1
Q
What key history questions should be asked when evaluating a patient with a dermatological complaint?
A
- Onset: How long has the rash or lesion been present?
- Progression: Has it changed in appearance or spread?
- Location: Where did it start and where is it now?
- Associated symptoms: Itching, pain, fever, or body aches.
- Previous episodes: Has this happened before?
These questions help establish the timeline, pattern, and severity of the dermatologic condition.
2
Q
What exposure and response questions are important when evaluating a dermatologic complaint?
A
- Contacts: Has anyone else been affected?
- Possible triggers: Medication, food, animals, or personal care products.
- Patient perception: What does the patient think caused it?
- Treatment response: What makes it better or worse?
- Prior treatments: What has been tried so far?
These questions assess environmental and allergic causes, guiding further diagnostic and management decisions.
3
Q
Define macules in dermatology.
A
Non palpable lesions, < 1cm, vary in pigment from surrounding skin.
4
Q
What are the characteristics of a plaque in dermatology?
A
Elevated lesions, > 1cm, may form from clustering of papules.
5
Q
Fill in the blank:
______ are palpable, solid or cystic, between 1 and 2 cm.
A
Nodules
6
Q
What is the ABCDE rule of lesions that may indicate malignancy?
A
- Asymmetry
- Border irregularities
- Color variation
- Diameter ≥6 mm
- Evolves in characteristics (size, color, shape, etc)
7
Q
What is the presentation of seborrheic dermatitis?
A
Erythematous, scaly patches on the scalp, face, and upper trunk.
8
Q
What is the recommended treatment for seborrheic dermatitis with limited area involvement?
A
Topical antifungals or Topical corticosteroids (short term only)
9
Q
What is the recommended treatment for seborrheic dermatitis with multiple areas involved?
A
Oral antifungals
10
Q
What are the cardinal signs of atopic dermatitis?
A
Dry skin and pruritus
11
Q
What is the initial treatment for atopic dermatitis?
A
- Topical corticosteroids
- Emollients
- Topical tacrolimus for high risk areas
Areas at high risk of atrophy and include the face and skin folds
12
Q
True or False:
Allergic contact dermatitis is an immediate hypersensitivity reaction.
A
False
Allergic contact dermatitis is a delayed hypersensitivity skin reaction.
13
Q
What are common causes of irritant contact dermatitis?
A
Exposure to substances that cause physical, mechanical, or chemical irritation of the skin.
14
Q
What is the primary treatment for irritant contact dermatitis?
A
Emollients and moisturizers, plus topical corticosteroids
15
Q
What plant oil causes allergic contact dermatitis in poison ivy, oak, and sumac?
A
Urushiol
16
Q
What is the treatment for severe, extensive dermatitis caused by poison ivy?
A
Systemic corticosteroids
17
Q
What are the prodrome symptoms of rubeola (measles)?
A
- Fatigue
- Loss of appetite
- Cough
- Coryza
- Conjunctivitis (fever + 3Cs)
18
Q
What is a key diagnostic feature of rubeola (measles) in the mouth?
A
Koplik spots (small white/blueish/grayish dots) appear approximately 48 hours before the rash.
19
Q
What is the treatment for children with severe measles, or for children who have measles and reside in a resource-limited setting?
A
Vitamin A supplementation
20
Q
What is the typical age range for roseola infantum?
A
Most cases occur in individuals younger than 2 years old, with a peak between 7 months to 13 months of age.
21
Q
What is the presentation of the rash in roseola infantum?
A
A non pruritic, blanchable, macular/maculopapular rash that develops as the fever resolves.
22
Q
What is the primary treatment for scarlet fever?
A
Antibiotics for strep infection
23
Q
What is a ‘herald patch’ in pityriasis rosea?
A
A single, sharply demarcated pink/red lesion, about 2 to 5cm on the trunk or neck before the rash spreads.
24
Q
What are the common causes of cellulitis?
A
- Group A Streptococcus or Streptococcus pyogenes
- S. aureus (including methicillin-resistant strains)
25
What are the **treatment** options for non-purulent cellulitis in immunocompetent patients without systemic toxicity?
* Dicloxacillin
* Cephalexin
* Clindamycin if patient has allergies
26
What are treatment options for **erysipelas**?
* Penicillin V potassium
* Amoxicillin
* Cephalexin
* Cefadroxil
27
What should be done for most patients with a **skin abscess**?
Incision and drainage
| (I&D)
28
What are the risk factors for **paronychia**?
* Nail biting
* Picking at a hang nail
* Overdoing it with a manicure
* Diabetes
29
What is the treatment for **paronychia without an abscess**?
* Warm water or antiseptic soaks multiple times a day
* Followed by a topical antibiotic (mupirocin, or triple antibiotic ointment)
30
What **bacteria** are commonly found in dog and cat bite wounds?
