1
Q
Most common cause of colic?
A
Gas or impaction
2
Q
Most common displacement?
A
Large colon displacement
3
Q
Most common strangulating lesion?
A
Volvulus
4
Q
Classic reflux amount requiring referral?
A
> 2 L
5
Q
Most common cause of choke?
A
Dry feed
6
Q
Treatment for choke?
A
Sedation lavage
7
Q
Classic laminitis cause?
A
Endotoxemia
8
Q
Radiographic sign of laminitis?
A
Rotation of P3
9
Q
Classic neurologic disease of horses?
A
EPM
10
Q
Definitive host of Sarcocystis neurona?
A
Opossum
11
Q
Most common cause of exercise intolerance?
A
Recurrent laryngeal neuropathy
12
Q
Surgery for roaring?
A
Laryngoplasty
13
Q
Most common infectious respiratory disease?
A
Equine influenza
14
Q
Strangles organism?
A
Streptococcus equi
15
Q
Complication of strangles?
A
Bastard strangles
16
Q
Most common cause of uveitis?
A
Leptospira
17
Q
Most common cause of tying up?
A
Polysaccharide storage myopathy
18
Q
Most common equine endocrine disease?
A
PPID
19
Q
Treatment for PPID?
A
Pergolide
20
Q
Most common joint disease?
A
Osteoarthritis
21
Q
Most common fracture site in racehorses?
A
Fetlock
22
Q
Normal equine heart rate?
A
28–44 bpm
23
Q
Normal equine temperature?
A
99–101.5 F
24
Q
Normal equine respiratory rate?
A
10–14 bpm
25
Most common cause of equine forelimb lameness?
Navicular disease
26
Classic navicular sign?
Toe pointing
27
Best diagnostic block for navicular disease?
Palmar digital nerve block
28
Most common cause of hindlimb lameness?
Bone spavin
29
Bone spavin affects which joint?
Distal hock joints
30
Best imaging for hock OA?
Radiographs
31
Classic cause of carpal chip fractures?
Race training
32
Best treatment for carpal chip fractures?
Arthroscopy
33
Classic site of suspensory ligament injury?
Proximal metacarpus
34
Most common cause of fetlock lameness?
Sesamoiditis
35
Most common cause of shoulder lameness?
Bicipital bursitis
36
Most common cause of stifle lameness?
Upward fixation of patella
37
Treatment for upward fixation?
Medial patellar desmotomy
38
Classic cause of septic arthritis?
Penetrating wounds
39
Emergency treatment for septic joint?
Joint lavage + antibiotics
40
Classic cause of tendinitis?
Overuse
41
Most common tendon injured?
Superficial digital flexor tendon
42
Classic laminitis radiographic sign?
Rotation of P3
43
Emergency laminitis treatment?
Cryotherapy + NSAIDs
44
Classic cause of colic requiring surgery?
Strangulating obstruction
45
Most common strangulating lesion?
Volvulus
46
Classic cause of epistaxis?
Ethmoid hematoma
47
Treatment for ethmoid hematoma?
Laser ablation
48
Most common cause of equine colic?
Large colon gas or impaction
49
Most common displacement?
Large colon displacement
50
Most common strangulating lesion?
Volvulus
51
Most life-threatening colic?
Strangulating obstruction
52
Best initial colic analgesic?
Flunixin meglumine
53
Classic surgical colic sign?
Persistent pain unresponsive to analgesia
54
Amount of reflux requiring referral?
>2 liters
55
Most common cause of choke?
Dry feed
56
Treatment for choke?
Sedation + lavage
57
Complication of choke?
Aspiration pneumonia
58
Most common cause of equine diarrhea?
Sand enteropathy
59
Best diagnostic for sand?
Abdominal radiographs
60
Treatment for sand?
Psyllium
61
Most common cause of colitis?
Salmonella
62
Treatment for colitis?
IV fluids + supportive care
63
Classic cause of proximal enteritis?
Clostridium
64
Treatment for proximal enteritis?
