CNAF Flashcards

(70 cards)

1
Q

What is an Actual Instrument Approach?

A

An approach conducted under actual instrument conditions below 1,000 feet above the airport/flight deck elevation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are Actual Instrument Conditions?

A

Conditions external to the aircraft in flight that do not permit visual reference to the horizon.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are Aerobatic Maneuvers?

A

An intentional maneuver involving an abrupt change in aircraft attitude, intentionally performed spins, or other maneuvers requiring pitch/dive angles greater than 45°, bank angles greater than 60°, or accelerations greater than 2 Gs. A maneuver that conforms to the model NATOPS manual (e.g., break, weapons delivery, autorotations, etc.) is not considered to be aerobatic flight.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What does Aircrew refer to?

A

A collective term that applies to all categories of personnel in a flight status either as crew or non-crewmember. Aircrew are military personnel on competent flight orders or civilian personnel whose duties require frequent and regular participation in aerial flights to perform inflight functions such as installation, maintenance, evaluation of airborne technical equipment (maintenance skins), communication specialists, photo specialists, etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Who is a Combatant Commander?

A

The commander of one of the unified or specified commands established by the President.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is Control - Advisory?

A

The tactical control of aircraft by a designated control unit in which the pilot receives directions recommendations. Aircraft commanders are not relieved of responsibility for their own safety and navigation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is Control - Positive?

A

The tactical control of aircraft by a designated control unit, whereby the pilot receives orders affecting aircraft movements that transfer responsibility for the safe navigation of the aircraft to the unit issuing such orders. The ultimate safety of the aircraft is the responsibility of the pilot.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is Control - Close?

A

The tactical control of aircraft by a designated control unit, whereby the pilot receives orders affecting aircraft movements. The pilot will not deviate from controller instructions unless given permission or unless unusual circumstances require immediate action for the safety of the flight. In either case, the pilot will inform the controller of the action taken.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the role of the Controlling Custodian?

A

The command exercising administrative control of assignment, employment, and logistic support of aircraft. Controlling custodians are identified in COMNAVAIRFORINST 4790.2A.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What does Crew Resource Management (CRM) entail?

A

The use of specifically defined behavioral skills as an integral part of every flight to improve mission effectiveness by minimizing crew preventable errors, maximizing crew coordination, and optimizing risk management.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is a Cross-Country Flight?

A

A Cross-Country Flight is a flight that either does not remain in the local flying area or terminates at a facility other than a military facility.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the significance of the radar in flight operations?

A

An aircraft not held on the radar for periods in excess of 1 minute or five sweeps is being dead reckoned, impacting safety.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What defines the end of a flight?

A

A flight ends when the aircraft has been on the surface for 5 minutes after the engines are stopped or after a change in the pilot in command.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is flight time?

A

The elapsed time computed in accordance with the definition of flight. Flight time is logged in hours and tenths of hours and is creditable to the aircraft, personnel aboard, and equipment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is Flight Clearance?

A

A flight clearance provides temporary flight operating limits for an aviation system operating in a nonstandard configuration or to a nonstandard envelope, pending issuance of the technical directive or change to the NATOPS, NATIP, or tactical manuals. A flight clearance is a temporary airworthiness approval from COMNAVAIRSYSCOM.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Who is considered Flight Crew?

A

Personnel required on board a manned aircraft or at a control station for UAS to perform crew functions in support of the assigned mission (e.g., pilot, copilot, navigator, flight engineer, crew chief, air observer, special crew, trainee, etc.).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is Formation Flight?

A

A flight of more than one aircraft operating by prior arrangement as a single aircraft with regard to altitude, navigation, and position reporting, and where separation between aircraft within the flight rests with the pilots in that flight.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is a Hazard?

A

A condition with the potential to cause personal injury or damage to equipment or mission.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are Instrument Meteorological Conditions?

A

Meteorological conditions expressed in terms of visibility, distance from clouds, and ceiling less than the minimums specified for visual meteorological conditions. IMC conditions exist anytime a visible horizon is not distinguishable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is instrument time?

A

The portion of pilot time in either day or night under actual or simulated instrument conditions.

A. Actual instrument time will be logged by both pilots in a dual/multipiloted aircraft during flight in actual instrument conditions.
B. Simulated instrument time shall be logged only by the pilot actually manipulating the controls.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is pilot time?

A

The portion of time a pilot is actually manipulating the controls of an aircraft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Landing

A

A return to the surface; landings include touch and go (providing the landing gear touches the surface), bolter, forced, or crash.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Land Immediately

A

Execute a landing without delay.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Land as Soon as Possible

