Day 25 Predictive Methodologies Flashcards

Topic C & Topic D (40 cards)

1
Q

In project management, what is the definition of ‘quality’?

A

The degree to which project deliverables meet both formal requirements and stakeholder expectations.

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2
Q

The first process in quality management, which establishes quality policies, objectives, and metrics, is called _____.

A

Plan Quality Management

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3
Q

Which quality management process focuses on the implementation of quality standards during project execution and is considered proactive and preventive?

A

Manage Quality (Quality Assurance)

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4
Q

What is the primary focus of the ‘Control Quality’ process?

A

To inspect and test outputs to detect and correct defects in products and deliverables.

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5
Q

How does Quality Assurance (Manage Quality) differ from Quality Control (Control Quality)?

A

Quality Assurance focuses on preventing defects by improving processes, while Quality Control focuses on detecting and correcting defects in deliverables.

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6
Q

The concept that categorizes costs associated with quality into three types is known as the _____.

A

Cost of Quality (CoQ)

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7
Q

In the Cost of Quality model, what are ‘Prevention Costs’?

A

Expenses incurred to prevent defects, such as training, process design, and preventive maintenance.

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8
Q

What type of costs in the CoQ model are related to inspections, testing, and audits to ensure outputs conform to requirements?

A

Appraisal Costs

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9
Q

Expenses resulting from nonconformance, such as rework, scrap, and warranty claims, are categorized as what type of costs?

A

Failure Costs

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10
Q

What is the purpose of a Quality Management Plan?

A

It consolidates all aspects of quality into a single reference document, defining policies, assigning responsibilities, and outlining procedures.

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11
Q

In quality management, what is the function of a Cause-and-Effect (Fishbone) Diagram?

A

To analyze the root causes of defects or quality issues.

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12
Q

What quality management tool is used to evaluate whether processes are being followed and to identify opportunities for improvement?

A

Periodic Quality Audits

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13
Q

What is the primary benefit of embedding continuous improvement practices in quality management?

A

It creates a feedback loop, allowing lessons learned to inform processes in future projects.

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14
Q

In project management, what does ‘uncertainty’ refer to?

A

Situations where the outcomes, events, or conditions that may affect a project are not fully known or predictable.

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15
Q

What source of uncertainty is characterized by a lack of clarity or incomplete information about project objectives or requirements?

A

Ambiguity

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16
Q

The presence of multiple interrelated parts or dependencies, which makes a project difficult to predict or control, is known as what source of uncertainty?

A

Complexity

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17
Q

Rapid and unpredictable changes in external or internal environments, such as market shifts or technological advances, are a source of uncertainty called _____.

18
Q

What is the structured approach for addressing uncertainty in project management?

A

Risk management

19
Q

Which risk identification technique involves evaluating a project’s strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats?

A

SWOT Analysis

20
Q

What is the name of the living document that captures each risk’s description, potential impact, likelihood, and owner?

A

Risk Register

21
Q

What two factors are assessed during risk evaluation?

A

The probability of occurrence and the potential impact on project objectives.

22
Q

What tool is often used to categorize risks as low, medium, or high priority based on their probability and impact?

A

A Probability and Impact Matrix

23
Q

Which risk response strategy for threats involves changing the project plan to eliminate the risk entirely?

24
Q

The risk response strategy of shifting the risk to a third party, for example through insurance, is known as _____.

25
What is the goal of the 'Mitigate' risk response strategy for threats?
To reduce the likelihood or impact of the risk through preventive actions.
26
Which threat response strategy involves recognizing a risk without proactive intervention, often with contingency plans in place?
Accept
27
What is the purpose of the 'Exploit' risk response strategy for opportunities?
To take actions to ensure the opportunity is realized.
28
The risk response strategy for opportunities that involves increasing the probability or impact of the opportunity is called _____.
Enhance
29
Which opportunity response strategy involves collaborating with a partner to capitalize on the opportunity?
Share
30
In risk planning, what do 'risk tolerance levels' define?
The amount of deviation from objectives that is considered acceptable.
31
What are contingency reserves in the context of risk planning?
Buffers in time or budget set aside to address unforeseen events.
32
What is the purpose of escalation procedures in a risk management plan?
To outline when and how risks should be elevated to a higher authority.
33
The quality management process _____ focuses on auditing project processes and standardizing procedures to reduce the likelihood of defects.
Manage Quality (Quality Assurance)
34
What quality tool is used to visualize processes in order to identify potential points of failure or inefficiency?
Flowcharts
35
Leveraging the experience of subject matter experts to anticipate risks that may not be immediately obvious is known as what risk identification technique?
Expert Judgment
36
An effective quality management approach is ____ rather than reactive.
proactive
37
Why is managing uncertainty crucial in predictive projects?
Because the success of the methodology relies on the assumption of a relatively stable project environment.
38
Besides meeting formal requirements, quality ensures deliverables also meet _____.
stakeholder expectations
39
In which project management phase is quality planned and integrated in predictive approaches?
Early in the project lifecycle.
40
What is the ultimate goal of a structured risk management process in a predictive project?
To safeguard the scope, schedule, cost, and quality, creating a more predictable and controlled project environment.