1
Q
What measures can be used to eliminate or reduce risk
A
Engineering Controls
Aministrative Controls
PPE
2
Q
What are the components of the Risk Assessment Matrix
A
Severity
Probability
3
Q
What are the five Probabilities in an ORM Risk Assessment Code
A
A. Frequent
B. Likely to occur immediately or withing short time
C. Occasionally
D. Seldom
E. Unlikely
4
Q
What are the four ORM Risk Assessment Codes (RAC)
A
E: Extremely High
H: High
M: Medium
L: Low
5
Q
How soon do mishap reports have to be submitted
A
Within 30 days
6
Q
How can Mishap Reports be submitted
A
Electronic - Via web-enabled data collection
Naval Message - Part A of Safety Investigation Report (SIREP)
WESS - web-enabled safety system
Combat Zone Reporting
7
Q
What is Mishap Reportable item #1
A
• All on duty DoD civilians and all on and off-duty military.
• Any mishaps that result in the hospitalization of three or more personnel.
8
Q
How fast must Mishap Reportable #1 have to be reported
A
Within 8 hours
Notify COMNAVSAFECOM & Chain of Command
9
Q
What is Mishap Reportable item #2
A
•DON on duty civilian fatalities occurring within the U.S. Or U.S. Territories.
* Each fatality or hospitalization of 3 or more civilian employees (when at least one is DoD civilian)
10
Q
How fast must Mishap Reportable #2 have to be reported
A
within 8 hours of the mishap.
11
Q
What is Mishap Reportable item #3
A
Exposure to laser & radio frequency radiation
12
Q
What is Mishap Reportable item #4
A
Ordnance related mishap
13
Q
What is a HAZREP used for
A
For unit discovering hazardous condition or near-mishap to report
14
Q
What are the two types of respirators
A
Air Purifying
Air Supplying
15
Q
What are types of PPE
A
Respirators
Hand Protection
Foot Protection
Eye Protection
Face Protection
Skin / Body Protection
Hearing Protection
16
Q
What is the goal of the Hearing Conservation Program
A
Prevent occupational hearing loss
Ensure auditory fitness for all Navy personnel
17
Q
What is the fleet’s number on occupational health hazard
A
Noise-Induced hearing loss
18
Q
What is the purpose of the Personnel Security Program
A
Manage risk of exploitation of legitimate access to assets or premises by unauthorized purposes
19
Q
Who regulates the Personnel Security Program
A
DoN
SECNAVINST 5510.30C
20
Q
What is the impact of a TS compromise
A
Grave Damage
21
Q
What color denotes Top-Secret
A
Orange
22
Q
What is the impact of a Secret compromise
A
Serious Damage
23
Q
What color denotes Secret
A
Red
24
Q
What is the impact of a Confidential compromise
A
Expected to cause Damage
25
What color denotes Confidential
Blue
26
What is CUI
Contolled Unclassified Information
27
What denotes CUI
Sensitive Information
requires safeguard or controll
28
What color denotes CUI
Purple
29
What is SCI
Sensitive Compartmented Information
30
What falls under SCI (Special Compartmented Information)
National Intelligence
concerns intelligence sources, methods, analytical processes
31
What is Special Access Program (SAP)
Classified program requiring additional controls
Compartmentalized beyond standard classified infor
Enhanced restrictions
limits to explicit need-to-know clearances
strict oversight & management measures
32
What impact would SAP compromise cause
Grave Damage w/Significant Impact to National Security
33
What does TS/SCI STO stand for
Special Technical Operations
34
What is Special Technical Operations (STO)
Technical execution & management of highly sensitive activities
35
What does STO (Special Technical Operations) do
safeguards technical methodogies, engineering detailes, operational practices
36
What type of investigation is needed for Top Secret
Tier 5
SSBI
SSBI-PR
PPR
37
How often does a TS clearance need to be updated
5 years
38
What type of investigation is needed for Secret
Tier 3
NACLC
ANACI
39
How often does a Secret clearance need to be updated
5 years
40
What must be reported to Special Security Officer (SSO)
Sympathetic Association w/persons who unlawfully advocate overthrow of government
foreign influence w/close associates
sexual behavior that is criminal or bad judgement
unwillingness to follow rules
change in marital status or cohabitation w/foreign national
41
Who has overall authority of a SCIF
(Sensitive Compartmented Information Facility)