Pasteurella species
31
What is the **treatment approach** for dog and cat bites?
Secondary intention closure (wound is left open without suture and allowed to heal naturally)
32
What is the **first-line antibiotic prophylaxis** for dog and cat bites?
Amoxicillin-clavulanate for 3 to 5 days.
## Footnote
This is recommended to prevent infection, especially in high-risk wounds.
33
# Fill in the blank:
\_\_\_\_\_\_ is the most common pathogen found in impetigo.
Staphylococcus aureus
## Footnote
Impetigo is a contagious bacterial skin infection often characterized by 'honey-colored crusts'.
34
# True or False:
Herpes zoster lesions are infectious after they have crusted over.
False
## Footnote
Herpes zoster lesions are not infectious once they have crusted over.
35
Which **condition** is characterized by a '**bull's-eye**' rash and is associated with tick bites?
Lyme disease
## Footnote
The rash, known as erythema migrans, appears at the site of the tick bite.
36
What is the **recommended treatment** for tinea capitis?
Oral antifungal and antifungal shampoo
## Footnote
Family members should also use antifungal shampoo to prevent reinfection.
37
Scenario: A patient presents with a rash that follows a dermatome and acute neuritis. What is the likely diagnosis?
Herpes zoster
## Footnote
The rash typically appears on the thoracic or lower back area.
38
What is the treatment for **mild comedonal acne**?
Topical retinoid
## Footnote
Examples include tretinoin, adapalene, tazarotene, and trifarotene.
39
Which **burn type** is described as dry, red, and does not blister?
Superficial burn
## Footnote
An example of a superficial burn is a sunburn.
40
What is the primary treatment for **onychomycosis**?
Oral antifungal
## Footnote
Systemic antifungals are associated with hepatic injury, so liver function should be monitored.
41
# Fill in the blank:
In Lyme disease, \_\_\_\_\_\_ is the major manifestation of late disease.
Arthritis
## Footnote
Late Lyme disease can also present with neurological symptoms.
42
What is the **recommended treatment** for impetigo with multiple lesions or ecthyma in adults?
Cephalexin 500 mg orally, 4 times daily, for 5–7 days.
## Footnote
Alternatives include dicloxacillin or clindamycin if beta-lactam allergy; consider MRSA coverage if risk factors.
43
Which dermatophyte infection is also known as '**ringworm**'?
Tinea corporis
## Footnote
It presents as a pruritic, ring-shaped plaque.
44
What is the **first-line treatment** for a suspected MRSA impetigo infection in adults?
TMP/SMX (DS-160/800) 1 to 2 tablets orally, 2 times a day, for 7 days.
## Footnote
Alternative treatments include doxycycline or clindamycin.
45
Which **type of burn** requires immediate consultation and possible transfer to a burn center?
Full thickness burns
## Footnote
Other indications include partial thickness burns with ≥10% TBSA, facial burns, and high voltage injuries.
46
What is the **recommended prophylaxis** for a tick bite in a highly endemic area?
Doxycycline single dose
## Footnote
Prophylaxis is indicated if the tick is identified as I. scapularis tick, it is estimated to have been attached for ≥36 hours and prophylaxis is given within 72 hours of the ticks removal
47
**When** is a **tetanus vaccine** indicated for a patient with a dirty wound, who has had 3 or more tetanus doses previously?
If the last tetanus dose was given 5 years ago or longer.
## Footnote
Clean and minor wounds should be administered a tetanus vaccine if the last dose was given 10 years ago or longer
48
What is the **tetanus vaccine recommendation** for a patient with a wound who has not had 3 or more tetanus doses previously?
Tetanus vaccine and human tetanus immune globulin are indicated.
49
What is the **most common suturing method** used to repair uncomplicated lacerations?
The simple, interrupted suture technique.
50
# Fill in the blank:
Anesthesia should be provided for all patients, before \_\_\_\_\_\_.
suturing
51
What **type of anesthetic infiltration** is recommended for intact and uninfected skin?
Direct infiltration with anesthetic
52
What **anesthetic technique** should be used for contaminated lacerations?
A field block for anesthetizing
53
What is the toxic dose for **plain lidocaine**?
4mg/kg
54
What is the toxic dose for **lidocaine with epinephrine**?
7mg/kg
55
At **what angle** should the needle be inserted to ensure the suture loop is as wide at the base of the wound as at the surface of the skin?
90 degree angle
56
How many ties are recommended for an **absorbable suture**?
3 to 4 ties
57
How many ties are recommended for a synthetic, **non-absorbable suture**?
4 to 5 ties
58
What is the **order of suture placement**?
* Place the first stitch at the middle of the wound.
* The following 2 stitches go on each side of the first stitch, midway between the first stitch and the end of the wound.
