1
Q
Define the biopsychosocial model.
A
A holistic model stating health is shaped by biological, psychological, and social factors.
2
Q
What are social determinants of health?
A
Non-medical factors like finances, housing, education, access to care, and support systems.
3
Q
What are the Physical Activity Guidelines for adults?
A
150 minutes moderate or 75 minutes vigorous exercise per week plus 2 strength sessions.
4
Q
What is CE (clinical education) wellness screening?
A
Quick tests assessing vision, hearing, oral, emotional, and general wellness.
5
Q
What is emotional wellness?
A
Ability to cope effectively, manage stress, and maintain healthy relationships.
6
Q
What is a SMART goal?
A
Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Relevant, Time-bound.
7
Q
Example of a SMART goal.
A
Walk 20 minutes, 5 days/week, for 4 weeks to improve endurance.
8
Q
What is the FITT principle?
A
Frequency, Intensity, Time, and Type—guiding exercise prescription.
9
Q
What does moderate intensity mean?
A
40–59% HRR or 12–13 RPE.
10
Q
What does vigorous intensity mean?
A
60–89% HRR or 14–17 RPE.
11
Q
What is the normal adult resting HR?
A
60–100 bpm.
12
Q
What is the normal adult BP?
A
< 120/80 mmHg.
13
Q
What is the normal adult respiratory rate?
A
12–20 breaths per minute.
14
Q
What is SpO2 normal?
A
≥ 95%.
15
Q
What is the BORG RPE scale range?
A
6 to 20.
16
Q
What is the pain scale?
A
0–10 numeric rating scale.
17
Q
What does a PT prioritize in patient interviewing?
A
Open-ended questions, listening, rapport, and patient goals.
18
Q
What is cultural humility?
A
Lifelong self-reflection, recognizing power imbalances, and partnering with patients.
19
Q
What are red flags during subjective exam?
A
Chest pain, shortness of breath, neurological deficits, unexplained weight loss, fever.
20
Q
What is the purpose of gait training?
A
Improve walking efficiency, safety, and independence.
21
Q
What are standard assistive devices?
A
Cane, crutches, walker.
22
Q
What is the first step with a cane?
A
Cane and weak leg move together.
23
Q
Motor unit recruitment is governed by what?
A
Henneman’s size principle.
24
Q
What fibers are recruited first?
A
Type I slow-twitch fibers.
25
What fibers produce the most power?
Type II fast-twitch fibers.
26
What is excitation–contraction coupling?
Process linking muscle AP to calcium release and cross-bridge cycling.
27
What is the sliding filament theory?
Actin and myosin filaments slide to shorten the sarcomere.
28
What causes muscle hypertrophy?
Mechanical tension, metabolic stress, and muscle damage.
29
What is neural adaptation?
Early strength gains due to improved motor unit recruitment and firing.
30
What adaptation supports sprinting and jumping?
Fast motor unit recruitment and Type II fiber performance.
31
What effect does endurance training have?
↑ mitochondria, ↑ capillaries, ↑ fatigue resistance.
32
What is acute exercise response?
Immediate changes during exercise (HR ↑, ventilation ↑).
33
What is chronic exercise adaptation?
Long-term structural changes from training.
34
What are the differences between strength, hypertrophy, endurance?
Strength = max force; hypertrophy = muscle size; endurance = fatigue resistance.
35
What does statistical significance mean?
Observed effect unlikely due to chance (p < .05).
36
What does effect size tell you?
Magnitude of difference or treatment effect.
37
What is statistical power?
Probability of detecting a real effect (80% standard).
38
What is sensitivity?
Ability to identify true positives.
39
What is specificity?
Ability to identify true negatives.
40
What is a positive likelihood ratio?
How much a positive test increases probability of disease.
41
What is a negative likelihood ratio?
How much a negative test decreases probability of disease.
42
What is prevalence?
Proportion of population with a condition.
43
What is incidence?
New cases over a time period.
44
What is an RCT?
Randomized controlled trial; highest-quality intervention study.
45
What is a cohort study?
Follows groups over time to examine risk factors.
46
What is a case-control study?
Compares individuals with vs without a condition.
47
What is a systematic review?
Synthesizes multiple high-quality studies.
48
What is a meta-analysis?
Statistical pooling of results from multiple studies.
49
What is the anatomical position?
Standing, palms forward, arms at side, feet together.
50
What is a sagittal plane?
Divides body into left and right.
51
What is a frontal plane?
Divides body into anterior/posterior.
52
What is a transverse plane?