A

Land at the first site at which a safe landing can be made.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Land as soon as Practicable
Extended flight is not recommended. The landing site and duration of flight is at the discretion of the pilot in command.
26
Local Flight
A flight that remains within the local flying area and terminates at either the same facility or another military facility with which the pilot is familiar.
27
Local Flying Area
That area in the vicinity of an air installation in which locally-based aircraft can operate during an average/typical sorties flight time. The local flying area shall not exceed 350 miles from an air installation and be designated as such in the Air Operations Manual by the Commanding Officer. In so far as practicable, local flying areas shall be bounded by prominent terrain features and/or air navigation aid radials/distances.
28
Multipiloted Aircraft
Any aircraft having two sets of flight controls and instruments and operated by two pilots, both of who meet the requirements of the NATOPS manual for that model aircraft.
29
Night Time
The portion of pilot time during darkness (i.e., between the official time of sunset and sunrise) regardless of whether visual or instrument conditions exist.
30
Oceanic
A situation where an aircraft has no radio communication and is greater than 250 nm from the nearest navaid.
31
Officer in tactical Command
The senior officer present eligible to assume command, or the officer to whom he has delegated tactical command.
32
Official Business
The necessity to contact personnel, units, or organizations for the purpose of conducting transactions in the service of and in the interest of the United States Government. This definition does not authorize the use of official business only airfields, their services, or other items attendant to itinerant operations when making en route stops while proceeding to an airfield at which official business is to be conducted. Official business only restrictions do not preclude the use of the facility as an alternate during instrument flight rule (IFR) conditions.
33
Operational Necessity
A mission associated with war or peacetime operations in which the consequences of an action justify accepting the risk of loss of aircraft and crew.
34
Operational Risk Management (ORM)
The process of dealing with the risk associated with military operations, which include risk assessment, risk decision making and implementation of effective risk controls.
35
Orientation Flight
A continuous-flight in DOD aircraft performed within the local flying area and terminating at the point of origin intended to further the understanding of particular programs concerning the roles and missions of the Department of Defense.
36
Passenger
An individual who is not part of the aircrew traveling in an aircraft designed or normally configured for passenger (non-aircrew) carrying capability on a point-to-point flight.
37
Pilot in Command
The pilot assigned responsibility for the safe and orderly conduct of the flight and control of the aircraft.
38
Pilot Time
The flight time credited to a designated aviator, student naval aviator, student/designated naval flight surgeon, student/designated aerospace physiologist, or student/designated aerospace experimental psychologist assigned to duty involving flying. Pilot time includes all time credited as first pilot and copilot. Pilot time is intended to be a record of active participation in the control of an aircraft. Pilot time will be credited to the individual actually earning it regardless of rank, billet, age, or level of experience.
39
First Pilot Time
The portion of pilot time during which an individual is positioned with access to the flight controls and is exercising principal active control of the aircraft.
40
Copilot time
The portion of pilot time while assisting the pilot exercising principal active control of a multipiloted aircraft during which the copilot is positioned with access to and is immediately ready to operate the flight controls; or, in those aircraft with only one set of flight controls, that portion of flight time while instructing the pilot who is exercising principal active control when the designated instructor is positioned so that pilot and aircraft instruments can be observed. Aeronautically designated personnel may log CPT while performing copilot duties as required by the aircraft mission.
41
Qualified in Model:
A designation that indicates the minimum requirements for qualification in a specific crew position, as set forth in the appropriate NATOPS manual, have been attained. Such designations are a one-time occurrence (per unit/command tour) and remain in effect until removed for cause. Annual NATOPS evaluations should not be confused with or combined with these designations. If specific aircraft model NATOPS guidance is lacking, an individual shall be considered qualified in model for specific crew position when so designated by the reporting custodian.
42
What is risk?
Risk is an expression of possible loss in terms of severity and probability.
43
What is risk assessment?
Risk assessment is the process of detecting hazards and assessing associated risks.
44
What is a simulated instrument approach?
An instrument approach flown under simulated instrument conditions.
45
What are simulated instrument conditions?
External conditions that are visual meteorological conditions (VMC), but pilot vision is limited primarily to the intent of the aircraft.
46
What is a single-piloted aircraft?
Any aircraft that has only one set of flight controls or a tandem cockpit, or any aircraft that has two sets of flight controls and instruments and is being operated by only one pilot who meets the requirements of the NATOPS manual for that model aircraft.
47
What is a Designation?
A designation is a one-time occurrence and remains in effect until removed for cause. Commanders shall issue a designation letter to the individual upon the occasion of his/her original designation with appropriate copies for inclusion in his/her NATOPS qualification jacket.
48
How is a flight defined?
A. For operational purposes, a flight is one or more aircraft proceeding on a common mission. B. For recording and reporting purposes, a flight begins when the aircraft first moves forward on its takeoff run or takes off vertically from rest at any point of support and ends after airborne flight when the aircraft is on the surface and either: (1) The engines are stopped or the aircraft has been on the surface for 5 minutes, whichever comes first. (2) A change is made in the pilot in command.