Gastric decompression + fluids
65
Cause of gastric ulcers?
NSAIDs stress
66
Treatment for gastric ulcers?
Omeprazole
67
Most common cause of impaction?
Dehydration poor dentition
68
Best treatment for impaction?
Enteral fluids + laxatives
69
Classic laminitis trigger?
Endotoxemia
70
Radiographic sign of laminitis?
Rotation of P3
71
Emergency laminitis treatment?
Cryotherapy + NSAIDs
72
Most common endocrine cause of laminitis?
PPID
73
PPID treatment?
Pergolide
74
EMS predisposes to?
Laminitis
75
EMS lab finding?
Hyperinsulinemia
76
Founder refers to?
Chronic laminitis
77
Most common forelimb lameness cause?
Navicular disease
78
Classic navicular sign?
Toe pointing
79
Best nerve block for navicular?
Palmar digital nerve block
80
Most common hindlimb lameness?
Bone spavin
81
Bone spavin affects?
Distal tarsal joints
82
Most common tendon injured?
Superficial digital flexor tendon
83
Classic sign of tendon injury?
Bow
84
Most common ligament injury?
Suspensory ligament
85
Common cause of fetlock lameness?
Sesamoiditis
86
Most common cause of stifle lameness?
Upward fixation of patella
87
Treatment for upward fixation?
Medial patellar desmotomy
88
Most common shoulder lameness?
Bicipital bursitis
89
Common fracture site in racehorses?
Carpal chip fractures
90
Treatment for carpal chips?
Arthroscopy
91
Common foal fracture?
Physeal fracture
92
Best imaging for lameness?
Radiographs + ultrasound
93
Best imaging for soft tissue injury?
Ultrasound
94
Best imaging for bone?
Radiographs
95
Classic neurologic disease of horses?
EPM
96
Definitive host of Sarcocystis neurona?
Opossum
97
Gold standard diagnosis of EPM?
CSF antibody
98
Treatment for EPM?
Ponazuril
99
Most common cause of ataxia in young horses?
Cervical vertebral stenotic myelopathy
100
Also called?
Wobbler syndrome
101
Treatment for wobblers?
Surgical stabilization
102
Classic viral neuro disease?
West Nile virus
103
West Nile signs?
Ataxia tremors weakness
104
Rabies signs in horses?
Behavior change aggression
105
Tetanus cause?
Clostridium tetani
106
Tetanus hallmark?
Rigid extension saw horse stance
107
Tetanus treatment?
Antitoxin + antibiotics
108
Most common respiratory disease?
Equine influenza
109
Strangles organism?
Streptococcus equi
110
Classic strangles sign?
Submandibular abscess
111
Complication of strangles?
Bastard strangles
112
Treatment for strangles?
Supportive + drainage
113
Most common cause of heaves?
Dust mold
114
Heaves also called?
RAO
115
Treatment for heaves?
Bronchodilators + steroids + environment
116
Exercise intolerance cause?
Recurrent laryngeal neuropathy
117
Also called?
Roaring
118
Surgical treatment for roaring?
Laryngoplasty
119
Common pleuropneumonia pathogen?
Strep zooepidemicus
120
Most common cause of epistaxis?
Ethmoid hematoma
121
Treatment?
Laser ablation
122
Most common equine endocrine disease?
PPID
123
Classic PPID sign?
Hirsutism
124
EMS hallmark?
Obesity insulin resistance
125
Treatment for EMS?
Diet + exercise
126
Most common cause of hyperlipemia?
Negative energy balance
127
Most at-risk horses for hyperlipemia?
Miniature donkeys ponies
128
Treatment of hyperlipemia?
Aggressive caloric support
129
Gestation length in mares?
340 days
130
Most common cause of abortion?
Placentitis
131
Most common viral abortion cause?
EHV-1
132
Classic neonatal disease?
Failure of passive transfer
133
IgG level diagnostic cutoff?
<400 mg/dL
134
Treatment for FPT?
Plasma transfusion
135
Most common neonatal infection?
