1
Q
- What type of defense mechanism is displayed when unacceptable ideas, wishes, desire, or memories are
blocked from the consciousness?
A
b. Repression
2
Q
- Which of the following is an example of a breakdown in behavior?
A
c. Yelling obscenities and swearing at strangers on the street
3
Q
- Kelly is a hard worker, who works under a very overbearing supervisor. Kelly doesn’t particularly like her
boss and avoids him at all costs, but she believes that her boss hates her and that’s why she needs to keep
her distance. This defense mechanism is known as what?
A
a. Projection
4
Q
- Who was the person that developed lobotomies?
A
a. Walter Freeman
5
Q
- Incidence is the number of new cases that occur during a given time period.
A
a. True
6
Q
- What do clinical psychologists trained to do?
A
a. Research
b. Clinical work
7
Q
- Believing that you are a baby, when you are really 34 years old, is an example of:
A
a. Cognitive dysfunction
8
Q
- Which careers in psychopathology typically require a PhD?
A
a. Clinical Psychologist
b. Counseling Psychologist
9
Q
- What is the term used to describe the anticipated course of a mental disorder?
A
c. Prognosis
10
Q
- Who created the highly effective treatment for anxiety called systematic desensitization?
A
b. Wolpe
11
Q
- What are the four humors that Hippocrates believed direct normal functioning and personality?
A
b. Blood, yellow bile, black bile, phlegm
12
Q
- Which defense mechanism involves an individual substituting thoughts or feelings that are the opposite of
the unacceptable ones they are thinking or feeling?
A
b. Reaction Formation
13
Q
- What is a Clinical Psychologist?
A
a. Someone who has a PhD or PsyD in psychology with both research and clinical specialization and
who is licensed and registered in the state in which they practice.
14
Q
- Which term is used to describe the number of people in a population with a specific disorder at a given
time?
A
- Point Prevalence
15
Q
- Which of these “sprits” (emotions) is connected to the spleen, according to Ancient Chinese medicine?
A
b. Worry
16
Q
- A child who had been abused by a parent has now forgotten all memories of the time, but still has
difficulty establishing trusting relationships. What defense mechanism are they using?
A
c. Repression
17
Q
- In order to be diagnosed with a psychological disorder you typically must be experiencing:
A
a. Distress
b. Impairment
18
Q
- Which of the following components are typically needed to diagnose someone with a psychological
disorder?
A
a. A breakdown in emotion, cognition, or behavioral function
b. Distress or impairment
c. A response that is atypical or not culturally expected
19
Q
- Becky is a Nursing student who is constantly under a lot of stress due to the rigor of her coursework. When
she is frustrated and burnt out, she goes to the gym and runs a few miles. Which type of defense
mechanism is Becky engaging in?
A
b. Sublimation
20
Q
- Which of the following professions require a Medical Degree (MD)?
A
e. Psychiatrist
21
Q
- Lifetime prevalence refers to:
A
a. The percent of people in a population that have had the disorder at some point in
their lives
22
Q
- Shane is a 21-year-old college student. He has always been very organized, kept things exceptionally clean,
and gets enjoyment when his belongings are placed in an organized fashion. His first two years of college,
he lived alone. In his second year, he is living with three of his closest friends, however, none of them keep
their things organized and they leave trash around the house. Shane often cleans up after them and lies
awake at night wondering if there are more things he did not clean. This makes him feel uncomfortable
and anxious. Shane recently started skipping class and work so that he can organize the house in the exact
specifications that he likes. Which components of a psychology disorder is Shane demonstrating?
A
a. Distress
b. Impairment
c. Breakdown in behavior
23
Q
- What is the meaning of Etiology?
A
b. The cause of the disorder
24
Q
- Someone who takes their work stress out on their child instead of their boss is engaging in which defense
mechanism?
A
e. Displacement
25
25. Prevalence is defined as
d. The percentage of people in the population as a whole that have a certain disorder.
26
26. Who was the first to take an integrative approach to psychopathology (recognizing the roles of heredity
and psychological/interpersonal dysfunction)?
b. Hippocrates
27
27. What is Point Prevalence?
b. The percentage of people in the population with the disorder at any given time.
