Community Test 4 Flashcards

(86 cards)

1
Q

What is home health care?

A

*Population/community based
*Focuses on primary, secondary, and tertiary prevention
*promotes optimal health and well being for patients, their families, and caregivers within their homes and communities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Population focused home care

A

Treats a specific population EX: Nuclear Care partners

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Transitional home care

A

one level of care to another, around the clock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Primary home care

A

doctors come to you in home concierge services

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Home health

A

discharging from acute care and need services in home

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Hospice

A

Terminal, more than physical health

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Goals of home care

A

*To provide quality, cost-effective healthcare in the home
*Offer support, treatment, information, and understanding to patients and their families/caregivers to successfully manage healthcare at home
**Keep them out of the hospital
*Teach family how to have active roles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Qualifications for Home care

A

*Must be home bound
*Require skilled care: (skilled nursing, physical therapy, and speech therapy)
*Require intermittent care vs continuous or acute
*under a physician’s care
*Care must be reasonable and necessary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Advantages of home care

A

*Individualized
*Convenient for patient
*Observe in everyday setting
*Family Focus
*More conducive to teaching
*Reduces cost

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Disadvantages of home care

A

*Nurse travel time
*Careful pre-planning to anticipate needs
*Less productive seeing fewer patients a day
*Families retain control
*confidentiality and privacy
*nurse safety (dogs and unsafe neighborhoods)
*autonomous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Omaha System

A

The goal is to develop a structured and comprehensive system that can foster a collaborative practice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Phase 1 of the home visit

A

Initiation:
Referral data
Purpose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Phase 2 of the home visit

A

Pre-visit:
Contact, establish shared perceptions, schedule visits, directions, safety considerations, review chart, equipment and supplies, teaching aides, research info, ready car, and understand their routines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Phase 3 in the home visit

A

In home visit:
observe neighborhood safety, identify self, establish rapport, purpose of visit, database, wash hands, always be aware, assess physical, mental, social, environment safety, discuss concerns and perceptions, conduct health teaching, and make referrals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Phase 4 in the home visit

A

Termination:
Summarize visit, emergency plan, discuss next visit, and leave written info

*Celebrate that you have done good things

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Phase 5 of the home visit

A

Post visit:
Documentation
Order supplies
Make referrals
Communicate with team

*Each visit after should do all the above plus assess for changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Time management

A

*Caseload organization: see immunocompromized patients first, see fasting blood drawls early in the day
*Handeling Emergencies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When should you increase home visits?

A

-new medication
-new symptoms or clinical findings
-wound becomes infected
-condition deteriorates
-absence of caregiver
-new caregiver
-re-hospitilization
-new diagnosis
-chemo/radiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

When should you decrease home visits?

A

-stabilization
-wound healing
-teaching progressing
-plateau for terminally ill

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Telehealth

A

-supports care from a distance
-multiple modes and platforms
-telephone triage and advice
-biometric telemonitoriing equipement
-point of care diagnostics
-high potential for chronic disease management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Acute pain

A

definative onset and predictable duration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Chronic pain

A

ill defined, persistent and can grow in severity- pt may appear depressed or withdrawn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Incidental pain

A

pain with movement or activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Breakthrough pain

