1
Q
- The DSM 5 criteria for Dissociative Amnesia includes:
A
a. Inability to recall important autobiographical information usually of a traumatic or stressful
nature, that is inconsistent with ordinary forgetting
2
Q
- In which disorder(s) could an individual experience a fugue?
A
b. Dissociative Amnesia
c. Dissociative Identity Disorder
3
Q
- Dissociative amnesia is more likely to occur with
A
a. Greater number of adverse childhood experiences particularly physical and/or sexual abuse
b. Interpersonal violence
c. Increases severity, frequency, and violence of the trauma
4
Q
- The most common type of dissociative amnesia is the inability to recall all events during a specific
period of time and is referred to as ___________
A
a. Localized Amnesia
5
Q
- Which of the following is most likely to show spontaneous remission?
A
b. Dissociative Amnesia
6
Q
- True or False: Women are more likely to experience dissociative amnesia.
A
a. True
7
Q
- An individual who can recall some, but not all, of a traumatic event can be classified as having what
type of dissociative amnesia?
A
d. Selective amnesia
8
Q
- Which of the following defines a subjective experience of feeling detached from oneself?
A
b. Depersonalization
9
Q
- Thad is not able to recall very important personal information, about himself after a very stressful and
traumatic situation. In addition, Thad has also completely forgotten his entire life history and identity,
including where he works, his favorite movie, and his wife. Thad has been experiencing a tremendous
amount of distress, and his inability to recall such information is NOT due to substance use, medical or
neurological illness. What type of dissociative amnesia is Thad experiencing?
A
b. Generalized Amnesia
10
Q
- What percentage of people experience depersonalization/derealization disorder?
A
c. 2%
11
Q
- What percent of adults have experienced depersonalization/derealization at least once?
A
c. 50%
12
Q
- Which type of dissociative amnesia involves an individual having a complete loss of memory of their
entire life history including their own identity?
A
c. Generalized amnesia
13
Q
- Someone who can recall some but not all parts of a traumatic event/experience would be experiencing
what type of dissociative amnesia?
A
b. Selective Amnesia
14
Q
- Dissociative identity disorder was previously known as __________.
A
c. Multiple personality disorder
15
Q
- Which of the following best describes localized amnesia?
A
d. The individual fails to recall all events that occurred during only a certain period of time
16
Q
- Which medications are used in treatment of Dissociative Amnesia?
A
a. Benzodiazepines
b. Sodium amobarbital
17
Q
- Charles witnessed the accidental death of a close friend three months ago while mountain climbing.
Two months after the event occurred, a friend inquired as to how he was holding up, to which Charles
reacted with confusion. After further conversation regarding the event, it became clear that Charles
had no recollection of the trip at all. Charles appears to be experiencing:
A
c. Localized amnesia
18
Q
- Which type of amnesia includes losing both semantic and procedural knowledge?
A
b. Generalized Amnesia
19
Q
- What is the difference between depersonalization and derealization?
A
d. Depersonalization is a detachment from oneself, Derealization is detachment from the world
20
Q
- Which of the following is considered a symptom of derealization?
A
a. Feeling unfamiliar with one’s surroundings
c. Feeling the environment is distorted or blurry
21
Q
- What is true about Depersonalization/Derealization Disorder?
A
a. 1/3 of the people have waxing and waning episodes
b. 1/3 have continuous symptoms from their onset
c. 1/3 have an episodic course that progresses to continuous
22
Q
- What is the sex ratio for depersonalization/derealization disorder?
A
b. 1:1
23
Q
- How many identities do women with dissociative identity disorder have on average?
A
c. 15
24
Q
- Which of the following best describes selective amnesia?
A
b. The individual can recall some, but not all, of the details during a specific time period
25
25. Which of the following is NOT true for depersonalization/derealization disorder?
d. There is a presence of persistent or recurrent experiences of depersonalization, derealization,
but not both
26
26. Sarah was in a tragic car accident. She remembers the car spinning out of control and the ambulance
showing up to the scene, but she does not remember any other details of the event. What type of
dissociative amnesia is she experiencing?
c. Selective amnesia
27
27. Which of the following disorders includes the criteria that the individual has recurrent gaps in the recall
of everyday events (e.g., not remembering going to the grocery store).
a. Dissociative Identity Disorder
28
28. Which of the following is not a type of amnesia associated with dissociative amnesia?
a. Selective Amnesia
b. Dissociative Fugue
c. Generalized Amnesia
d. Localized Amnesia
29
29. Which of the following is a treatment method for Dissociative Amnesia?
a. Benzodiazepines
| b. Sodium amobarbital
30
30. Marybeth feels like the world around her feels unfamiliar. She claims to always be in a fog and the
place around her seem artificial and lifeless. Marybeth may be experiencing
c. Derealization
31
31. A subjective experience of unreality of the external world is called _________, whereas a subjective
experience of feeling detached from oneself is called ___________.