28
28. This course tends to last a long time, often a lifetime.
a. Chronic course
29
29. What does psychopathology mean?
b. Scientific study of psychological disorders
30
30. Who developed the Psychoanalytic Model?
c. Freud
31
31. In order to be diagnosed with a psychological disorder, which aspects must be present?
a. Distress or impairment in functioning
b. Atypical or culturally unexpected behavior
c. Psychological dysfunction
32
32. Which kind of breakdown is not part of a psychological dysfunction?
b. Developmental
33
33. Which of the following mental health professionals MUST receive a PhD (or PsyD)?
a. Clinical Psychologist
34
34. Therapists that use unconditional positive regard are using what kind of therapy?
c. Person-Centered Therapy
35
35. Which behaviorist was the first to apply classical conditioning to humans?
b. Watson
36
36. An individual that deals with an emotional conflict or stressor by transferring his/her feelings about one
object onto a less threatening object is using what type of defense mechanism?
b. Displacement
37
37. What defense mechanism has to do with an individual expelling disturbing wishes, thoughts, or
experiences from conscious awareness?
a. Repression
38
38. Which best defines the term “distress”?
c. The individual is extremely upset or disturbed by their symptoms
39
39. What is the difference between a counseling psychologist and a marriage and family therapist?
d. A counseling psychologist requires a Ph.D whereas a marriage and family therapist requires a
Masters
40
40. Which of the following defense mechanisms is defined as an “individual falsely attributing her/his own
unacceptable thoughts or feelings onto another person”?
b. Projection
41
41. Which one of these were not one of the three categories of mental disorders that Hippocrates recognized?
Delirium
42
42. After being sent to the principal’s office for his senior prank, Anthony is on the verge of getting expelled
just days before his graduation. Deciding not to make a scene in the office to potentially save his
education, he holds his anger and lashes out at a smaller freshman boy near the bus stop. Which type of
defense mechanism did he use?
d. Displacement
43
43. What is the anticipated course of a disorder called?
c. Prognosis
44
44. What did the Behavioral Model emphasize?
c. The role of learning in human behavior and the importance of studying direct observable
behavior
45
45. What is the term that describes the percentage of people in the population with a disorder at any given
time?
c. Point prevalence
46
46. If a psychologist is looking into the rate of newly diagnosed cases of Schizophrenia from the past year,
which type of statistic would they look into?
b. Incidence
47
47. Cave dwellers used a technique called trephination which involved:
e. using a stone instrument to chip a hole into the person’s skull
48
48. Which of these defines acute onset?
d. The disorder begins suddenly
49
49. Who emphasized the role of social environment and early learning in the development of psychological
disorders and believed that the best treatment for a disorder was rational discussion and humane care?
a. Plato and Aristotle
50
50. What is Psychological Dysfunction?
a. A breakdown in cognitive, emotional or behavioral functioning
51
51. Which follower of the Psychological Tradition believed in “animal magnetism” and treated patients with
magnetized water?
c. Franz Anton Mesmer
52
52. Sally stopped drinking last week, she has started working out twice as hard in the gym to help cope with
her cravings, this is an example of:
d. Sublimation
53
53. A research study was done in order to determine the amount of people that have experienced depression
during their lifetime. This research would be done in order to discover what type of statistic?
c. Lifetime prevalence
54
54. Which researcher of the 1900’s is credited for developing “systematic desensitization”?
c. Wolpe
55
55. Someone laying on a couch in a psychologist’s office, stating any thought that comes to their mind is most
likely engaged in which psychoanalysis technique?
d. Free Association
56
56. Pick the best term that satisfies the definition of “Chronic Course” in relation to a disorder.
b. The disorder tends to last an extended period of time and often lasts a lifetime.
57
57. A disorder that has an insidious onset is:
e. A disorder that develops gradually over an extended period of time
58
58. Who advocated for asylum reforms and better treatment of people with mental disorders during the
Mental Hygiene Movement?
c. Dorothea Dix
59
Olivia has never had any history of struggling with mental disorders, then all of the sudden at age 19 she
experienced a full psychotic break very suddenly. What type of onset is this?
b. Acute onset
60
60. Micah believes that she is abducted by aliens every night and has a microchip implanted into her arm that
the aliens use to track her throughout the day. She has often tried to remove the microchip and tells
people about her experiences in the alien’s ship, causing her to lose her job and many of her friends.