49
How is a flight defined (for helo)?
C. For helicopters, a flight begins when the aircraft lifts from a rest point or commences ground taxi and ends after airborne flight when the rotors are disengaged or the aircraft has been stationary for 5 minutes with rotors engaged.
50
How is flight defined for repetitive evolutions?
Flight time on repetitive evolutions such as field carrier landing practice (FCLP), passenger/cargo stops, and carrier qualifications shall be logged from the time the aircraft takes off until the aircraft has been on the surface for 5 minutes after each evolution flown (i.e., three sorties of 55 minutes actual air time interspersed with two 20-minute ground periods for refueling or passenger/ cargo transfer will be logged as 3.0 hours of flight time).
51
VIP
VIPs are defined as flag officers, DOD officials equal to or senior to flag officers, high-profile public figures, elected members of Congress, etc.
52
What is a Hazard?
A condition with the potential to cause personal injury or death, property damage, or mission degradation.
53
What is a flight clearance?
A flight clearance provides temporary flight operating limits for an aviation system operating in a nonstandard configuration or to a nonstandard envelope, pending issuance of the technical directive or change to the NATOPS, NATIP, or tactical manuals. A flight clearance is a temporary airworthiness approval from COMNAVAIRSYSCOM.
54
Visual Meteorological Conditions
Meteorological conditions expressed in terms of visibility, cloud distance, and ceiling that are equal to or better than specified minimums. Basic weather conditions prescribed for flight under visual flight rules (VFR). (Refer to Chapter 5.)
55
What are Helicopter Taxi Restrictions?
No one shall be permitted to taxi a helicopter except those persons who are authorized to fly helicopters.
56
Helicopter Taxi Restrictions -pax embarked
No person shall be carried in a taxiing aircraft as a passenger unless such person is authorized to fly in it or has been authorized by competent authority to be embarked therein.
57
Taxi Restrictions - ground operations
Air taxi/ground operations shall be conducted with sufficient horizontal separation to preclude damage to aircraft, property, or personnel. Pilots shall operate with the minimum required power while on the ground and shall be particularly alert to prevent foreign object damage (FOD) and/or gust damage to their own and other aircraft.
58
Taxi Restrictions- Clearance
Shall be obtained prior to taxiing. Formation leaders may obtain taxi clearance for their entire flight. A clearance to taxi to the runway authorizes the aircraft to cross all runways/taxiways that the taxi route intersects except the assigned takeoff runway. This does not authorize the aircraft to enter or cross the assigned takeoff runway at any point. Ground control shall clear aircraft from the parking area to the warm-up areas. Pilots shall read back all hold/hold short instructions received during taxi. Aircraft shall remain on ground control while in the warm-up area until cleared to change frequency or until ready for takeoff clearance
59
Taxi Restrictions - overtaking
No taxiing aircraft shall overtake or pass another aircraft except with tower approval.
60
Nonessential Flights
The use of aircraft for nonessential flights shall not be authorized. Any flight open to misinterpretation by the public shall be avoided
61
Taxi Restrictions- speed
All aircraft shall be taxied at a safe rate of speed and under positive control of the pilot at all times.
62
Taxi Restrictions- Emergencies
When the tower is controlling an aircraft in an emergency, aircraft on the ground shall taxi clear of the runway. Those on the taxiway shall hold until authorized to proceed. All aircraft shall exercise radio discipline for the duration of the emergency. Pilots of taxiing aircraft sighting emergency vehicles display in the flashing red light on the field shall stop and hold their positions until authorized to proceed by radio or light signals from the tower.
63
Taxi Restrictions- Authorizations
A. When taxiing in the close vicinity of obstructions or other aircraft, a qualified taxi director shall attend the taxiing aircraft as well as other ground personnel necessary to ensure safe taxiing. B. Instructions and use of plane handling signals appear in NAVAIR 00-80T-113, and in posters and pamphlets issued by CNO. All naval activities are directed to comply with these instructions
64
Taxi Restrictions - Authorizations (Note)
Note: The pilot in command is responsible for safe taxi clearance from obstacles and other aircraft. When uncertain of safe taxi clearances, stop and utilize appropriate ground personnel prior to continuing to taxi.
65
What are Closed Tower Operations?
Airfield Operations Outside Published Hours/Closed Control Tower Airfield Operations
66
When can we operate closed tower?
A. CO can extend the hours of the airfield without opening tower B. If aircraft’s reporting custodian (unit commander) and airfield CO specifically authorize closed tower C. Without crash crew present need concurrence from reporting custodian (unit commander) and airfield CO
67
Closed Airfields
All naval aircraft are prohibited from taking off or landing at closed airfields except in the case of an emergency
68
Other Than Airfields
Helicopter, tiltrotor, and VSTOL/STOL aircraft are authorized to land at other than airfield locations (such as fields, highways, and parks), provided: (MSL) A. A military requirement exists for such landing. B. Adequate safeguards are taken to permit safe landing and takeoff operations without hazard to people or property. C. There are no legal objections to landing at such nonairfield sites.
69
Other Than Airfield Operations (Notes)
Note: COs are authorized to waive the provisions in items a. through c. when dispatched helicopters, tiltrotor, or VSTOL/STOL aircraft is engaged in SAR operations.
70
Examples of Nonessential Flights
A. Flights of a routine business nature for which commercial or other military transportation could be more economically substituted B. Flights for any officer or group of officers, the sole purpose of which is the convenience and/or prestige of the officers concerned and not the performance of official duties or accomplishment of bona fide training. C. Repeated flights to the hometown area of flight personnel concerned. D. Flights coinciding with major sports events or civic celebrations.