SSO - Special Security Officer
42
When is an SF-153 form used
DIRTO
D: Destruction
I: Inventory
R: Receipt
T: Transfer
O: Other
43
What is the SF-312 form
Classified Information Nondisclosure Agreement
44
What is the SF-700 form
Security Container Informaiton
Detailed information about the container & POC
45
what is the SF-701 form
Activity Security Checklist
checklist for end-of-day inspection
46
What is the SF-702 form
Security Container Checksheet
Record of names/times opened/closed
47
What is the SF-703 form
TS Cover Sheet
Orange
48
When do combos for containers/vaults need to be changed
First Used
Someone no longer needs access
Compromise
Safe being retired
Routine Maintenance
Every 2 years
49
What is an FDO
Foreign Disclosure Officer
50
What does an FDO do
Oversees & controls coordination of Classified Military Information / Controlled Unlcassified Information disclosure to foreign
51
What is DCS (Defense Courier Service)
Global courier network for distro of highly classified/sensitive information
52
What does DCS for security stand for
Defense Courier Service
53
what is a TSCO
Top-Secret Conrol Officer
54
What does a Top-Secret Control Officer (TSCO) do
Responsible to Security Manager for TS material
maintain accountability of receipt, reproduction, transfer, downgrading, declassification
55
How often must the TSCO inventory Top-Secret material
At-Least Annually
56
What does EAP for stand for
Emergency Action Plan
57
What is an Emergency Action Plan (EAP)
Structure & Coordinated response to emergencies including evacuatoins
58
Who must have an Emergency Action Plan (EAP)
holders of COMSEC or CCI
59
What is included in an Emergency Destruction Plan
Location of classified information
Priority of destruction
Billet designation of person responsible
60
What is the priority order for an Emergency Destruction Plan
1: TS
2: Secret
3: Confidential
61
Who can order Emergency Destruction
CO or OIC
62
What is the different between a Security Violation and a Security Infraction
Violation:
Failing to comply with policy/procuedure which could compromise
Infraction
Failling to comply unlikely to compromise
63
Does a Security Violation or Infraction require an investigation
Security Violation requires investigation
64
What is a T-SCIF
(Tactical Sensitive Compartmented Information Facility)
Accredited area used for war/simulation for specified period
65
What is COMSEC
Communication Security
Protective measures to ensure authenticity of telecommunications
66
What is included in COMSEC
crypto-security
emissions security
transmission security
physical security of COMSEC material
67
What is Personal Security
Ensures only trustworthy individuals with need-to-know have access to classified information
68
What is the SSO's responsibilities
Special Security Officer
focal point for SCI
maintains directives, regulations, manuals
ensures SCI accounted for
ensures SCI disseminated to authorized persons
69
What is the Command Security Manager (CSM)
Officer or Civ (GS-11 & up)
favorable SSBI w/in last 5 years
70
What does the CSM (Command Security Manager) do
Command Security Manager
Implement Information Security Program
Principal advisor to CO on classified information
Develops security instruction & education program
Develops visitor procedures
71
What is DISS
Defense information System for Security
72
What is the purpose of DISS
Defense Information System for Security
Automated system for personnel security
DoD Central Adjudication Facility
Personnel Security Investigatoin data
73
What is DCSA
Defense Counterintelligence and Security Agency
74
What is the purpose of DCSA
Defense Counterintelligence and Security Agency
Safeguarding national security
Oversee counterintell & security efforts
ensure assets protected from espionage, sabotage, & other security threats
75
What is DCSA's responsibilities
Defense Counterintelligence and Security Agency
Oversee Security Clearances
Manage Industrial security programs
Coord efforts to counter espionage, cyber threats & other risks
76
How long can a CO suspend SCI
90 days
77
What is ADNS
Automated Diginal Network System
connect ship networks to ship & shore networks
78
What is CUDIX
Common User Digital Information Exchange Subsystem