Micah is experiencing a breakdown in ____.
a. Behavior
| c. Cognition
61
61. What theorist believed and taught that fulfilling our basic needs must occur before we can move onto selfactualization?
c. Maslow
62
62. Justin grew up with no signs of any disorders. But, as he grew, his mother began to notice more of a
nervous side of Justin. He began to worry more and more about little things, until it started to control a
majority of his life. He was then diagnosed with an anxiety disorder when he was a teenager. What is the
type of onset did he experienced?
b. Insidious Onset
63
63. Which term best describes the course of a disorder that tends to improve without treatment in a relatively
short time?
a. Time-Limited course
64
64. Which of the following is NOT a required component of the definition of a psychological disorder?
b. Individual’s normal sleep pattern is interrupted
65
1. Which hormone does the pineal gland produce?
d. Melatonin
66
2. Which of the following is an excitatory neurotransmitter that facilitates expression of behaviors and
emotions?
b. Glutamate
67
3. Chemical messages secreted by terminal buttons into synapses are called:
c. Neurotransmitters
68
4. Some biological factors include:
d. Genetic factors, neurotransmitters, brain structure, and function
69
5. Which part of the neuron contains receptors that receive signals?
c. Dendrite
70
6. ___ has the "opposite role" of ___, and ___ transmission of chemical messages.
a. GABA; Glutamate; Inhibits
71
7. Which of the following neuroimaging techniques detect functional abnormalities in the brain?
a. PET Scan
b. SPECT Scan
c. fMRI
72
8. Where do axon terminals release chemical messages?
d. Synapse
73
9. Which hormone produces melatonin which affects sleep patterns and circadian rhythms?
d. Pineal Gland
74
10. Dopamine is associated with pleasure seeking and reward. Overactivity is associated with ___________,
while underactivity appears to be associated with __________.
a. Schizophrenia; Depression
75
11. Which of the following is true about the HPA axis?
a. Exposure to chronic, unpredictable stress during early development can sensitize this system
c. Is implicated in several psychological disorders including depression, anxiety, and PTSD
76
12. Which neurotransmitter facilitates the expression of behaviors and emotions?
b. Glutamate
77
13. What neurotransmitter is responsible for regulating behavior, mood and thought processes?
c. Serotonin
78
14. Which neuroimaging technique detects structural abnormalities?
a. CAT scan
| d. MRI
79
15. Which gland(s) in the endocrine system produces thyroxin which facilitates energy, metabolism and
growth?
a. Thyroid gland
80
16. Hypothyroidism can produce symptoms of which disorder?
c. Depression
81
17. What part of the neuron contains receptors that receive chemical messages?
b. Dendrites
82
18. Which statement is true?
a. No matter how strong a specific genetic predisposition is, it may never be expressed
83
19. What is the function of thyroxin released by the thyroid glands?
d. Facilitation of energy, metabolism, and growth
84
20. Who created the theory of learned helplessness?
c. Martin Seligman
85
21. The thyroid gland produces what hormone?
Thyroxin
86
22. Bandura’s Classic Bobo Doll Experiment was an example of what learning theory?
c. Social Learning Theory
87
23. Which of the following statements is true?
d. Dopamine is associated with reward and pleasure-seeking behaviors.
88
24. James and David were both diagnosed with depression but, were diagnosed for different underlying causal
factors. What term is used to refer to the fact that the same disorder can present itself in different people
for different underlying reasons?
c. Equifinality
89
26. Which of the following are social contributions to mental illness?
a. Neglect/abuse, and maladaptive peer relationships
b. The size and quality of social networks
c. Lower socioeconomic status
d. Social stigma
90
27. Which of the following neurotransmitters regulates a “fight or flight” response?
b. Norepinephrine
91
28. Serotonin is responsible for:
a. regulating behavior, mood, and thought processes
92
29. Which neurotransmitter is primarily associated with exploratory and pleasure-seeking behaviors?
d. Dopamine
93
30. The pituitary gland
c. Is a master gland that regulates other endocrine glands
94
31. Someone is told to walk and avoid different objects laid out. They say they can’t see any objects, but oddly
they don’t run into any of the objects laid out when they walk. What neurological condition are they most
likely suffering from?
