Coagulation Flashcards

1.1.4 (49 cards)

1
Q

what is the only place where clots should form

A

subendothelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is vWF

A

Von Willebrand factor- rpotein tha binds to receptors on platelets, activating them = makes them sticky

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is fibrinogen

A

Clotting factor that helps platelets stick together
forms a weak platelet plug if not activated into fibrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What factors are involved in primary coagulation

A

vWF
fibrinogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Fibrinogen is activated into fibrin in
1. primary coagulation
2. secondary coagulation

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

___ is a cofactor in activation of most coag factors

A

Ca2+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what organ produces coagulation factors

A

liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

liver uses vit K to produce which coagulation factors

A

2, 7, 9, 10, protein C and S

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

which coagulation pathway initiates the cascade

A

extrinsic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

describe how the extrinsic apthway initiates the coagulation cascade

A

factor 7 + TF –> activate factor 10
factor 10a combines with 5a and leads into common pathway
factor 2 is activated into thrombin, which then activates fibrinogen to fibrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

which lab test is a test of the function of the extrinsic pathway

A

INR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

which lab test is a measure of the function of the intrinsic coagulation pathway

A

PTT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

describe the function of the intrinsic pathway in coagulation

A

amplifies the cascade
thrombin activates factor 11, which leads to activation of 8, 9 = amplifies cascade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

which factors are part of the intrinsic coagulation pathway

A

8, 9, 11, 12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

factor 7 is part of the _____ coagulation pathway

A

extrinsic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

deficiency of factors 8 and 9 results in

A

hemophilia A and B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what does antithrombin act on

A

thrombin 2A and factor 10A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what acts on factor 8 to stop clotting

A

protein C and S

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what dissolves the fibrin mesh

A

plasmin (activated from plasminogen by tPA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

D dimer is a sign of

A

clot formation

21
Q

Heparins induce the effect of ____ to inhibit coagulation

A

antithrombin (inhibits factors 10, 2)

22
Q

what is a pro and con of UFH

A

pro: rapid reversal after stopping infusion
con: requires frequent PTT monitoring, IV only

23
Q

why is LMWH typically preferred to UFH

A

more predictable pharmacokin
no lab monitoring required routinely
only required AQ q12-24hrs

24
Q

what does warfarin inhibit to prevent clotting

A

vit K epoxide reductase in liver ( = less factor II, VII, IX, X, protein C and S)

25
what is an umbrella term for abnormally large clots in venous system
venous thromboembolism
26
what is Virchow's triad
stasis venous endothelial injury hypercoagulability
27
what are some common sx of DVT
Sx: most commonly in legs - pain, heaviness, cramping, swelling, skin discoloration (red-blue hue) Physical exam signs: unilateral limb swelling (leg or arm), warmth, visibly distended veins
28
T or F: the Well's Score is validated for DVTs in upper extremities
F use clinical judgement to categorize risk, then proceed to D dimer and ultrasound as usual
29
Describe what would happen if the Well's criteria suggested unlikely DVT? what about likely?
unlikely = D-dimer as a rule out likely = ultrasound directly
30
what is the test of choice for DVT
compression ultrasound
31
in DVT, what is the proceedure if there is a + D dimer but negative US?
repeat US in 5-7 days to definitively rule out DVT
32
what are some sx of PE?
Sx: sudden SOB, pleuritic chest pain (worse with deep breaths or coughing), hemoptysis (coughing up blood), syncope, sx DVT Wide variety of severity possible Common signs: tachycardia, tachypnea, hypotension, hypoxemia, distended neck veins Late signs: pulmonary friction rub, ↓ breathe sounds
33
pleuritic chest pain that is worse with deep breaths or coughing could be a sign of ___
PE
34
what is the approach to diagnosing a PE?
use well's score to assess probability high probability --> imaging low --> D dimer
35
T or F: Well's score is valid for all patients
F- only valid in hemodynamically stable pts (BP >90)
36
what is the gold standard for PE diagnostic imagine?
CTPA (CT pulm angio)
37
what are some limitations of CPTA
high radiation dose, contrast risks in pregnancy, CKD, contrast allergies
38
if a CTPA is CI, what can be used to dx PE instead?
VQ scan
39
how does PE cause tachycardia and hypotension
R heart strain from sudden ↑ pulmonary artery pressure R heart = weak = fails under sudden pressure load = ↑ risk MI
40
what should be part of initial assessment of sus VTE
ABCs signs of hemodynamic instability: hypoxemia, tachycardia, hypotension
41
what are in and out of hospital tx options for hemodynamically stable VTE
in hospital: UF, LMWH outpt: DOACs or warfarin
42
what could be used if anticoagulants are CI in VTE
inferior vena cava filter- prevents embolization from DVT to lungs (doesn't prevent clot formation)
43
T or F: if the pt is at high probability of sus VTE, AC should be held until imaging to confirm
F- benefit of early tx > risk of incorrect dx
44
how many months of AC should be done for 1st provoked clot with resolved RF? what if RFs are not resolved?
resolved = 3 mths (6 if massive) not resolved = AC until resolved
45
how many months of AC should be done for 1st unprovoked clot?
>3mths, consider long term due to possible thrombophilia
46
how many months of AC should be done for 2nd unprovoked clot?
lifelong coagulation (probable thrombophilia)
47
how many months of AC should be done for 2nd provoked clot?
3-6mths
48
list 3 types of acquired thrombophilias
surgery and trauma = strongest acquired risk malignancy autoimmune conditions medications (estrogen) pregnancy smoking obesity DM HPTN
49
what are the 4 types of hereditary thrombophilias
protein C and S deficiency antithrombin deficiency Factor V leiden mutation (factor V resistant to inactivation) Prothrombin G2021A mutation (↑ prothrombin production)