bidirectional, high-speed digital data link between ships and shore
narrative message traffic
79
What is VERDIN
VLF Digital Information Network
broadcast system
highly reliable & secure
Fleet Submarine Broadcast System
Minimum Essential Emergency Communications Network
80
What is NOVA
Naval Operational Variance Analysis
Automated message processing system
high volumes of message traffic
process, route, deliver messages
81
What is IBS
Integrated Broadcast System
integration of existing intel & info disseminatoin systems into single broadcast
82
What is WGS
Wideband Global SATCOM
High-capacity, flexible, secure SATCOM
Backbone for DoD wideband SATCOM
Enables C2, Intel, other essential military functions
83
What is INMARSAT
International Maritime Satellite
Worldwide telecommunications services w/satellite capabilities
support crewed & uncrewed maritime, airborne, ground
84
What is DCO for communications
Defense Connect Online
web-based collab tool facilitate real-time comms
85
What is CBSP
Commercial Broadband Satellite Program
enhance SATCOM by using commercial tech
86
What is C20IX
C2 Official Information Exchange
Transitional system for managing info exchange to replace legacy messaging systems
87
How fast must Routine messages be prodcast
R-Routine
6 hours
88
How fast must Priority messages be transmitted
P-Priority
3 hours
essential information for ops in progress
89
How fast must Immediate messages be transmitted
O - Immediate
30 minutes
gravely affects national/allied forces
90
How fast must Flash traffic be transmitted
Z - Flash
10 min
as fast as possible
initial enemy contact - ops of extreme urgency
91
How fast must Yankee traffic be transmitted
Y - Yankee
10 min
as fast as possible
ahead of all other traffic
"EAMs"
92
How fast must Flash Override messages be transmitted
W - Flash Override
3 min
overrides all codes including flash
CRITIC
93
What are the message traffic single letter identifiers
R - Routine
P - Priority
O - Immediate
Z - Flash
Y - Yankee
W - Flash Override
94
What are COMSPOTS
messages from ship/shore
comms outage/degradation
95
Where are COMSPOTS transmitted to
submitted to servicing NCTAMS
Info to # fleet & ISIC
96
How fast must COMSPOTs be transmitted
Within 30 min of outage
updates hourly
CASREP in 48 hours
97
What is a Communications Advisory
Report shore from shore (NCTAMS/NCTS) for comms outages/degrade
98
What is a BEADWINDOW
disclosure of EEFI
Essential Element of Friendly Information
99
What is EEFI information
Position
Capabilities
Operations
EW
Personnel
COMSEC
Wrong Circuit
100
What is TEMPEST
TEMPEST
Telecommunications Electronics Material Protected from Emanating Spuriuous Transmissions
measure unwanted, study, control, unwanted leakages due to equipment
101
What is JSIR stand for
JSIR
Joint Spectrum Interference Resolution
102
What does JSIR replace
Meaconing, Intrusion, Jamming, & Interference (MUI) program
103
What is Meaconing
The intentional transmission of signals designed to deceive users of navigational aids
104
What is Intrusion
The intentional insertion of EM energy into transmission paths in any manner, with the objective of deceiving operators or causing confusion.
105
What is Jamming/Interference
The deliberate radiation, re-radiation, or reflection of EM energy for the purpose of preventing or reducing an enemy's effective use of the EM spectrum and with the intent of degrading or neutralizing the enemy's combat capability
106
What is OPTASK COMMS
Operational Tasking Communications Message
Assign portions of freq spectrum to systems
107
What is a COMPLAN
Communications Plan
detailed freq plan from OPTASK COMMS
108
What is OTAT
Over the Air Key Transfer
KEYMAT material transmitted via broadcast to crypto devices
109
What is OTAR
Over the Air Rekeying
rekey crypto equip for update/emerg
110
What is a Host/Client
relationship between two computer programs in which one program (the client) makes a service request to another program (the host) which fulfills the request
111
What is an Application Server
software framework that allows applications to run
112
What is a Hub
used to connect segments of a LAN. A hub contains multiple ports. When a packet arrives at one port, it is copied to the other ports so that all segments of the LAN can see all packets.
