1
Q
What should be performed for all emergencies in the MH-60R?
A
Maintain control of the aircraft, alert crew, determine the precise nature of the problem, complete the applicable emergency procedure, determine landing criteria and land as required.
2
Q
What does ‘LAND IMMEDIATELY’ signify?
A
Execute a landing without delay.
3
Q
What does ‘LAND AS SOON AS POSSIBLE’ mean?
A
Execute a landing at the first site at which a safe landing can be made.
4
Q
Define ‘LAND AS SOON AS PRACTICAL’.
A
Extended flight is not recommended; the landing site and duration of flight are at the discretion of the PIC.
5
Q
What does ‘Check’ mean in circuit breaker terms?
A
Visually observe CB condition. Do not change condition.
6
Q
What does ‘Pull’ mean in circuit breaker terms?
A
If CB is in, pull CB out. If CB is out, do not change condition.
7
Q
What does ‘Reset’ indicate in circuit breaker terms?
A
If CB is out, push CB in. If CB is in, do not change condition.
8
Q
What does ‘Cycle’ mean in circuit breaker terms?
A
If CB is in, pull CB out then push CB back in. If CB is out, do not change condition.
9
Q
What does ‘Shall’ indicate in requirement for compliance?
A
Application of a procedure is mandatory.
10
Q
What does ‘Should’ indicate in requirement for compliance?
A
Application of a procedure is recommended.
11
Q
What does ‘May’ or ‘need not’ indicate?
A
Application of a procedure is optional.
12
Q
What does ‘Will’ indicate in terms of compliance requirements?
A
Indicates futurity and never indicates any degree of requirement for application of a procedure.
13
Q
What does a WARNING signify?
A
An operating procedure that may result in injury, death or loss of aircraft, if not carefully observed.
14
Q
What does a CAUTION signify?
A
An operating procedure that may result in damage to equipment, if not carefully observed.
15
Q
What does a NOTE signify?
A
An operating procedure that must be emphasized.
16
Q
What are the indications of an ENGINE MALFUNCTION IN FLIGHT?
A
Control Nr, Contgcy PWR – ON, Single Engine Conditions – Establish, Eng anti-ice switches – As req, Ext cargo/stores/fuel – jettison/dump as req, ID malfunction.
17
Q
What is the warning associated with flying with greater than 110% torque with OEI?
A
It may result in unrecoverable decay of Nr, in the event of a dual-engine failure.
18
Q
What happens when engine anti-ice is on?
A
Up to 18% torque available is lost.
19
Q
What are the indications of an ENG HI SIDE FAIL IN FLIGHT?
A
- TQ is 10% or greater than other engine
- Ng is 5% or greater than other engine
- Np is matched within 5% of other engine
- Nr is at or above 103%
20
Q
What is the procedure for ENG LOW SIDE FAIL?
A
- TQ is 10% below good engine
- Ng is 5% or less than the good engine
- Np is at or below 98%
- Nr is at or below 97%
21
Q
What should be done if ENG TQ OR TGT SPIKING FLUCTUATION is suspected?
A
Perform ENG Malf in Flt EP. If fuel contamination is suspected, LAND AS SOON AS POSSIBLE.
22
Q
What are the indications of a COMPRESSOR STALL?
A
Rapid increase in TGT, hangup or rapid decrease in Ng, loss of power or change in engine noise level.
23
Q
What is the procedure for ABORT START?
A
PCLs – OFF, ENG Ignition switch – OFF, Starter – ENGAGE.
24
Q
What indicates an engine malfunction during hover/takeoff?
A
Control Nr, Contgcy PWR – ON, if a suitable landing site exists, set level attitude, eliminate drift, cushion landing.
25
What should be performed during a DUAL-ENGINE FAILURE?
Establish autorotation, perform Immediate Landing/Ditching EP.
26
What is the procedure for ENGINE AIR RESTART?
APU Emerg Start – As req, ENG IGNITION switch – NORM, Fuel selector levers – DIR or XFD, PCL(s) – OFF, Starter – Engage, PCL – IDLE.
27
What should be done if there is a LOSS T/R DRIVE with sufficient altitude/airspeed?
PAC – Call “AUTO AUTO AUTO”, establish autorotation, verify drive failure.
28
What should be done if there is a LOSS T/R CONTROL?
Collective/Airspeed – Adjust as required to control yaw.
29
What are the landing techniques for LOSS OF TAIL ROTOR CONTROL?
1. Restricted Controls: As required.
2. Stuck right: Low power, land at lower collective setting/higher speed.
3. Stuck left: Excess power, land at higher collective setting/lower speed.
4. Dual Cable Failure: Control left yaw with up collective.
30
What is indicated by a HYDRAULIC SYS WARNING?
