available in their vicinity. Which of the following DOH-approved herbal plants can the nurse suggest as an alternative treatment? a. Guava b. Ampalaya c. Sambong d. Ulasimang Bato
a. Guava
86
A disaster can be classified according to its cause. Which of the following is not considered a human-generated disaster? a. Oil spill from a capsized cargo ship b. Explosion from a nuclear power plant c. Civil unrest from martial law implementation d. Dengue epidemic after rainfall season
87
A nurse attends a training on emergency preparedness and reviews its guiding principles. Which of the following statements is not aligned with the core principles of emergency preparedness? a. Emergency preparedness focuses primarily on creating detailed documentation and protocols. b. It is a shared responsibility across government and non-government levels. c. Hospitals must have a regularly updated disaster plan accessible to all relevant staff. d. The main goal is to reduce mortality, morbidity, and prevent disability.
a. Emergency preparedness focuses primarily on creating detailed documentation and protocols.
88
One of the legal mandates of creating a health emergency preparedness and response program within communities is through the establishment of the Local Government Code of 1991. This mandate is recognized as: a. Republic Act 7160 b. Republic Act 7610 c. Republic Act 6969 d. Presidential Decree No. 1566
a. Republic Act 7160
89
The nurse is reviewing key concepts in disaster risk reduction with a group of community leaders. Which of the following best describes the concept of risk? a. A sudden event that causes widespread human and environmental loss beyond the community’s capacity. b. An immediate event that requires urgent response and action. c. The predicted level of loss or damage from a specific hazard in a certain place and time. d. A natural or man-made event with potential to cause harm to people and the environment.
c. The predicted level of loss or damage from a specific hazard in a certain place and time.
90
What is the primary purpose of a hospital disaster plan? a. To provide a framework for responding to disaster situations that impact hospital operations and stakeholders. b. To ensure that the hospital can handle mass casualties during any emergency. c. To assign specific roles and responsibilities to hospital staff during a disaster. d. To outline standard operating guidelines for emergency activities and responses.
a. To provide a framework for responding to disaster situations that impact hospital operations and stakeholders.
91
Under the Primary Health Care system, all the following components are considered essential services, except: a. Expanded Program on Immunization b. Safe water and proper waste disposal c. Health education d. Alternative therapies
d. Alternative therapies
92
Various categories of health workers make up the primary health care team. Which of the following is considered a grassroots health worker? a. Rural sanitary inspector b. Public health physician c. Registered midwife d. Traditional healer
d. Traditional healer
93
Which of the following health facilities is not considered part of the secondary level of health care in the Philippines? a. District hospital b. City health office c. Rural health unit d. Non-departmentalized provincial hospital
c. Rural health unit
94
A student nurse is studying the Inter-Local Health System (ILHS) as a strategy to improve health service delivery at the local level. Which of the following best describes a key feature of this system? a. It promotes a hospital-centered approach for curative care only. b. It is focused solely on public health programs managed by national government agencies. c. It clusters municipalities into health zones with integrated hospital and public health services. d. It removes the need for collaboration between local government units and private stakeholders.
c. It clusters municipalities into health zones with integrated hospital and public health services.
95
During a community health lecture, a public health nurse explains the importance of Inter-Local Health Systems (ILHS). Which of the following is the primary reason for establishing ILHS in the Philippine healthcare delivery system? a. To separate hospital and public health services for more efficient governance b. To ensure competition among local government units for health financing c. To reintegrate public health and hospital services for more holistic healthcare d. To increase political influence of local government units in healthcare planning
c. To reintegrate public health and hospital services for more holistic healthcare
96
Nurse Danica aims to emphasize healthy lifestyle practices in her health education sessions at the health center. Which step in the teachinglearning process should she prioritize first? a. Assessing health needs b. Evaluation of learning takes place c. Preparing learning materials d. Developing the health education plan
a. Assessing health needs
97
In planning the health education program on healthy lifestyles, Nurse Danica targets working with parents in the community. Considering the diverse ethnic backgrounds among them, which important factor should be included in the plan? a. Economic b. Social c. Cultural d. Educational
c. Cultural
98
Based on Knowles' Theory of Adult Learning, which of the following principles will guide Nurse Danica in being an effective educator? a. Educational attainment b. School from which the participants graduated c. Age and gender of learners d. Environment and learner’s participation
d. Environment and learner’s participation
99
Nurse Danica plans to have the residents of the community participate in a brainstorming session about their community problems. Which of the following best explains the rationale for this teaching format? a. Encourages problem-solving and critical thinking skills b. Links audience participation to the presenter’s speaking style and content c. Allows participants to generate ideas and discuss them in a group setting d. Offers shared experiences in a familiar setting
c. Allows participants to generate ideas and discuss them in a group setting
100
Successful teaching and learning activities in any health care setting is primarily fostered through _________________. a. Identifying motivating factors b. Using clear and concise language c. Establishing trust and rapport d. Setting realistic goals and objectives
d. Setting realistic goals and objectives