Sepsis
136
Classic neonatal pathogen?
E coli
137
Most common dystocia cause?
Fetal malposition
138
Normal foal standing time?
1 hour
139
Normal nursing time?
2 hours
140
Meconium impaction occurs in?
Foals
141
Treatment for meconium impaction?
Enema
142
Normal equine heart rate?
28–44 bpm
143
Normal equine respiratory rate?
10–14 bpm
144
Normal equine temperature?
99–101.5 F
145
Normal CRT?
<2 sec
146
Normal gut sounds?
1–3 borborygmi per quadrant
147
Most common cause of equine anemia?
Parasites
148
Most common cause of thrombocytopenia?
Immune mediated
149
Classic cause of edema?
Hypoproteinemia
150
Most common cause of weight loss?
Dental disease
151
Most common anesthetic complication?
Hypotension
152
Best induction agent for compromised horse?
Ketamine + diazepam
153
Most common recovery complication?
Fracture
154
Best recovery prevention?
Assisted recovery
155
Best sedative in horses?
Xylazine
156
Reversal agent?
Yohimbine
157
Most common emergency cause of death?
Colic
158
In equine colic, what is the most important clinical factor for differentiating surgical from medical cases?
Pain.
159
Which intervention is required for horses with colic that are repeatedly refractory to routine analgesics?
Surgery.
160
How does pain usually present in medical colic cases?
Low-grade and responsive to analgesics.
161
Describe the typical pain presentation in a surgical colic case.
Severe, recurrent, and non-responsive to analgesics.
162
In a surgical colic, how does peritoneal lactate typically compare to serum lactate?
Lactate is significantly higher in peritoneal fluid than in serum.
163
What is the expected appearance of peritoneal fluid in most surgical colic cases?
Serosanguineous.
164
Which white blood cell type is primarily increased in the peritoneal fluid of surgical colic horses?
Neutrophils.
165
The presence of more than $4\text{ L}$ of gastric reflux usually suggests which type of colic pathology?
Small intestinal obstructions or certain large colon displacements.
166
What are the common findings on rectal palpation for a surgical colic?
Gas-distended large colon, taut taeniae, or distended small intestine.
167
Which medical colic classically presents with depression, fever, and copious red-brown, smelly nasogastric reflux?
Proximal enteritis.
168
What are the characteristic ultrasound findings for proximal enteritis?
Thick-walled, hypomotile, and distended small intestine.
169
The peritoneal fluid in proximal enteritis cases typically shows increased protein but a normal _____.
White blood cell count.
170
Which treatment for proximal enteritis aims to prevent a common secondary hoof complication?
Laminitis prophylaxis.
171
What are the three most common sites for large colon impaction?
Pelvic flexure, transverse colon, and base of the cecum.
172
Which imaging modality is used to diagnose sand impactions in horses?
Radiography.
173
Which specific condition is associated with a sudden decrease in an equine's activity level?
Cecal impaction.
174
What is the most common cause of colic in horses?
Spasmodic or tympanic colic.
175
Which drug is mentioned as an anti-spasmodic treatment for spasmodic colic?
Buscopan.
176
Describe the classic presentation of a large colon volvulus.
Acute, severe pain with abdominal distension and significant tachycardia.
177
What ultrasound finding is diagnostic for large colon volvulus?
A diffusely and significantly thickened large colon wall.
178
Which type of small intestinal incarceration is most common in older, obese horses?
Pedunculated lipoma.
179
Reducing which repetitive behavior can decrease the risk of epiploic foramen entrapment?
Crib-biting.
180
In which type of large colon displacement is the nephrosplenic space impossible to palpate per rectum?
Left dorsal displacement (LDD).
181
Why is phenylephrine administered to a horse with left dorsal displacement of the large colon?
To shrink the spleen before lunging or rolling the horse.
182
Which surgical procedure can prevent the recurrence of left dorsal displacement?
Surgical nephrosplenic ablation.
183
What percentage of equine lameness cases involve the foot?
$90\%$.
184
On the AAEP lameness scale, what does a Grade 3 represent?