LAND IMMEDIATELY.
31
What should be done for #1 and #2 HYD PUMP FAILURE?
Restrict flight control movement, land as soon as possible.
32
What should be done if #1 PRI SERVO OR #1 TRANSFER MODULE LEAK occurs?
Servo switch – 1st OFF, land as soon as practical.
33
#1 and #2 HYD PUMP FAILURE procedures
Restrict flight control movement. Land as soon as possible.
34
What to do if #1 PRI SERVO or #1 TRANSFER MODULE LEAK occurs?
Servo switch – 1st OFF. Land as soon as practical.
35
What should you do if both #1 RES LOW and #1 HYD PUMP appear?
Land as soon as possible.
36
What is the consequence of not ensuring B/U HYD PMP switch is in AUTO or ON before landing?
Loss of TR directional control when WOW switch is activated.
37
What to do if #2 PRI SERVO or #2 TRANSFER MODULE LEAK occurs?
Servo switch – 2nd OFF. Land as soon as practical.
38
What should you be prepared for if #1 PRI SERVO and/or HYD appears?
Land immediately.
39
What should be established during AFCS DEGRADATION?
Safe altitude and airspeed.
40
What is the PAC call for STAB AUTO MODE FAIL?
"STAB STAB STAB".
41
What should you do with the cyclic during STAB AUTO MODE FAIL?
Arrest Pitch Rate.
42
What is the warning associated with the stab failure?
Stab may fail without illumination of associated caution.
43
What are the steps for UNUSUAL ATTITUDE RECOVERY?
Level wings, Nose on horizon, Center Ball, Stop rate of climb/descent, Control Airspeed.
44
What to do in case of DUEL-EGI FAILURE?
Backup instruments - Scan, as required.
45
What should be checked during ELECTRICAL POWER FAILURE?
Stabilator position, slew as required.
46
What is the APU Emerg Start Procedure during electrical failure?
Perform APU Emerg Start Procedure.
47
What to do in case of INTERNAL ENGINE FIRE above 540°C?
Starter – ENGAGE, motor engine.
48
What should be done if #1 FUEL PRESS or #2 FUEL PRESS appears?
Fuel Selector Lever (affecting engine) – XFD.
49
What to do if both #1 and #2 FUEL PRESS appear?
Land as soon as possible.
50
What steps to take in case of EXTERNAL ENGINE FIRE?
Confirm Fire, ENG Malf in Flt EP – Perform, PCL (affected engine) – OFF.
51
What to do in case of APU FIRE?
APU T-Handle – PULL, Confirm Fire.
52
What to do if cockpit/cabin fire source is known?
Affected power switches and CB’s – OFF/Pull.
53
What should be done for SMOKE AND FUME ELIMINATION?
Airspeed – adjust as required, Doors/windows/vents – Open.
54
What to do during IMMEDIATE LANDING DITCHING?
Crew and passengers – ALERT, Shoulder Harness – LOCKED.
55
What is the procedure for UNDERWATER EGRESS?
Emergency breathing device – As required, Cords – Disconnect.
56
What to do if MTS UNCOMMANDED LASING occurs?
ACI MASTER ARM – SAFE, LASER SELECT switch – SAFE.
57
What is the procedure for HELLFIRE MISSILE HANGFIRE?
Adjust controls as required to maintain straight and level flight.
58
What to do for ROCKET MISFIRE?
Point weapon in a safe direction, Safe weapon: +1760 OFF – Select.
59
What to do in case of SONAR CABLE ANGLE MALFUNCTION?
PAC call "CABLE, CABLE, CABLE," CABLE ANGLE pushbutton — Off.
60
What are the procedures for BLADE STALL?
Decrease collective pitch, Decrease severity of maneuver, Gradually decrease airspeed.
61
What is the key factor in VORTEX RING STATE?
Measureable >700fpm from 0-20 KIAS.
62
What happens when TGT exceeds limits?
Shall land as soon as practicable.
63
What is the maximum TGT for 12 seconds?
903-949°.
64
What is the precautionary range for oil temperatures in the engine?
135 - 150° for 30 minutes.
65
What is the minimum fuel requirement on landing?
No less than 600 lbs.
66
What is the maximum wind velocity for rotor engagement/disengagement?
45 knots from any direction.
67
What happens if the gust lock is engaged during engine operation?
Prohibited.
68
What is the maximum airspeed (Vne)?
180 KIAS
69
What is the maximum airspeed for sideward/rearward flight?