113
What layer does a Hub operate at
Layer 1 (physical)
114
What is a Switch
small hardware device joins multiple computers within one LAN
nearly identical to hubs
switch generally more intelligent
inspect data packets to forward appropriately to only intended device
conserves bandwidth
115
What layer does a Switch operate at
Layer 2 (data link layer)
116
What is a Router
device that forwards data packets between networks
117
What layer does a Router work at
Layer 3 (network layer)
118
What is a Proxy Server
Intermediary for request from clients for resources on other servers
119
What is a Virtual Private Network (VPN) Concentrator
manage multiple, simultaneous VPN connectoins
120
What is a Repeater
regenerate incoming electrical, wireless, or optical signals
to prevent degregation of signals
extend the distance over which data can safely travel
121
What is an Access Router
located at customer sites that do not need hierarchiacal routing
122
What is a Distribution Router
aggregate traffic from multiple access routers
enforce quality of service over WAN
123
What is a Core Router
provide "collapsed backbone"
interconnect distribution of tier routers
optimized for high bandwidth
124
What is a LAN
Local Area Network
group of computers w/shared communication lines
connected devices share single processor/server in small geo area
125
What is a WAN
Wide Area Network
Internet is most popular
large geo area
connect smaller networks: LANs or Metro Area Networks (MAN)
126
What is a MAN
Metropolitan Area Network
large computer network span city/campus
high capacity
127
What is a GAN
Global Area Network
interconnected computers spanning unlimited geo area
128
What is Bus Topology
Clients connected via shared comms lines
potential collisions
129
What is a Star Topology
Most common network topology
one central hub, switch, computer as conduit
130
What is a Ring Topolgy
Each network connects to two other nodes
single continuous pathway
data moves node to node
node break isolates rest attached to it
131
what is a Mesh Topology
each node in network acts as independent router
allows continuous connects and reconfigure
132
What is a VLAN
Virtual LAN
Virtual LAN
any broadcast domain isolated at the data link layer
typically used on a ship in a switch
133
What is OSI
OSI - Open Systems Interconnection Model
subdividing comms systems into layers
layer provides services up and receives services from below
134
How many layers are in OSI
seven
135
What are the seven layers in OSI
Please Do Not Tell Shore Patrol Anything
Layer 1: Physical
Layer 2: Data Link Layer
Layer 3: Network Layer
Layer 4: Transport Layer
Layer 5: Session Layer
Layer 6: Presentation Layer
Layer 7: Application Layer
136
What is OSI Layer 2
Data Link Layer
physical addressing
137
What is OSI layer 3
Network Layer
path determination & logic addressing
138
What is OSI Layer 4
Transport Layer
end-to-end connections
flow control
139
What is OSI Layer 5
Session Layer
Interhost comms
140
What is OSI Layer 6
Presentation Layer
data respresentation, encryption, decryption
141
What is OSI Layer 7
Application Layer
Network process application
142
What is TCP/IP
Transmission Control Protocol / Internet Protocol model
most used network protocol
set of protocols called a stack
143
How many layers does TCP/IP have
four
Layer 1: network Interface layer
Layer 2: Internet Layer
Layer 3: Transport Layer
Layer 4: Application Layer
144
What does layer one of TCP/IP do
Network Interface Layer
receives packets (frames) from network to be sent over internet layer
145
What does layer two of TCP/IP do
Internet Layer
address, route, forward across network
146
What does layer three of TCP/IP do
Transport Layer
end-to-end comms
147
What does layer four of TCP/IP do
Application Layer
end-user interactions
email, file transfer, web browsing
common protocols: HTTP, HTTPS, FTP, SMTP
148
What is the difference between IPv4 and IPv6
IPv4: 32-bit, decimal address format, 4.3 billion addresses, limited scalability
IPv6: 128-bit, hexadecimal address format, 340 undecilion addresses, scalable for future
149
What does JWICS stand for
Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communication System
150
What is CENTRIXS
Combined Enterprise Regional Information Exchange System
collection of classified coalition networks
151
What is CANES
Consolidated Afloat Networks & Enterprise Services
152
What is DODIN (GIG)`
DoD Network Global Information Grid
end-to-end info caps
collect, process, store, disseminate, manage infor
warfighter, policy maker, support
153
What is DISN
Defense Information System Network
DoD network providing data, video, voice
154
What is NMCI
Navy Marine Corps Intranet
155
What is One-Net
Oconus Navy Enteprise Network
156
What is IT21/ISNS
Info Technology for 21st Centry
Integrated Shipboard Network System