c. Blindsight
95
32. All of the following detect functional abnormalities in the brain EXCEPT:
b. MRI
96
33. Which of the following does the HPA Axis produce?
c. Cortisol
97
34. Which of these are involved in the “fight or flight” response?
b. Norepinephrine
98
35. What is the main function of the Pituitary Gland?
a. Master gland which produces regulating hormones. Connected to the hypothalamus
99
36. Which is not a psychological or social contribution of psychological disorders?
b. Genetics
100
37. Which neurotransmitter controls voluntary movements?
a. Dopamine
101
38. Cognitive contributions account for some psychological disorders. However, which specific memory and
attention biases do those with depression tend to exhibit?
c. Attending to and remembering negative information
102
39. Which neurotransmitter(s) do tricyclic antidepressants primarily target?
a. Serotonin
103
40. What is a synapse?
c. The space between the neurons
104
41. Which of the following is NOT a neurotransmitter?
e. Melatonin
105
42. This neurotransmitter is important for regulating behavior, mood, and thought processes; low levels of this
neurotransmitter are associated with instability, aggression, and depression.
c. Serotonin
106
43. Claire has a counting compulsion and has been receiving cognitive behavioral therapy as part of her
treatment. During a session, her therapist scatters a small number of marbles on the table while talking
with her. The therapist then asks Claire to continue the conversation without counting the marbles. This
type of cognitive behavioral therapy is known as _____.
b. Exposure and Response Prevention
107
44. Which neurotransmitter is associated with the inhibition of a variety of behaviors such as anxiety, arousal,
and emotion?
d. GABA
108
45. What is the neurotransmitter norepinephrine responsible for?
d. Increasing heart rate and blood pressure
109
46. Which of the following best describes implicit memory?
c. Previous experiences can influence our behavior without our conscious awareness of those
previous experiences
110
47. The same disorder may present itself in different people for different reasons. The term used to describe
this is:
d. Equifinality
111
1. Which of the following is/are observed during a mental status exam?
a. Thought processes
b. Intellectual functioning
c. Appearance and behavior
d. Sensorium
112
2. During behavioral assessment, people assess the ABCs of behavior. What does ABCs stand for?
e. Antecedents, Behaviors, Consequences
113
3. What approach to classification provides continuums on which people vary from high to low and
involves quantifying an amount?
c. The Dimensional Approach
114
4. During a game of corn hole, your partner repeatedly misses the intended target, but always hit the same
spot of the corn hole board, this is an example of something that is _____
b. Reliable but not valid
115
5. What do we assess during a behavioral assessment?
a. Consequences
b. Behaviors
c. Antecedents
116
6. Reliability means that the instrument measures what it is supposed to measure.
b. False
117
8. What is the goal of behavioral assessment?
c. To discover dysfunctional patterns of behavior that can then become the focus of treatment
118
9. For assessing an American who has a psychological disorder, which classification system is most likely to
be used?
c. DSM 5
119
10. This describes when multiple professionals utilize the same diagnostic measure on the same individual
and get similar results:
b. Inter-rater Reliability
120
11. What type of interview is the Structured Clinical Interview for Diagnosis?
c. Semi-structured interview
121
12. What does it mean when a test is reliable?
a. The test provides consistent results
122
13. Which of the following psychological tests are considered to be reliable and valid?
a. IQ Test
| c. Neuropsychological Tests
123
14. What is the current edition of the DSM?
d. DSM 5
124
15. Dory is experiencing anxious thoughts which prevent her from engaging in her art, her favorite activity,
causing symptoms of depression as well. What type of assessment will most likely be used to assess
her symptoms by a mental health professional?
c. Structured Clinical Interview for DSM (SCID 5); to identify the best diagnosis
125
16. ________ means the technique/measure accurately predicts behavior, while _______ means scores
obtained using the technique/measure correlate with scores on an established measure of the same
construct.
b. Predictive Validity; Concurrent Validity
126
17. Which of the following are NOT an example of a valid and reliable standardized test?
c. Projective Test
127
18. Which is false about the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM)?
a. It is published by the World Health Organization (WHO)
128
19. Which of the following is not assessed using the Mental Status Exam?
d. Reactivity
129
20. Which term is used to refer to an approach that is based heavily on results of research?
b. Empirical
130
21. Which approach has one set of criteria which every member of the category must meet in order to be
classified in that category?