A

sudden, severe pain occurring before the next scheduled dosing of pain medication - consider if medication adjustments are indicated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
PQRST
Provocation Quality/Quantity Region/Radiation Severity scale Timing
26
Nociceptive pain (tissue/organ)
dull, aching and may or may not radiate Medication management: NSAIDS- dependent on severity of pain may be used in combination with opioids
27
Neuropathic pain (nerves)
shooting, stabbing, burning and often radiates Medication Management: Anticonvulsants: gabapentin Antidepressants: Elavil, Cymbalta Narcotic: Methadone
28
Bone Pain (inflammation)
tenderness, dull or deep aching, edema, exacerbates with movement Medication management: NSAIDS Oral steroids When severe opioids
29
Opioids- Morphine
WHO identified morphine as the gold standard for treating moderate to severe pain IR- can be swallowed or given SL/Buccal/liquid/tablet ER- can be swallowed, suppository/liquid/tablet *Be aware of ER VS IR
30
Opioids- Oxycodone
*used in patents with morphine allergy or who have renal impairment and a life expectancy of > 7 days *non-preferred due to cost, limitation of route and tendency to be diverted
31
Opioids- Fentanyl Patch
*Non-preferred -fat loving medication, as patients experience wasting, the absorption is impaired -fever triggers increased absorption -difficult to titrate -when removed remains in SQ tissue 24-48 hours -expense -diverted
32
opioids- methadone
-used in clients with a morphine allergy or when other forms of pain control have failed
33
Advantages of methadone
multiple routes of administration, especially effective with neuropathic and long standing severe pain, safe alternative for elderly, can be used with renal and liver impairment, less euphoria, lasts longer, cost effective *smoking impacts absorption
34
Special considerations of methadone
-cumulative sedation effect until day 5 -dosing coordinated with pharmacist -start with lowest dose -expect patient to need more breakthrough meds during days 1-3 **Plan daily methadone re-assessments every 5 days
35
Disadvantages of methadone
-non familiar dosing -variability among patients -cumulative sedation effects -close monitoring especially first week -prolonged QT interval -wide variety of drug interactions -stigma
36
Bowel regimen
-patients need to be on a regimen as opioids are made part of the plan of care -assess previous bowel patterns, diet choices and mobility -everyone on an opioid should be on a stool softener or a laxative *impactions lead to uncontrolled pain difficult to relieve without NGT, IVF, increased medication burden and often hospitilization
37
Zofran
-only impacts one receptor -works well with chemo
38
Phenergan and Compazine
-impact multiple receptors -good choice when there is no apparent cause
39
Haldol
only impacts one receptor opioid induces nausea
40
Meclizine
impacts two receptors movement induced nausea
41
ativan
anxiety based nausea, works will in combo with morphine, used in treating SOB
42
Which medications are used in treating Shortness of breath?
ativan and opioids
43
Why are Spiriva and Adivair not the best choice in patinets with respiratory symptoms?
It becomes very difficult for patients in weakened conditions to effectively draw the medication in when inhaling; lost effectiveness of treatment (needs lung compliance)
44
Treatment of Mucus
-Elevate the HOB, turn q2h to allow for gravity -MEDS: guaifenesin, mucinex, or nebulized saline
45
Secretions
when a client is unable to swallow their saliva and it collects in the back of the throat
46
Mucus
Thick phlegm originating in the respiratory tract that can lead to pulmonary infections
47
What is the treatment for secretions?
Atropine 1% eye gtts SL PRECAUTION: can cause delirium *Family education is important
48
What is the most common cause of sudden agitation and delirium?
UTI
49
Agitation and delirium management
Haldol is first line Risperadone Thorazine non-pharm: speak softly, approach in visual line of site, soft touch, identify yourself, dont ask the patient to recognize you
50
End stage care
*If coughing after swallowing: allow rest, swallow reflex may be sluggish, offer sips and ice chips *Respirations will slow and be interspersed with deep breaths or extended signs that sound like a moan as air passes over the vocal cords *In the end dehydration no longer makes the patient feel uncomfortable but a moist mouth and use of a cool damp cloth on the forehead is often comforting
51
Toxicology
Basic science that studies health effects with chemical exposures
52
Epidemiology
Science that helps us understand the strength of the association between exposures and health effects in human populations
53
Two concurrent categories of roles for nurses in climate change:
mitigation and response
54
Principles of Environmental Health
*Everything is connected to everything else *Everything has to go somewhere *The solution to pollution is dilution *Today's solution may be tomorrow's problem
55
Risk assessment questions
Is the chemical associated with negative health effects? Has the chemical been released into the environment via air, water, soil, or food? How much of the chemical might enter the body and by which route?
56
Environmental Health Assessment tools?
"I PREPARE" Windshield survey Environmental databases Environmental health assessment form Inquire/observe about unintended environmental exposures
57
Consumer Confidence Report
If there are toxins in the environment the community has the right to know If the contents contain an immediate risk the community must be notified
58
Material Safety Data Sheet
Safe handling specifications EX: specifications on the back of purple top wipes
59
Risk communication 3 rights
The right information: accurate, relevant, clear and concise The right people At the right time
60
3 government environmental protections
EPA FDA Department of Agriculture
61
Environment justice
equal protection from environmental hazards, groups or communities regardless of race, ethnicity, or economic status
62
Environmental health disparities
certain environmental health risks disproportionately affect poor people and people of color
63
Roles for nurses in environmental health
assessment, referral, community involvement and public participation, risk communication, epidemiologic investigations and policy development
64
Case Management
a collaborative process of assessment, planning, facilitation, care coordination, evaluation, and advocacy for options and services to meet client needs
65
Goals of case management
1. To promote quality services provided to clients 2. To reduce institutional care while maintaining quality processes and satisfactory outcomes 3. To manage resources use through protocols, evidence based decision making, guideline use, and disease management programs 4. To control expenses by managing care processes and outcomes
66
6 rights of case management
Right care Right Time Right Provider Right Setting Right Price/Value Right Outcome
67
Federal Public health agencies
Survey the nation's health status and health needs Coordinate activities that cross state lines Support health services research Provide public health services Set practices and standards Provide expertise that facilitates evidence based practices
68
State public health agencies
-distribute federal and state funds -provide oversight and consultation for the local public health agencies
69
Local public health agencies
provide health services based on the needs of the communtiy
70
Disaster
a human caused or natural event that results in destruction and devastation that overwhelms local resources
71
Prevention
actions or measures that are done beforehand to prevent an emergency/disaster from occurring
72
Mitigation
actions or measures that are done beforehand to reduce the severity of its effects
73
Preparedness
advance planning to cope with emergencies/disasters
74
Response
actions to deal with an emergency and or disaster
75
Recovery
the stage when agencies/entities join forces to restore the economic and civic life of the community. This may result in a "new normal"
76
The emergency Management cycle
Incident Response: after event Recovery: after event Mitigation: before event Preparedness: before event
77
Types of disasters
Natural and man made (intentional or accidental)
78
Who is primarily responsible when disaster strikes?
States unless the president declares a national emergency
79
First response
The first response is always local, usually communities are on their own for 24-73 hours after a major disaster
80
Which federal responses support is provided after a federal disaster response is requested by the govener?
Department of Homeland Security Federal Emergency Management Agency
81
National Incident Management System defines:
What needs to be done How it needs to be done How well it needs to be done
82
Incident Command system
standardized tool to facilitate the on scene management of emergency situations, one person is in charge, work together in communicating
83
ICS features
Unity of command: one supervisor Chain of command Unified command
84
Liason officer
gets info to the commander
85
Safety officer
develops and recommends for assuring personnel safety assess or anticipate hazardous or an unsafe situation is able to stop if the situation is unsafe
86