35 KIAS
70
What is the maximum airspeed for autorotation?
100 KIAS
71
What is the maximum airspeed with boost off?
140 KIAS
72
What is the maximum airspeed with two SAS inoperative in IMC?
125 KIAS
73
What is the maximum airspeed when either PRI SERVO PRESS caution is on?
125 KIAS
74
What is the maximum airspeed with the dome at trail?
70 KIAS, 45° AOB
75
What is the maximum airspeed with the dome below trail?
70 KIAS, 15° AOB
76
What is the maximum airspeed for cabin door opening/closing?
60 KIAS
77
What is the maximum airspeed for the searchlight in transition?
100 KIAS
78
What is the maximum airspeed for the searchlight in a fixed position, other than stowed?
160 KIAS
79
Fill in the blank: With MTS installed below ______ KIAS with 1000 fpm descent or more, inaccurate airspeed indications are possible.
90
80
What are the temperature limitations for the aircraft?
-40°C (-40°F) to 60°C (140°F)
81
What is the angle of bank limit for normal operations?
45°
82
What is the angle of bank limit above 10,000 DA?
30°
83
What is the angle of bank limit when either PRI SERVO PRESS caution is on?
30°
84
What is the angle of bank limit for boost off flight?
30°
85
What is the maximum rate of descent for level terrain below 19,500 lbs?
720 fpm
86
What is the maximum rate of descent for level terrain above 19,500 lbs?
480 fpm
87
What is the maximum rate of descent for sloped terrain?
360 fpm
88
What is the nose up slope limit for landing?
9°
89
What is the cross slope limit for landing?
12°
90
What is the down slope limit for landing?
6°
91
What is the maximum gross weight of the aircraft?
23,500 lbs
92
What is the maximum cargo hook weight?
6000 lbs
93
What is the maximum weight for a rescue hoist?
600 lbs
94
What is the minimum equipment required for night over water operations?
LAWS, Altitude hold (RADALT or BARALT)
95
True or False: Flight into moderate or severe icing is prohibited.
True
96
What is the engine oil capacity?
7.3 qts
97
What is the maximum transmission system capacity for MGB?
7.5 gal
98
What is the maximum transmission system capacity for IGB/TGB?
2.75 qt
99
What is the caution for engine oil pressure low?
< 22 psi
100
What is the caution for engine oil hot?
> 150° C
101
What is the caution for engine oil pressure high?
> 120° C
102
What is the function of the HMU?
Rapid engine transient response, auto fuel scheduling, Ng overspeed protection, flameout protection
103
What does the DECU monitor?
Np sensing, overspeed, torque sensing, TGT monitoring
104
What is the function of the GCU?
Connect generators, regulate output, protect from over/under voltage and frequency
105
What is the maximum refuel pressure?
55 psi
106
Fill in the blank: The fuel dump rate is a minimum of ______ lbs/min.
800
107
What happens when fuel quantity is below 600 lbs?
Fuel starvation may occur
108
What is the maximum weight for taxi with tail wheel shimmy dampener installed?
40 KGS
109
What is the maximum weight for taxi without tail wheel shimmy dampener installed?
20 KGS
110
What initiates the Manual Transfer of fuel?
Selecting TRANSFER/MANUAL OVERIDE and pushing either L INBD or R INBD
111
What happens to the tank quantity during Manual Transfer?
Tank quantity changes on the MDs and FDs
112
At what dump rate does the fuel dump system operate?
A minimum of 800 lbs/min
113
What is the minimum fuel level at which fuel dumping should be manually terminated?
600 lbs total fuel
114
What does the HIFR system consist of?
* Wiggins quick disconnect
* Pressure refueling fitting
* Pressure refueling precheck switch
* Five element GO/NO GO canister
115
What are the primary fuels authorized for continuous unrestricted operations?
* JP 5
* JP 8
* Jet A
* Jet A-1
116
What must be done when using JP 4 as fuel?
Take precautions including stabilizing in a hover and treating the aircraft as if fueled with JP 4 for the next two refuelings
117
What is the purpose of the APU?
Provides pneumatic power for starting engines and operating the ECS
118
What is the minimum accumulator charge required to start the APU?
2650 psi
119
What indicates a failure of the APU?
APU FAIL light
120
What is the hydraulic system capacity for #1, #2, and BU?
1.0 qt
121
What does the priority valve in the hydraulic system do?
Secures fluid to the Rescue Hoist in low pressure situations
122
What does the BACK UP HYD SWITCH do when set to ON?
Circulates fluid to each transfer module and maintains pressure in APU accumulator and rescue hoist systems
123
What are the functions of the AFCS system?
