Theriogenology > Equine 3 > Flashcards

Equine 3 Flashcards

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1
Q

on what day of gestation does the fetus release PGE and enter the uterus

A

day6.5

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2
Q

when does fixation of the fetus in the uterus occur

A

day 16

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3
Q

what propels the conceptus within the uterine lumen

A

embryonic release of PGF2a causing uterine contractions

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4
Q

what embryonic activity is important for maternal recognition of pregnancy

A

MOBILITY

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5
Q

when should ultrasonic pregnancy detection be done

A

14d, 25d, 60d, 5 months

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6
Q

Why do we check pregnancy at 5 months

A

to confirm fetal viability before feeding through winter and vaccines. It takes a lot of resources to support pregnancy through winter, and we want to double check that the mare still has a viable pregnancy before doing so

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7
Q

when is the last twin ultrasound check?

A

day 60

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8
Q

when should you scan the uterus if you suspect a double ovulation (twins)

A

day 14

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9
Q

when is the ideal time for manually crushing a twin embryo

A

between 14-16 days (prior to implantation)

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10
Q

which twin embryo should you select to crush

A

the smaller one or the one you can isolate more easily

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11
Q

why do we give flunixin and regumate (P4) after a twin crushing procedure

A

crushing will cause inflammation that can raise PG levels and cause abortion of the fetus we want to keep. This treatment counteracts the inflammation and supports the remaining embryo

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12
Q

What are the two post-fixation twin management strategies?

A
  1. Natural reduction theory (85% of unilaterally fixed twins will have one twin naturally die by day 40)
  2. manual crush post fixation (75% success in creating a singleton if bilateral)
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13
Q

you have two embryos fixed in the same horn of the uterus. What is the best twin management strategy

A

natural reduction (85% will become singletons by day 40.) Manual crush is less successful when unilateral, because proximity increases risk to the embryo we want to maintain

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14
Q

you have two embryos fixed bilaterally. What is the most successful twin management strategy

A

manual crush post fixation (75%). Bilateral twins will only naturally reduce in 4% of pregnancies

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15
Q

When must twins be aborted if you want to have success with a pregnancy in the same season? why is this?

A

before day 30, due to the formation of endometrial cups

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16
Q

what do endometrial cups produce

A

equine chorionic gonadotropin (eCG)

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17
Q

What is the function of eCG

A

has predominantly LH behaviour, some FSH behaviour. This leads to the creation of accessory CLs to protect the pregnancy

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18
Q

What produces progesterone prior to d 100?

A

the primary and accessory CLs

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19
Q

what produces progesterone after d 100?

A

the placenta

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20
Q

Does the presence of eCG indicate the presence of a viable fetus?

A

no, it indicates she WAS pregnant. eCG wont disappear until post d 100

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21
Q

What causes retained endometrial cups, and what is their significance

A

abortion after formation. These retained endometrial cups will continue to exhibit LH activity, luteinizing follicles before they have a chance to ovulate. This means that the breeding season is typically lost

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22
Q

When must we get rid of empty trophoblastic vesicles if we want to try for a successful pregnancy in the same season>

A

prior to d 30, because these empty vesicles will lead to endometrial cup formation if left in the mare

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23
Q

when does the fetoplacental unit assume production of progestogens, and what is the clinical relevance of this?

A

between d 50-70. If the fetoplacental unit has taken over, you do not need to continue to support pregnancy with P4 supplements, because the placenta will now produce enough P4 to maintain the pregnanct

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24
Q

When should you vx the mare to protect the fetus?

A

1 month prior to due date with everything except streptococcus (MLV)