Divides body into upper/lower.
53
What forms the brachial plexus?
Ventral rami C5–T1.
54
What are the cords of the brachial plexus?
Lateral, medial, posterior.
55
What are the terminal branches?
Musculocutaneous, axillary, radial, median, ulnar.
56
What nerve innervates deltoid?
Axillary nerve.
57
What nerve innervates supraspinatus?
Suprascapular nerve.
58
What nerve innervates latissimus dorsi?
Thoracodorsal nerve.
59
What nerve innervates biceps brachii?
Musculocutaneous nerve.
60
What nerve innervates triceps brachii?
Radial nerve.
61
What nerve innervates the wrist extensors?
Radial nerve.
62
What nerve innervates the wrist flexors?
Median and ulnar nerves.
63
What nerve injury causes wrist drop?
Radial nerve injury.
64
What nerve injury causes ape hand?
Median nerve injury.
65
What nerve injury causes claw hand?
Ulnar nerve injury.
66
What is the rotator cuff?
Supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, subscapularis.
67
What is the function of the rotator cuff?
Stabilizes humeral head in glenoid.
68
What is the CNS?
Brain and spinal cord.
69
What is the PNS?
Cranial nerves and spinal nerves.
70
What is a dermatome?
Area of skin supplied by a spinal nerve root.
71
What is a myotome?
Muscle group supplied by a single spinal nerve root.
72
What is decussation?
Crossing of nerve fibers to the opposite side.
73
What tract carries pain and temperature?
Spinothalamic tract.
74
What tract carries fine touch and proprioception?
Dorsal columns.
75
What tract carries motor commands?
Corticospinal tract.
76
What is a reflex arc?
Direct connection between sensory input and motor output.
77
What is neuroplasticity?
Brain’s ability to reorganize by forming new neural connections.
78
What is the function of the cerebellum?
Coordination, balance, motor learning.
79
What is the function of the basal ganglia?
Movement initiation and smoothness.
80
What is the primary motor cortex?
Controls voluntary movement.
81
What is the primary somatosensory cortex?
Processes body sensation.
82
What is homeostasis?
Maintenance of stable internal conditions.
83
What are the main fluid compartments?
Intracellular and extracellular.
84
What is cardiac output?
HR × stroke volume.
85
What is stroke volume?
Blood ejected per beat.
86
What increases HR during exercise?
Sympathetic activation.
87
What increases stroke volume?
↑ preload, ↑ contractility.
88
What is ventilation?
Movement of air in and out of lungs.
89
What is diffusion?
Gas exchange between alveoli and blood.
90
What causes oxygen delivery to muscle?
Cardiac output and hemoglobin saturation.
91
What is tidal volume?
Air moved per breath.
92
What is the endocrine response to exercise?
↑ epinephrine, cortisol, growth hormone.
93
What is professionalism?
Values and behaviors expected of a health professional.
94
What is the APTA Code of Ethics?
Guidelines for ethical practice and professional conduct.
95
What is interprofessional education?
Learning with other healthcare professions to improve collaboration.
96
What is cura personalis?
Jesuit idea of caring for the whole person.
97
What is reflective practice?
Intentional self-assessment to improve learning and patient care.
98
What is endurance training prescription?
Low load, high reps, long duration.
99
What is strength training prescription?
High load, low reps (1–6 reps).
100
What is hypertrophy prescription?
Moderate load, 6–12 reps.
101
What is balance training?
Exercises challenging somatosensory, vestibular, and visual systems.
102
What is fall-risk screening?
Assessing gait, balance, strength, and environment.
103
What are common fall-risk tests?
TUG, 5×STS, Berg Balance Scale.
104
What is an older adult exercise guideline?
150 min/week + strength + balance training.
105
What is vigorous HR range?
60–89% of HRR.
106
What is HRR formula?
(HRmax − HRrest) × % + HRrest.
107
What is evidence-based practice?
Integration of best research, clinical expertise, and patient values.
108
What is clinical reasoning?
Thinking process guiding evaluation and treatment decisions.
109
What is a hypothesis list?
Possible causes for patient problems generated during evaluation.
110
What is differential diagnosis?
Distinguishing among similar conditions based on evidence.
111
What is a systems review?
Brief screening of cardiovascular, pulmonary, integumentary, neuromuscular systems.
112
What is the purpose of screening?
Identify red flags requiring referral.
113
What does CPR stand for in clinical prediction rules?
Clinical prediction rule.
114
What is the purpose of a clinical prediction rule?