* Automatic Preflight Check
* Stability Augmentation System
* Trim
* Airspeed Hold
* Attitude Hold
* Heading Hold
* Automatic Approach
124
What is the purpose of the stabilator?
To eliminate undesirable nose-up attitudes in low speed flight
125
What happens if the stabilator fails full up?
30° of travel available
126
How is the tail rotor system actuated?
Mechanically by the tail rotor quadrant and cables, requiring hydraulic pressure to operate
127
What is the activation condition for the Blade / Pylon Fold System?
Battery on, T/R will index & lock when pylon folds 5°
128
When should Pitot Heat be turned ON?
When OAT is 5° or less and/or visible moisture
129
What is the ECS temperature range?
2 to 71°C
130
What happens during an automatic shutdown of the ECS?
* C-pwr
* Starter Engaged
* ECS Overtemp
131
What does the fire detection system utilize?
3 Control amplifiers and 5 sensors
132
What must happen for the APU fire extinguishing system to activate?
APU T-Handle must be pulled
133
What is the maximum usable cable length for the rescue hoist system?
200 ft
134
What conditions must be met to engage ALL STORES JETT?
* WOW not active
* ALL STORES JETT button pushed
135
What is required for the navigation systems to function?
Not specified in the provided text
136
What is the maximum pressure for sonobuoy launch separation?
250 psi
137
What are the conditions for activating ADHEELS?
Fresh or saltwater immersion, 11 – 13g’s
138
What is the illumination duration for ADHEELS?
45 min illumination and independent of a/c power
139
What components make up the Navigation Subsystem?
* Two Embedded GPS Inertial Navigation Systems (EGIs)
* Two Air Data Computers (ADCs)
* One Air Data Transducer
* One Air Speed Transducer
* TACAN Set
* Direction Finding Group (DFG)
* On-Top Position Indicator (OTPI)
* Radar Altimeter (RADALT)
* Automatic Flight Control System (AFCS)
* Data Transfer Interface Unit (DTIU)
* GPS Antenna System (GAS-1)
140
What are the two main modes of operation for the Navigation Subsystem?
* Hybrid mode
* Stand-Alone mode
141
What are the six functions of the Navigation System?
* Navigation using ship & helo nav systems
* Pos keeping using GPS coordinates
* Pos correction for helo/buoy drift
* Process for FTP pos & generate flt path direction commands
* Navigation inputs for sensor processing
* WYPTs and flt plans for helo navigation
142
What does each EGI consist of?
* Five channel Coarse/Acquisition (C/A) and Precise (P) code GPS receiver
* All-attitude ring-laser gyro Inertial Nav Unit
* 12-channel C/A and P code GPS receiver with SA/ASM capability
143
What is the function of the GPS Antenna System (GAS-1)?
It is a seven-element anti-jamming Controlled Reception Pattern Antenna (CRPA) that nulls out erroneous signals.
144
What are the two navigation modes affecting Course Needle (CRS) sensitivity?
* Enroute Mode (ENRT)
* Approach Mode (APPR)
145
What are the four methods to track to a Waypoint/FTP?
* TO TO
* DIRECT TO
* CONT TO
* TO FROM
146
What is the default alignment type for GPS (HNAV) Alignment?
Can be conducted while shore based or shipboard with GPS tracking at least four satellites.
147
What does Gyro Compass (GC) Alignment require?
Designed to align when stationary using INS-only alignment.
148
What happens during a Data Link (DL) Alignment?
Uses ship’s heading, speed, and barometric altitude to complete the alignment.
149
True or False: Valid heading and velocity data is required from EGI 2 for coupled approach and hover.
True
150
What does an ATT miscompare or fail advisory indicate?
A 3° or more disagreement between the EGIs in pitch and/or roll axis.
151
What does the Cable Reel Assembly in the Sonar System provide?
Electrical interface between Sonar Transmitter/Receiver and Transducer.
152
What are the six modes of operation for the Cable Reeling Machine?
* Automatic Mode
* Manual Mode
* Auxiliary Hydraulic
* Auxiliary Electric
* Auxiliary Hardware Electric
* Hand Crank Mode
153
What is the purpose of the RMIU in the Sonar System?
Controls reeling machine functions and regulates smooth transition of transducer.
154
What does the RMCU display in the Sonar System?
* Status
* Faults
* Speed
155
What should ops avoid regarding electromagnetic interference?
Conducting ops within 1nm of naval vessels.
156
Fill in the blank: The Cable angle indicator shall be within the _______ while raising the transducer.
inner ring
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