* Additional bisecting stitches are placed until the wound is aligned and closed.
59
# True or False:
Sutures should be placed so that gaps appear in the wound edges.
False
## Footnote
Sutures should be placed just far enough from eachother that no gaps appear in the wound edges
60
What should be **avoided** when pulling the knot flat to the skin?
Avoid pulling so tight that the tissue becomes strangulated.
61
# True or False:
Atopic dermatitis is more common in adults than in children.
False
62
What **type of hypersensitivity reaction** is allergic contact dermatitis?
Delayed hypersensitivity skin reaction.
63
What is the **presentation** of irritant contact dermatitis?
Erythema, dryness, and/or fissuring.
64
What is the **treatment** for mild to moderate poison ivy dermatitis?
Topical corticosteroids (Clobetasol propionate 0.05% cream, twice daily until the reaction improves, is often used)
65
What is **erysipelas**?
A form of cellulitis that involves the upper dermis and superficial lymphatics.
66
What is the **causative agent** of Lyme disease?
Species in the spirochete family, Borreliaceae.
67
What is the presentation of early **localized Lyme disease**?
Erythema migrans rash and viral syndrome.
68
What is the presentation of **impetigo**?
Lesions often described as 'honey colored crusts.'
69
What is the treatment for **herpes zoster**?
Antivirals (acyclovir or valacyclovir) and analgesics.
70
What is the **most common cause** of fungal infections of the skin, hair, and nails?
Dermatophyte infections
71
What is the presentation of **actinic keratosis**?
Lesion generally appears on the face and sun-exposed areas, typically reddened macules or papules, or plaques, with a scaly appearance.
72
What is the presentation of **basal cell carcinoma**?
Described as 'pearly, translucent' appearance, often with telangiectasia.
73
What is the **most common location** for basal cell carcinoma to appear?
70% appear on the face
## Footnote
Basal cell carcinoma is a common skin cancer arising from the basal layer of the epidermis.
74
Describe the **typical appearance** of basal cell carcinoma.
* Pearly, translucent appearance
* Telangiectasia often present
## Footnote
These features help differentiate basal cell carcinoma from other skin lesions.
75
What **type of tumor** is cutaneous squamous cell carcinoma?
Malignant tumor arising from epidermal keratinocytes
## Footnote
SCC is more common in fair-skinned individuals on sun-exposed areas.
76
What are the **common presentations** of cutaneous squamous cell carcinoma?
* Papules, plaques, and nodules
* Smooth or hyperkeratotic texture
* Well-demarcated and erythematous
* May crust or bleed
## Footnote
SCC can present differently based on skin type and sun exposure.
77
What is the **most aggressive form** of skin cancer?
Melanoma
## Footnote
Melanoma is known for its aggressive nature and potential to metastasize.
78
What **combination** is used to treat mild inflammatory, papulopustular acne?
* Topical retinoid
* Topical antimicrobial (Benzoyl peroxide alone or with clindamycin)
## Footnote
Combination therapy targets different aspects of acne pathogenesis.
79
What are the **major treatment options** for moderate to severe acne?
* Oral isotretinoin (Accutane)
* Oral antibiotics
* Oral hormonal therapies
## Footnote
Systemic therapy is required for more severe cases.
80
Why is **isotretinoin** contraindicated in pregnancy?
It is teratogenic.
## Footnote
Patients must have a negative pregnancy test and use two forms of birth control.
81
What must a female patient of child bearing age do before being treated with isotretinoin?
Patient must have a negative pregnancy test and commit to using two forms of birth control 1 month prior to starting the medication and for 1 month after completion.
82
What is the **preferred choice** for antibiotic therapy in acne treatment?
Tetracyclines
## Footnote
Limit use to 3-4 months and use adjunct benzoyl peroxide.
83
Where does **psoriasis** most often present on the body?
* Scalp
* Knees
* Elbows
## Footnote
Psoriasis is a common inflammatory skin disease.
84
What is the **Auspitz sign** in psoriasis?
Bleeding occurs if a scale is peeled from the plaque.
## Footnote
This sign is characteristic of psoriasis and helps in diagnosis.
85
What is the **first-line treatment** for mild and limited psoriasis?
Topical corticosteroids
## Footnote
Use the lowest strength that provides relief.
Family Nurse Practitioner (FNP)
flashcards
Decks in class (19)
# Cards
-
Musculoskeletal87
-
Endocrine29
-
Hematology53
-
Genitourinary43
-
Gastrointestinal101
-
Respiratory79
-
Cardiovascular114
-
Dermatological85
-
EENT45
-
STIs34
-
Men’s Health42
-
Women’s Health48
-
Neurological101
-
Mental Health36
-
Adult Screenings14
-
Pediatrics90
-
Diagnostic Imaging17
-
Pharmacology81
-
Non-Clinical36