Lameness is consistently perceptible in a straight line and circle at a trot.
185
Which AAEP lameness grade is defined as 'non-weight bearing'?
Grade 5.
186
What is the mnemonic used to identify the lame leg in forelimb lameness during a head bob?
"Down on sound" (the head drops when the sound leg strikes).
187
How does the pelvis move in a horse with hindlimb lameness?
The sacrum or pelvis hikes up when the lame limb strikes the ground.
188
Why should regional analgesia be avoided if a fracture is suspected?
An incomplete fracture may become complete if the horse stops feeling pain.
189
What is the typical duration of effect for Mepivacaine used in nerve blocks?
$90\text{--}120$ minutes.
190
Which imaging modality is best for evaluating soft-tissue lesions and core lesions in tendons?
Ultrasonography.
191
What is the primary diagnostic use of nuclear scintigraphy (bone scan)?
Identifying bone lesions when lameness cannot be localised or is multifocal.
192
Which regenerative therapy for soft-tissue lesions involves using the horse's own blood platelets?
Platelet-rich plasma (PRP).
193
What are the common clinical signs of a subsolar foot abscess?
Severe lameness, heat in the hoof, and an increased digital pulse.
194
Where does a foot abscess typically 'break out' if it does not drain through the sole?
The coronary band.
195
Which nerve block is often required to probe and lavage a painful foot abscess?
Palmar digital nerve block.
196
What are the three clinical stages of laminitis?
Developmental, acute, and chronic.
197
On the Obel grading system for laminitis, what defines Grade 3?
The horse is lame at the walk, has a stilted gait, and resists lifting its feet.
198
Which metabolic condition is a common cause of pasture-associated laminitis?
Insulin dysregulation (equine metabolic syndrome).
199
What radiographic finding indicates chronic laminitis?
Rotation or sinking of the third phalanx ($P3$) relative to the hoof wall.
200
Which specific physical finding on the hoof wall is suggestive of previous laminitis episodes?
Divergent hoof rings.
201
What is the gold standard preventative measure for laminitis in horses with systemic inflammation?
Cryotherapy (ice-water slurry).
202
How is Atrial Fibrillation (AF) definitively diagnosed in horses?
Electrocardiogram (ECG).
203
What ECG findings confirm Atrial Fibrillation?
Absence of P waves, presence of f-waves, and irregular R–R intervals.
204
Which medication is used for medical cardioversion of 'lone' Atrial Fibrillation?
Quinidine.
205
What is the only definitive diagnostic tool for Equine Gastric Ulcer Syndrome (EGUS)?
Fasting gastroscopy.
206
Which drug is considered the 'gold standard' for treating squamous gastric ulcers?
Omeprazole.
207
What are the classic clinical signs of esophageal obstruction (choke)?
Ptyalism and feed material or saliva discharging from the nostrils.
208
What is the most dangerous potential complication of esophageal obstruction?
Aspiration pneumonia.
209
What physical sign develops in mature horses with chronic severe equine asthma due to abdominal effort?
A heave line.
210
What is the most important component of treating equine asthma?
Environmental management (reducing dust and allergens).
211
What diagnostic procedure is used to identify inflammatory cells in the small airways of asthmatic horses?
Bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL).
212
Which medication must NEVER be used if a corneal ulcer is present?
Steroids.
213
What is the purpose of using Atropine in the treatment of corneal ulcers?
To decrease iridocyclospasm (pain) and improve drainage.
214
What is the primary clinical sign differentiating a corneal ulcer from recurrent uveitis?
Fluorescein stain uptake (ulcers are positive; uveitis is negative).
215
What is the most common cause of secondary sinusitis in horses?
Dental disease.
216
Which clinical signs are classic for Pituitary Pars Intermedia Dysfunction (PPID)?
Hypertrichosis (long curly hair), muscle loss, and chronic laminitis.
217
Which hormone level is measured to screen for PPID in horses?
Resting plasma ACTH.
218
Which drug is used to treat horses with PPID?