Guide diagnosis, prognosis, or treatment decisions.
115
What is a prognostic factor?
Variable predicting outcome or recovery.
116
What is a contraindication?
Reason treatment should not be performed.
117
What bones form the pelvis?
Ilium, ischium, pubis.
118
What is the acetabulum?
Cup-shaped socket formed by all three pelvic bones.
119
What ligament limits hyperextension of the hip?
Iliofemoral (Y ligament of Bigelow).
120
What ligament prevents hip abduction?
Pubofemoral ligament.
121
What ligament prevents hip internal rotation?
Ischiofemoral ligament.
122
What artery supplies the femoral head in adults?
Medial circumflex femoral artery.
123
What artery supplies the femoral head in children?
Artery of ligamentum teres.
124
What is the strongest hip flexor?
Iliopsoas.
125
What muscles flex the hip?
Iliopsoas, rectus femoris, sartorius, TFL, pectineus.
126
What muscles extend the hip?
Gluteus maximus, hamstrings (except short head biceps).
127
What muscles abduct the hip?
Gluteus medius, gluteus minimus, TFL.
128
What muscles adduct the hip?
Adductor longus, brevis, magnus; gracilis; pectineus.
129
What muscles externally rotate the hip?
Piriformis, obturators, gemelli, quadratus femoris.
130
What muscles internally rotate the hip?
Gluteus medius (anterior portion) and minimus.
131
What nerve innervates gluteus medius?
Superior gluteal nerve.
132
What nerve innervates gluteus maximus?
Inferior gluteal nerve.
133
What nerve injury leads to difficulty rising from a chair?
Inferior gluteal nerve injury (glute max weakness).
134
What nerve innervates the hamstrings?
Tibial division of the sciatic nerve.
135
What hamstring is not innervated by tibial nerve?
Short head of biceps femoris (common fibular nerve).
136
What nerve passes through the greater sciatic foramen below piriformis?
Sciatic nerve.
137
What condition results from sciatic nerve compression under piriformis?
Piriformis syndrome.
138
What are the compartments of the thigh?
Anterior, medial, posterior.
139
What innervates anterior thigh muscles?
Femoral nerve.
140
What innervates medial thigh muscles?
Obturator nerve.
141
What innervates posterior thigh muscles?
Sciatic nerve.
142
What is the primary knee extensor?
Quadriceps femoris.
143
What innervates quadriceps?
Femoral nerve.
144
What is the function of the patella?
Increases mechanical advantage of quadriceps.
145
What structures resist varus stress at the knee?
LCL and posterolateral corner.
146
What structures resist valgus stress at the knee?
MCL and medial capsule.
147
What ligament prevents anterior tibial translation?
ACL.
148
What ligament prevents posterior tibial translation?
PCL.
149
What is the unhappy triad?
ACL, MCL, medial meniscus injury.
150
What muscles make up the pes anserine?
Sartorius, gracilis, semitendinosus.
151
What condition involves medial knee tenderness at pes anserine?
Pes anserine bursitis.
152
What are the compartments of the leg?
Anterior, lateral, deep posterior, superficial posterior.
153
What innervates anterior compartment of leg?
Deep fibular nerve.
154
What innervates lateral compartment?
Superficial fibular nerve.
155
What innervates posterior compartments?
Tibial nerve.
156
What is the primary ankle dorsiflexor?
Tibialis anterior.
157
What nerve innervates tibialis anterior?
Deep fibular nerve.
158
What injury causes foot drop?
Deep fibular nerve injury.
159
What is the primary ankle plantarflexor?
Gastrocnemius and soleus.
160
What nerve innervates gastrocnemius and soleus?
Tibial nerve.
161
What muscle inverts the foot?
Tibialis posterior.
162
What nerve innervates tibialis posterior?
Tibial nerve.
163
What muscle everts the foot?
Fibularis longus and brevis.
164
What nerve innervates foot evertors?
Superficial fibular nerve.
165
What structures pass through the tarsal tunnel?
Tibial nerve, posterior tibial artery, FDL, FHL, tibialis posterior (Tom Dick And Very Nervous Harry).
166
What ligament supports the medial arch?
Spring ligament (plantar calcaneonavicular).
167
What ligament supports the lateral arch?
Long plantar ligament.
168
What is the windlass mechanism?
Plantar fascia tightens with toe extension, raising the arch.
169
What bones form the ankle joint (talocrural)?
Tibia, fibula, talus.
170
What motion occurs at the talocrural joint?
Dorsiflexion and plantarflexion.