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25
why do we not vaccinate for streptococcus (MLV) 1 month prior to parturition like we do with other vaccines
it causes abortion (modified live vaccine)
26
What is the most common cause of premature foal death?
placentitis
27
What are the three types of placentitis in the mare
ascending infection (most common, think Caslicks) Hematogenous (rare) Nocardioform (comes from soil, peanut butter discharge)
28
what is the most common ascending etiology for placentitis in the mare
strep equi ssp zooepidemicus
29
What is characteristic of placentitis on a placental exam
thick areas of necrotic tissue around the cervical star
30
what are clinical signs of placentitis
vaginal discharge, premature mammary development, or no clinical signs at all
31
Placentitis treatment
1. antibiotics to reduce bacteria 2. progesterone to maintain uterine quiescence 3. NSAIDs and pentoxyfiline to reduce inflammation
32
What is CTUP a measure of?
CTUP - " combined thickness of the uterus and placenta". increased CTUP indicates inflammation and is associated with placentitis
33
What is considered a normal CTUP?
~1 mm/month of gestation
34
What is the average gestation length of a horse
340 d
35
what is considered a late maturation of foal?
> 360 d (usually dysmature)
36
What are signs of imminent parturition
- abdomen drops - perineal relaxation - waxing - vulvar elongation - restlessness (tail swishing, small piles of manure)
37
What is the connection between milk calcium/appearance and parturition
Birth is imminent when milk calcium levels reach 300-500 ppm. pH will drop, and the colour of the milk will be a thick, honey-green
38
What should you always check for the presence of prior to foaling?
a Caslick -> has to be taken out
39
What is a better substrate for foaling: straw or sand?
straw. Sand can get impacted in the nostrils and impair breathing
40
What is the bare minimum you should include in a foaling kit?
clean towel, scissors, enema, resuscitation kit, umbilical clamp
41
What is a foal alert transporter?
an alarm system placed on the vulva of a mare that alerts husbandry team when the foal exits the vagina
42
When do mares typically foal?
at night (most between 10pm-2am, as they do not want there to be stressors like handlers present when it happens)
43
What is the normal length of stage 1 labor?
12 hours
44
What is stage 2 labor?
expulsion of the foal
45
How long is normal stage 2 labour?
17 minutes
46
What is stage 3 labor
expulsion of the placenta
47
how long should stage 3 labour be
< 3hours
48
What is the normal shape of a placenta?
Y or F shaped
49
What is considered a retained placenta?
when expulsion has not occurred after 3 hours of parturition
50
What side of the placenta will signs of placentitis be most obvious?
Chorionic side (red, velvety appearance)
51
A white horn on a placental exam may indicate
presence of a twin still inside
52
if a placenta is scarred upon examination, what should you closely monitor?
the foal - this indicates that the foal did not receive a normal blood supply in utero
53
when should you NOT do a placental exam?
without gloves (risk of zoonoses) when examiner is pregnant (risk of zoonoses)
54
How can you differentiate the gravid from non-gravid horn on placental examination?
the nongravid horn will be thin and corrugated. The gravid horn will be thick and edematous (because the foal kicked it lots during gestation)
55
What is the most common cause of dystocia in the mare?
malpositioning
56
T/F: fetal overgrowth is common in horses
false. If you can't get the foal out, it is usually a problem with the foal, not the mare (eg fetal monsters)
57
A mare does not have a ferguson's reflex. What is the likely positioning of the foal in the uterus, and how do you know?
The foal is likely transverse. Ferguson's reflex describes positive feedback in contractions from the fetus entering the birth canal. Transverse fetuses won't enter the birth canal, so contractions will stop.
58
What mares are more susceptible to dystocia?
maidens
59
For every 10 minute increase in stage II labor beyond 30 minutes, there is a ____ increase in the foal being born dead and a ____ increase in teh foal not surviving to discharge
10%, 16%
60
For every 10 minute increase in stage II labor beyond 30 minutes, there is an 10% increase in the foal being born dead and a 16% increase in foal not surviving to discharge. What are the clinical implications of this?
if you work in a referral practice, be as fast as possible. If you work ambulatory, you must have the owner's transfer the mare to clinic for C-section. By the time you get to the mare, it will be too late.
61
Why don't we do mare csections in field like with bovine practice?
horses have increased need for respiratory support as we cannot perform C-sections standing in horses (have to do in dorsal recumbency, meaning they will require respiratory support)
62
What are the survival rates for the FOAL in c-sections?
11-42% (5-31% survive to discharge)
63
What are the two most important contributing factors to a successful equine c-section?
Speed and early recognition
64
What is Red Bag?
premature placental separation. This occurs when there is premature loss of placental interdigitation, resulting in a large red membrane extruding from the vagina.
65
Red Bag treatment