Pergolide (a dopamine agonist).
219
What are the typical laboratory findings in a horse with acute colitis?
Neutropenia, dehydration, and hypoalbuminaemia.
220
Which antimicrobial is specifically indicated for treating Potomac Horse Fever (PHF)?
Oxytetracycline.
221
What is the gold standard for diagnosing sepsis in foals?
Blood culture.
222
Failure of passive transfer in foals is defined as a blood $IgG$ level below which threshold?
$400\text{ mg/dl}$.
223
Which diagnostic test is more sensitive than resting ACTH for diagnosing early PPID?
Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) stimulation test.
224
Which type of colitis is associated with the use of Non-Steroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs (NSAIDs)?
Right dorsal colitis.
225
What is 'Colitis X'?
Idiopathic colitis, sometimes associated with stress or antibiotics.
226
Which diagnostic finding in peritoneal fluid is highly suggestive of a strangulating intestinal lesion?
High lactate levels.
227
What are 'Curshmann spirals' found in BAL fluid indicative of?
Mucus production in the small airways, often seen in equine asthma.
228
Which clinical factor is considered the most important for differentiating surgical from medical colics in horses?
Pain.
229
In equine colic, how does the peritoneal fluid lactate level typically compare to serum lactate in surgical cases?
Lactate is significantly higher in the peritoneal fluid compared to the serum.
230
What type of peritoneal fluid is characteristic of a surgical equine colic?
Serosanguineous fluid with increased protein and white blood cell count.
231
The presence of more than $4$ L of gastric reflux in a colicky horse typically indicates which category of condition?
Small intestinal obstruction or certain large colon displacements.
232
Which specific equine colic is associated with red-brown, malodorous nasogastric reflux and a fever?
Proximal enteritis.
233
What are the common clinical findings of proximal enteritis on abdominal ultrasound?
Thick-walled, hypomotile, and distended small intestine.
234
What is the most common anatomical site for a large colon impaction in the horse?
The pelvic flexure.
235
Which diagnostic method is used to definitively identify a sand impaction in a horse?
Abdominal radiography.
236
What is the most common cause of colic encountered in equine practice?
Spasmodic or tympanic colic.
237
Which surgical colic presents with acute, severe pain, abdominal distension, and significant tachycardia?
Large colon volvulus.
238
In older, obese horses, what is the most common cause of small intestinal incarceration?
Pedunculated lipomas.
239
Which intervention is used to shrink the spleen during the medical management of left dorsal displacement of the large colon?
Phenylephrine administration.
240
What is the only definitive diagnostic tool for Equine Gastric Ulcer Syndrome (EGUS)?
Fasting gastroscopy.
241
Where are glandular gastric ulcers typically located in the equine stomach?
Around the pylorus.
242
What percentage of equine lameness is estimated to involve the foot?
$90\%$.
243
In forelimb lameness, does the horse's head bob up or down when the lame limb strikes the ground?
Up.
244
What is the significance of a pelvic hike during a hindlimb lameness examination?
The sacrum or pelvis hikes up when the lame limb strikes the ground.
245
According to the AAEP lameness scale, what defines a grade $3$ lameness?
The lameness is consistently perceptible in a straight line and circle at a trot.
246
What is the typical duration of effect for the regional anaesthetic Mepivacaine in horses?
$90$ to $120$ minutes.
247
Why is a foot abscess exceptionally painful for a horse?
Abscess pressure on tissues cannot expand within the rigid hoof capsule.
248
According to the Obel grading system for laminitis, what defines a grade $3$?
The horse is lame at the walk, has a stilted gait, and resists lifting its feet.
249
Which radiographic sign is indicative of chronic severe laminitis?
Rotation or sinking of the third phalanx (P3) with respect to the hoof wall.
250
What is the gold standard medical treatment for equine squamous gastric ulcers?
Omeprazole (a proton pump inhibitor).
251
What is the layperson's term for equine oesophageal obstruction?
Choke.
252
Why should a horse's head be kept low during oesophageal lavage for an obstruction?