b. Classical/Categorical Approach
131
22. Which of the following can be used to assess brain damage?
c. Neuroimaging techniques
| d. Neuropsychological tests
132
23. Why might a physical examination be used during clinical assessment?
a. It may be necessary to rule out a medical condition or effects of a substance
133
24. Which of the following is NOT suited for assessing structural abnormalities in the brain?
a. Rorschach inkblot test
| b. Stanford-Binet Intelligence test
134
What test uses ambiguous images in an attempt to gain insight into a client’s unconscious thought
processes?
b. Rorschach Inkblot
135
26. Which of the following is a self-report scale used to assess symptoms of OCD?
c. Pauda Inventory
136
27. What are the types of clinical interviews?
b. Unstructured, structured, semi-structured
137
28. When diagnosing an individual, a clinical psychologist will conduct the Structured Clinical Interview
(SCID) for DSM-5. The SCID follows which format of interview?
c. Semi-Structured Interview
138
29. Which approach to classification is most commonly used in the DSM to diagnose psychological
disorders?
a. Prototypical approach
139
30. Which approach to classification of mental disorders acknowledges that disorders can lie on a
spectrum?
c. Dimensional
140
31. What is it called when different people use the same technique or measure on the same person and
acquire consistent results?
d. Inter-rater Reliability
141
32. Which one of these is NOT a part of the mental status exam?
d. Self-report inventories
142
33. Who publishes the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders?
c. American Psychiatric Association
143
34. What are projective tests good for?
d. As ice breakers to get people to open up and start talking
144
35. If a person thinks it is 2005 but it is really 2018, and they are unaware of their name and surroundings
then they are lacking ______________.
e. Sensorium
145
36. Which classification system is currently used in the United States?
c. DSM-5
146
37. What approach provides essential characteristics, but allows for variation in the diagnosis process?
a. Prototypical approach
147
38. In a study on the severity of those diagnosed with depression, an inventory was used to calculate
scores on a numerical scale. Patients had to take the inventory three different times. The results came
in showing greatly differing scores for each trial. The inventory is not _________.
b. Reliable
148
39. Which of the following refers to making sure a test measures what it says it’s going to measure?
b. Validity
149
40. Which of the following is used by clinicians to obtain a global picture of an individual, their
environment, and their symptoms?
a. Clinical assessment
150
41. Which of the following definitions aligns correctly with the prototypical approach to classification?
d. This approach presents essential characteristics/criteria, but allows for variation in symptoms
151
42. Why do we need diagnoses?
a. So that we can properly treat and care for people.
b. Many health insurance companies require a diagnosis in order to reimburse for treatment
expenses.
c. So that we can conduct research to better understand the disorders, the causal factors
152
43. If an IQ test is given to the same participant two separate times and his scores are highly consistent
with one another, then the test has demonstrated good
b. Test-retest reliability
153
44. During the mental status exam Clinical Psychologists evaluate a patient’s __________ by observing
their awareness of their surroundings.
a. Sensorium
154
45. What do clinicians judge when observing appearance and behavior in a mental status exam?
a. Overt behavior
b. Attire
c. Appearance
d. Posture and expressions
155
46. MRI and CAT scans detect ________ abnormalities while PET, fMRI, and SPECT detect _________
abnormalities.
a. structural, functional
156
47. During a Mental Examination what characteristics are assessed?
d. Appearance and Behavior, Thought Processes, Sensorium, Intellectual Functioning, and Mood
and Affect
157
48. During clinical assessment, a clinician notices that a client has been speaking quickly and jumping from
topic to topic with no identifiable connection. What aspect of the mental status exam is this client
exhibiting abnormalities in?
a. Thought processes
158
49. What system(s) are most commonly used for classifying mental disorders?
a. DSM-5
| b. ICD-10
159
50. What are 2 examples of psychological projective tests?
b. Rorschach, Thematic Apperception
160
b. Rorschach, Thematic Apperception
b. Empirical approach
161
52. How is clinical assessment defined?
a. The systematic evaluation and measurement of psychology, biological, and social factors in
an individual presenting with possible psychological disorder.
162
53. What is the main difference between the DSM-5 and the ICD-11?
b. The ICD-11 also includes criteria for physical illnesses.
163
54. The empirical approach relies heavily on:
b. Results of research
164
55. What would be an appropriate test to administer if you suspect that that the cause of a patient’s
condition is brain damage?
b. Neuropsychological tests
| d. Neuroimaging
Studying for upper division psych
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