Implement IP block list & DNS black hole
promulgated by NCDOC
157
What is FTP
File Transfer Protocol
158
What ports is FTP
File Transfer Protocol
Port 20/21
159
What is FTP used for
File Transfer Protocol
transfer large amounts of data
160
What is SSH
Secure Shell
161
What ports is SSH
Secure Shell
port 22
162
What is SSH used for
Secure Shell
protect integrity of data being transmitted
support encrypted connections
163
What is Telnet
Telecommunications Network
164
What ports is Telnet
Telecommunications Network
Port 23
165
What is Telnet used for
Telecommunications Network
give user ability to access and manage remote node
166
What is SMTP
Simple Mail Transfer Protocol
167
What port is SMTP
Simple Mail Transfer Protocol
port 25
168
What is SMTP used for
Simple Mail Transfer Protocol
send/receive email
169
What is DNS
Domain Name Service
170
What port is DNS
Domain Name Service
port 53
171
What is DNS used for
Domain Name Service
connect to remote computer using domain name
172
What is DHCP
Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol
173
What port is DHCP
Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol
port 67/68
174
What is DHCP used for
Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol
provide IP address
broadcast node request for info
175
What is HTTP/HTTPS
Hypertext Transfer Protocol
Hypertext Transfer Protocol over Secure Socket Layer
176
What is HTTP/HTTPS used for
Hypertext Transfer Protocol
Hypertext Transfer Protocol over Secure Socket Layer
communication protocol
177
What ports is HTTP/HTTPS
Hypertext Transfer Protocol
Hypertext Transfer Protocol over Secure Socket Layer
port 80/443
178
What is POP3
Post Office Protocol v3
179
What port is POP3
Post Office Protocol v3
port 110
180
What is POP3 used for
Post Office Protocol v3
email client connect to email server & retrieve email
181
What is IMAP4
Internet Message Access Protocol v4
182
What port is IMAP4
Internet Message Access Protocol v4
port 143
183
What is IMAP4 used for
Internet Message Access Protocol v4
client connect & retrieve email from server
184
What are characteristics of TCP
Transmission Control Protocol
connects end users
reliable
operates at transport layer
adapts to delivery standards
185
What is UDP
User Datagram Protocol
186
What are the characteristics of UDP
User Datagram Protocol
unreliable
faster transmission standard that TCP
187
What does MAC stand for
Mandatory Access Controls
188
What ar ethe characteristics of MAC
Mandatory Access Conrols
strictest level of control
access controlled by system administrator
189
What does DAC stand for
Discretionary Access Controls
190
What are the characteristics of DAC
Discretionary Access Controls
allows users access to their own data
default control mechanism
has Access Control List
191
What does RBAC stand for
Role Based Access Controls
192
What are characteristics of RBAC
Role Based Access Controls
Non-Discretionary Access Control
based on user job function
assigns permission based on role
193
What does NAT stand for
Network Address Translation
194
What are characteristics of NAT
Network Address Translation
process that modifies IP address in packet headers at firewall
allows multiple devices on private network to share single IP address
195
What does PAT stand for
Port Address Translation
196
What are the characteristics of PAT
Port Address Translation
NAT overload
assign unique port numbers to computers on same private network
197
What does DMZ stand for
Demilitarized Zone
198
What are the characteristics of DMZ
Demilitarized Zone
segmented subnetwork isolating public accessible services
buffer zone to public network
199
What does ISSM stand for
Information Systems Security Manager
200
What are ISSM responsibilities
Information Systems Security Manager
ensure appropriate cyber security configuration before connecting to system
201
What does ISSO stand for
Information Systems Security Officer
202
What are ISSO responsibilities
Information Systems Security Officer
assist ISSM
implement & enforce cybersecurity policies
ensure user clearances
initiate corrective action when vulnerability discovered
203
What are the responsibilities of the System Administrator
network management
cybersecurity
maintenance
user supporet
204
What is a cybersecurity "backdoor"
method to bypass normal authentication with remote access
205
What is a cybersecurity "worm"
self-replicating malware
sends copies of itself using network
206
What is a cybersecurity "trojan"
malware appearing to be legit until user uses it
207
What a "virus"
computer program that replicates itself
spreads from computer to computer
208
what is a "dictionary attack"
password cracking technique using common words
targets weak passwords
209
what is "privilege escalation"
exploiting flaws/misconfigurations to elevate privileges
vertical - higher authorities