171
What motion occurs at the subtalar joint?
Inversion and eversion.
172
What is the most commonly sprained ankle ligament?
Anterior talofibular ligament (ATFL).
173
What mechanism causes ATFL injury?
Inversion + plantarflexion.
174
What muscle unlocks the knee?
Popliteus.
175
What is the screw-home mechanism?
Last 30° of knee extension = external rotation of tibia.
176
What bones form the thoracic cage?
Sternum, ribs, thoracic vertebrae.
177
What are true ribs?
Ribs 1–7 directly attached to sternum.
178
What are false ribs?
Ribs 8–10 attach via costal cartilage.
179
What are floating ribs?
Ribs 11–12 not attached anteriorly.
180
What muscle is the primary muscle of respiration?
Diaphragm.
181
What innervates the diaphragm?
Phrenic nerve (C3–C5).
182
What muscles assist inspiration?
External intercostals, SCM, scalenes.
183
What muscles assist expiration?
Internal intercostals, abdominal muscles.
184
What level is the sternal angle?
T4/T5.
185
What structure is at T10?
Esophageal hiatus.
186
What structure is at T12?
Aortic hiatus.
187
What structure is at T8?
IVC opening.
188
What innervates intercostal muscles?
Intercostal nerves (ventral rami T1–T11).
189
What artery supplies anterior thoracic wall?
Internal thoracic artery.
190
What artery supplies posterior thoracic wall?
Aorta → posterior intercostal arteries.
191
What is the mediastinum?
Central thoracic compartment containing heart, trachea, esophagus.
192
What is contained in the superior mediastinum?
Great vessels, trachea, esophagus, vagus and phrenic nerves.
193
What is contained in the anterior mediastinum?
Thymus (in children).
194
What is contained in the middle mediastinum?
Heart and pericardium.
195
What is contained in the posterior mediastinum?
Esophagus, aorta, thoracic duct.
196
What is the function of the serratus anterior?
Protracts scapula and holds it against thoracic wall.
197
What nerve injury causes winged scapula?
Long thoracic nerve.
198
What imaging modality is best for bone fractures?
X-ray.
199
What imaging modality is best for soft tissue?
MRI.
200
What imaging modality is best for acute trauma or bleeding?
CT scan.
201
What imaging modality uses no radiation?
MRI and ultrasound.
202
What color does air appear on X-ray?
Black.
203
What color does bone appear on X-ray?
White.
204
What color does soft tissue appear on X-ray?
Shades of gray.
205
What view is best for shoulder X-ray?
AP and axillary views.
206
What view is best for knee X-ray?
AP, lateral, sunrise (patellofemoral).
207
What view is best for ankle X-ray?
AP, mortise, lateral.
208
What view is best for pelvis X-ray?
AP pelvis.
209
What is the ABCS approach to imaging?
Alignment, Bone density, Cartilage space, Soft tissues.
210
What does joint space narrowing indicate?
Degeneration (e.g., osteoarthritis).
211
What does periosteal reaction indicate?
Bone healing or stress injury.
212
What does a sclerotic line indicate?
Stress fracture.
213
What does fat pad sign indicate?
Occult fracture (especially elbow).
214
What is the best imaging for ACL injury?
MRI.
215
What is the best imaging for meniscus tears?
MRI.
216
What imaging is used for suspected hip fracture?
X-ray, then MRI if negative.
217
What imaging is best for disc herniation?
MRI.
218
What does T1 MRI highlight?
Fat is bright.
219
What does T2 MRI highlight?
Fluid is bright (good for edema, inflammation).
220
What is STIR sequence used for?
Suppresses fat; highlights edema and fractures.
221
What imaging sign suggests pneumothorax?
Visible pleural line with absent lung markings.
222
What imaging sign suggests pneumonia?
Consolidation or infiltrate on X-ray.
223
What imaging sign suggests heart failure?
Cardiomegaly, pulmonary edema (bat-wing pattern).
224
What does a widened mediastinum indicate?
Possible aortic injury or aneurysm.
225
What is the sunrise view of the knee used for?
Patellofemoral joint assessment.
226
What is the mortise view of the ankle for?
Assessing talocrural joint alignment.
227
What is the axillary view of the shoulder used for?
Assessing GH dislocation.
228
What is the Ottawa ankle rule?
X-ray needed if bone tenderness at malleoli or inability to bear weight.
229
What imaging is best for tendon tears?
MRI or ultrasound.
230
What imaging is best for stress fractures?
MRI (most sensitive).
CWE and CCPE
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