IMMEDIATE tearing of the dark red membrane BY HAND, apply chains and deliver the foal. We tear by hand as this condition closely resembles vaginal or bladder prolapse (you wouldn't be able to tear a bladder with your fingers, but you can tear a placenta with your fingers)
66
What is the biggest concern with premature placental separation (red bag)?
foal suffocation
67
How can you stop contractions to buy time in an emergency
walk the mare -> stops contractions
68
What are potential causes of prolonged gestation
- fetal development arrest - placental insufficiency - season - fescue toxicosis (also causes agalactia)
69
What are indications for inducing parturition in a mare?
-prepubic tendon rupture - prolonged gestation - hydrops
70
What is the best agent of choice for inducing parturition in a mare, and which agents should you avoid?
Low dose oxytocin is the best choice. Avoid prostaglandins, as they are too strong. Also avoid glucocorticoids, as they don't work well
71
What is the most common problem in early postpartum?
retained placenta
72
Risk factors for retained placenta
- abortion - dystocia - obstetrical procedures - induction of foaling - fescue toxicity - placentitis - uterine inertia - previous retained placenta event
73
What part of the placenta is most likely to be retained?
tip of or entire non-gravid (nonpregnant) horn. This horn is non-edematous and tightly adhered to the uterus
74
What are the subsequent sequelae of retained placenta?
- rapid bacterial growth in uterus - production of endotoxins - absorption of endotoxins - systemic endotoxemia, sepsis, laminitis, death
75
Clinical signs of retained placenta
fetid, reddish brown discharge depression anorexia fever
76
Initial treatment for retained placenta in mares
oxytocin + infusion of fluid into the allantoic space (burns technique) + umbillical vessel water infusion (dutch technique)
77
What is the burns technique?
infusion of fluid into the allantoic cavity (adds weight to the placenta to facilitate expulsion by gravity)
78
What is the dutch technique?
infusion of water via the placental vessels
79
When do you know you have adequately lavaged a uterus in retained placenta patients?
When the color of the lavage in matches the color of the lavage out. This is because we lavage with a solution that contains betadine, and betadine changes color in the presence of bacteria
80
What are the 5 main components of retained placenta treatment?
1. lavage 2. oxytocin 3. antibiotics (systemic and intrauterine) 4. NSAIDS (Flunixin Meglumine) 5. support (frog pads, bedded stall)
81
Uterine prolapse clinical signs
constant or recurrent pain post-partum colic signs protrusion of uterus out vulva
82
Treatment for uterine prolapse in the mare
Suspend uterus and clean it. manual correction (often with a sterile wine bottle) back into the vagina
83
Where do uterine tears most commonly occur?
tip of the pregnant horn (too deep to manually palpate)
84
Uterine tear treatment (mare)
small: oxytocin, systemic antibiotics, NSAIDS. supportive care large: surgery
85
What is the most common cause of periparturient death in mares?
uterine artery rupture
86
What is the pathophysiology of uterine artery rupture?
result of weakening of the arterial wall and repeated enlargement and shrinkage of the vessels associated with pregnancy and foaling
87
What are the signs of uterine artery rupture?
shock (internal hemorrhage)
88
What has a better prognosis: uterine artery rupture within or outside the broad ligament?
within the broad ligament. These ruptures will be contained and form a hematoma, while ruptures outside of the broad ligament with lead to major blood loss into the abdominal cavity
89
What is the risk with running diagnostic tests (PCV, abdominal US, abdominocentesis) in cases of suspected uterine artery rupture?
These will likely stress the mare, increasing her blood pressure, and causing her to hemorrhage more
90
uterine artery rupture treatment
decrease mare stress to protect the clot analgesics (detomidine, banamine)  ± Aminocaproic acid (Amicar) - inhibits fibrinolysis  ± Blood and/or plasma transfusions  ± Fluid administration – but can cause increase in blood pressure  ± Acepromazine– but mare is hypotensive
91
What is a major risk factor for perineal lacerations and hematomas?
failure to open Caslick
92
what are the 3 degrees of perineal laceration
1. vulvar lip tear 2. vulvar lips and perineal body 3. through rectovaginal shelf
93
perineal laceration treatment
antibiotics, analgesia, aids for defecation and consequent surgical correction
94
Post partum colic causes
Uterine contractions (normal) Uterine horn invagination Uterine tear and peritonitis Large colon displacement - torsion Uterine artery rupture
95
Post partum colic treatment
BANAMINE 1.1 mg/kg IV (resolves most mild colic) + supportive care +/- surgery
96
What are risk factors/predispositions for foal rejection?
Arabians Primiparous mares
97
What is the treatment priority in cases of foal rejection?
colostrum administration (foal may not be able to nurse)
98
What are treatment options for foal rejection
Physically restrain by halter Twitch or food/distraction Safety bar Sedation Progestogen (Regu-Mate®) Behavioral modifying compound (Zylkene®) Cervical vaginal stimulation Prostaglandin administration (to simulate labor)
Theriogenology
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