To prevent aspiration pneumonia.
253
Which equine condition is characterised by a 'heave line' in mature horses?
Severe equine asthma.
254
What is the most important component of managing equine asthma?
Environmental management to decrease dust and allergens.
255
Which diagnostic finding in a bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) is characteristic of severe equine asthma?
An increased percentage of neutrophils.
256
Why must steroids NEVER be used in the presence of an equine corneal ulcer?
Steroids can worsen the ulceration and lead to melting or perforation.
257
What is the primary medication used to treat equine Atrial Fibrillation via medical cardioversion?
Quinidine.
258
What ECG findings confirm a diagnosis of Atrial Fibrillation in horses?
Absent P waves, presence of fibrillation (f) waves, and an irregular R–R interval.
259
Which diagnostic test is more sensitive than resting ACTH for Pituitary Pars Intermedia Dysfunction (PPID)?
Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) stimulation test.
260
What classic clinical sign is most suggestive of Pituitary Pars Intermedia Dysfunction (PPID) in older horses?
Hypertrichosis (a long, curly haircoat).
261
In cases of equine colitis, what is a primary purpose of placing the horse's feet in an ice-water slurry?
To help prevent the development of laminitis.
262
What is the gold standard diagnostic for confirming sepsis in a foal?
Blood culture.
263
At what age should all foals be checked for adequate passive transfer of IgG?
Between $12$ and $24$ hours of age.
264
An IgG level below what value defines failure of passive transfer in a foal?
$400$ mg/dl.
265
What common secondary cause is associated with chronic malodorous unilateral nasal discharge in horses?
Dental disease.
266
Which diagnostic imaging modality is considered best for evaluating soft-tissue lesions in equine lameness?
Ultrasonography.
267
In the context of equine colic, what does 'serosanguineous' peritoneal fluid often imply?
Intestinal strangulation or non-viability.
268
What is the primary differential for a corneal ulcer that presents with similar signs but no fluorescein stain uptake?
Recurrent uveitis.
269
Which drug is used as a mydriatic in equine corneal ulcer treatment to reduce iridocyclospasm?
Atropine.
270
What haematological finding is common in horses with acute colitis due to endotoxaemia?
Neutropenia (a low white blood cell count).
271
Which diagnostic finding on rectal palpation is most indicative of a Large Colon Volvulus?
Extremely gas-filled intestine.
272
What is the characteristic appearance of gastric reflux in a horse with proximal enteritis?
Copious, red-brown, and smelly.
273
What is the significance of 'Curshmann spirals' found in a bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL)?
They are mucus plugs indicative of equine asthma.
274
Which specific colic is often seen in miniature horses?
Faecaliths.
275
Which breed of horse is most predisposed to developing enteroliths?
Arabians.
276
Which anatomical structure is the only point where the large colon is attached to the body wall?
The base of the caecum.
277
How is a Right Dorsal Displacement (RDD) of the large colon identified on ultrasound?
Mesenteric vessels are seen coursing along the right lateral body wall.
278
What is the first step in the medical management of a Right Dorsal Displacement (RDD) of the large colon?
IV fluids, withholding feed, and analgesics.
279
According to the AAEP scale, a lameness perceptible only under certain conditions (like cantering on a specific lead) is grade _____.
1
280
Which regional anaesthesia technique is used to localise lameness to the foot?
Palmar digital nerve block.
281
What defines the 'acute' stage of equine laminitis?
The period before mechanical failure of the laminar connection occurs.
282
Which endocrinopathy is a frequent underlying cause of pasture-associated laminitis?
Insulin dysregulation (Equine Metabolic Syndrome).
283
What radiographic finding in laminitis is described as 'ski-tipping'?
Remodelling of the dorsodistal aspect of the third phalanx (P3).
284
In the treatment of Atrial Fibrillation, when is cardioversion contraindicated?
When underlying cardiac disease is present.
285
What is the definitive diagnostic method for identifying the specific part of the GI tract involved in colic?
Abdominal palpation per rectum and ultrasound.