horizontal - access to other accounts
210
What is a "brute force attack"
trial & error method trying every combo
211
what is "network enumeration"
reconnaissance technique to id active hosts, open ports, service, & network resources
map's terrain
212
what is a "rainbow table"
precomputed table of hashed passwords to reverse has passwords
table vice brute force for speed
213
What is "social engineering" in cyber
manipulating people to reveal information
like phishing
214
what is "buffer overflow"
program overwrites buffer corrupting adjacent memory
attackded can use this to cause crash
215
What is "denial of service"
overload of system making it unavailable
216
what is "distributed denial of service"
attacker uses multiple compromised devices to flood target
217
what is "SQL injection"
code injection that exploits vulnerabilities in web apps
inserting malicious SQL queries
218
what is cybersecurity "confidentiality"
ensuring only authorized users have access to sensitive data
encyrption/multi-factor authentication
219
what is cybersecurity "integrity"
ensures data remains accurate and complete
220
what is cybersecurity "non-repudiation"
ensures entity cannot deny sending, receiving, modifying data after the fact
221
what does PKI stand for
Public Key Infrastructure
222
what is PKI
Public Key Infrastructure
framework that manages digital keys and certificates for secure comms
223
What does PKC stand for
Public Key Cyrptography
224
what is PKC
Public Key Cryptography
asymmetric encryption
uses two mathematically linked keys
public key (encrypt)
private key (decrypt)
225
what is the "electromagnectic spectrum"
complete range of freqs
3 kHz to 300,000 THz
226
What is RF wave "refraction"
bending of wave as it passes from one medium to the next
227
What is RF wave "reflection"
bouncing back of wave when it encounters a boundary
228
What is RF wave "diffraction"
spreading of waves when encoutering, passing through, boundaries
229
What is RF wave "multiplexing"
multiple signals on same transmission medium
separated by time, freq, code
230
What is RF wave "keying"
modulation technique varying carrier amplitude, frequency, phase
231
What is RF wave "polarization"
orientatoin of electromagnetic wave
reduces interference for enhanced signal clarity
232
What are RF "ground waves"
RF that travels along earth's surface
long distance comms at low freqs
233
what are RF "sky waves"
RF reflected and refracted back to earth by ionosphere
234
what are RF "space waves"
travel directly through atmosphere without using ionosphere
SATCOM
235
what are RF "surface waves"
ground wave that propagates along earth surface
VLF - sub comms
236
What is an RF "skip zone"
RF fade zone
waves do not reach due to lack of ground wave coverage
237
What is the troposphere
lowest atmospheric layer
8-15 km
contains earth's weather
weather can attenuate RF
238
what is the stratosphere
top of troposphere to 50km
temp inversions & layers can create abnormal propagation (tropospheric ducting)
absence of weather minimizes interference
239
what is the ionosphere
60km - 1,000 km
electrically charged upper atmosphere
reflects/refracts HF for very long comms
solar flares, geomagnetic storms can cause rapid changes to signal
240
what is RF modulation
modifying carrier wave's properties to encode
amplitude, freq, phase
241
what is RF demodulation
reverse process of modulation
decoding to extract signal
242
what is RF USB
Upper Sideband
form of Amplitude modulation
only upper half of spectrum transmitted
243
what is RF LSP
Lower Sideband
Amplitude modulation
only lower half of spectrum transmitted
244
What is RF continuous wave
constant wave
turned on and off to encode
highly efficient for long distance comms
245
What is RF SSB
Single Side Band
using either USB (Upper Sideband) or LSB (Lower Sideband)
246
What is RF DSB
Double Side Band
using both USB (upper sideband) and LSB (lower sideband)
standard AM transmission
not used in modern navy comms
less efficient than SSB (single sideband)
247
what is RF half-duplex
data transmission in both directions
only one direction at a time
one device must wait for the other to finish
248
what is RF full-duplex
data transmission simultaneously in both directions
improved efficiency
249
what is RF semi-duplex
similar to half-duplex
automatic switching between xmt and rcv without manual intervention
250
what is RF simplex
one way only
251
what is RF broadcast
single transmitter to multiple receivers
252
What is RF PRI/PRT
Pulse Repetition Interval
Pulse Repetition Time
time between successive radar pulses
longer PRI longer detect
shorter PRI better tracking
253
What is RF PRF
Pulse Repetition Frequency
number of RF pulses per second
inverse to PRI:
higher PRF = better track
lower PRF = better range
EIWS
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