286
What finding on abdominocentesis suggests an urgent need for surgical intervention in a colicky horse?
Serosanguineous colour and high lactate levels.
287
Which medication is a parasympatholytic commonly used for spasmodic colic?
Buscopan (Hyoscine butylbromide).
288
Which equine asthma type typically affects younger performance horses?
Mild-to-moderate equine asthma (mEA).
289
What is the purpose of 'lily pads' in the treatment of laminitis?
To provide hoof and frog support.
290
How does a 'Desmetocele' react to fluorescein stain?
It has no stain uptake because the endothelium is gone.
291
Which condition is characterised by 'grumpiness' during girthing and behavior changes?
Equine Gastric Ulcer Syndrome (EGUS).
292
What is the prognosis for a first-time, uncomplicated case of equine oesophageal obstruction?
Excellent.
293
What is the primary diagnostic finding of Left Dorsal Displacement (LDD) on rectal palpation?
Inability to feel the nephrosplenic space.
294
Why is 'crib-biting' behaviour managed as a preventative measure for SI colic?
It can decrease the risk of epiploic foramen entrapment.
295
Which condition is described as 'subsolar abscess'?
Foot abscess.
296
What is the recommended treatment for a 'lone' Atrial Fibrillation if athletic performance is desired?
Medical cardioversion with quinidine or transvenous electrical cardioversion.
297
Which diagnostic finding indicates 'sinking' of the third phalanx (P3) during coronary band palpation?
An abnormal 'ledge' felt at the coronary band.
298
What is the purpose of using a subpalpebral lavage system for corneal ulcers?
To administer frequent topical medications to difficult patients or severe ulcers.
299
In horses with Pituitary Pars Intermedia Dysfunction (PPID), what cause is responsible for the development of the functional adenoma?
Lack of dopaminergic inhibition by the hypothalamus.
300
Which infectious agent associated with colitis is treated specifically with oxytetracycline?
Potomac horse fever (PHF).
301
What is the primary haematological sign of dehydration and shock in equine colitis cases?
Dehydration with abnormal electrolytes and hypoalbuminaemia.
302
Which surgical colic has a prognosis that is often 'guarded'?
Large colon volvulus.
303
What is the standard first aid for a suspected limb fracture in a horse to prevent making it worse?
Do not use regional anaesthesia or force the horse to exercise/move.
304
Which imaging modality is preferred for localising a lameness when multiple limbs are involved and regional blocks are inconclusive?
Nuclear scintigraphy (bone scan).
305
What is the meaning of the lameness exam mnemonic 'DOWN ON SOUND'?
The horse's head goes down when the sound leg strikes the ground.
306
In proximal enteritis, how does the peritoneal white blood cell (WBC) count typically present?
It is usually normal.
307
What are 'Divergent hoof rings' indicative of in an equine patient?
Chronic severe laminitis.
308
Which specific form of colic is associated with a sudden decrease in activity levels?
Caecal impactions.
309
What is the primary goal of surgical nephrosplenic ablation in horses?
To prevent recurrence of left dorsal displacement of the large colon.
310
Which medication is administered as laminitis prophylaxis in horses with proximal enteritis?
Anti-inflammatories or cryotherapy (ice-water slurry).
311
What is the typical clinical appearance of a horse with proximal enteritis compared to other colics?
The horse appears more depressed than colicky.
NAVLE prep
flashcards
Decks in class (15)
# Cards
-
Overview160
-
Dog and Cat166
-
Equine311
-
Small Ruminant11
-
Bovine127
-
Exotics9
-
Fish9
-
Pharmacology64
-
ECC36
-
MICROBIOLOGY + ANTIBIOTIC CHOICE22
-
PARASITOLOGY LIFE CYCLES + TREATMENT19
-
SURGERY + ORTHOPEDICS19
-
RADIOLOGY PATTERN RECOGNITION15
-
OPHTHALMOLOGY & 🐾 DERMATOLOGY21
-
BEHAVIOR + WELFARE + ETHICS16