d. Derealization, Depersonalization
32
32. Which of the following is TRUE about Depersonalization or Derealization episodes?
a. About 50% of all adults have experienced at least one transient episode of depersonalization or
Derealization
b. Episodes can be triggered by stress, over-stimulating environments or lack of sleep
c. Drugs like cannabis, mushrooms, LSD, ecstasy and even alcohol can cause these experiences
33
33. After attending a concert with his friends, Raymond never returned back to his friends after using the
restroom. His friends searched all-night looking for him and had to call the police. When he was finally
identified two weeks later in a different state after “fleeing,” Raymond forgot most of his personal
information and the whole event. Raymond would most likely be identified with having which type of
dissociative amnesia?
a. Dissociative amnesia with fugue
34
34. Episodes of Depersonalization/Derealization Disorder can be triggered by all of the following except:
a. Stress
| b. Too much sleep
35
35. Which of the following is NOT part of the DSM 5 summary criteria for depersonalization/derealization
disorder?
a. The presence of persistent or recurrent experiences of depersonalization, derealization, or both
b. The symptoms cause clinically significant distress or impairment in social, occupational, or other
important areas of functioning
c. Suicidal ideation must have occurred when experiencing depersonalization, and or
derealization
36
36. Which Dissociative disorder is most common in women?
b. Dissociative Amnesia
| c. Dissociative Identity Disorder
37
37. Which of the following is a “truth serum” used to facilitate recovery of repressed memories?
a. Sodium Amobarbital
38
38. Derealization is defined as a _____________.
c. subjective experience of unreality of the external world
39
39. Which of the following is NOT a recommended treatment approach for dissociative amnesia disorder?
e. Electroconvulsive therapy
40
1. What type of delusion involves beliefs that people, organizations or other external forces are trying to
do one harm or obstruct one’s goals?
c. Persecutory
41
2. What type of delusion involves the belief that a loved one has been replaced by an imposter?
c. Capgras Delusion
42
3. To diagnose a person with schizophrenia the client needs to have a total duration of symptoms for at
least _____, while Schizophreniform Disorder requires at least ____ of symptoms.
d. 6 months, 1 month
43
4. Delusional beliefs that one’s thoughts/feelings/actions are controlled by others is referred to as….
d. Delusions of control
44
5. Which of the following is NOT a catatonic behavior?
a. Derailment
45
6. What are the two main differences between schizophrenia and schizophreniform disorder?
a. Duration and impairment in functioning
46
7. Which type of hallucinations are most common?
c. Auditory
47
8. Which of the following is an example of a negative symptom?
a. Affective Flattening
b. Alogia
c. Anhedonia
d. Asociality
48
9. Brad believes that he is actually dead and does not exist. What type of delusion is Brad experiencing?
c. Cotard Delusion
49
10. Someone diagnosed with Schizophrenia who believes that a terrorist attack was targeted at them
specifically, has what kind of delusion?
c. Delusions of reference
50
11. Which is not a type of delusion?
c. Delusions of power
51
12. What is the most common type of delusion?
d. Delusions of persecution
52
5. Which of the following best describes grandiose delusions?
b. Belief that one is famous, wealthy, omnipotent (all knowing), has special abilities, or is
otherwise very powerful
53
6. Which of the following is not a specifier of Delusional Disorder?
d. Bipolar Type
54
7. Which of the following are specifiers for Schizoaffective Disorder?
a. Bipolar Type
| b. Depressive Type
55
8. According to the Dopamine Theory _________ is implicated in schizophrenia.
b. an excess of dopamine
56
9. The following are negative symptoms in criterion A for schizophrenia except …
d. Echolalia
57
10. Which of the following best describes delusions of control?
c. beliefs that their thoughts/feelings/actions are controlled by others
58
11. The onset of schizophrenia typically occurs between ___ with the disorder occurring slightly earlier for
_____.
b. Late teens-Mid 30’s, Males
59
12. Susie and Ann are identical twins. If Susie is diagnosed with schizophrenia, what is the chance Ann will
develop schizophrenia in her lifetime?
b. 50%
60
13. What are delusions of thought broadcasting?
c. Beliefs that one’s thoughts are transparent and everyone knows what they are thinking
61
14. What is the best diagnosis for a patient with delusions, negative symptoms, and catatonic behavior
that started occurring 3 months ago?
c. schizophreniform disorder (provisional)
62
15. What is true of schizophrenia?
b. Drugs and alcohol can trigger schizophrenia in those with a genetic predisposition
d. In order to be diagnosed with schizophrenia an individual must have signs of disturbance for at
least 6 months
63
16. Which psychotic disorder fits the criterion that the person must have mood episodes that last for most
of the total duration of the disturbance?
a. Schizoaffective Disorder
64
17. James is afraid that the FBI will take him away from his home even though he hasn’t done anything
wrong. He also believes that they have bugged his house to try to catch him doing something wrong.
What type of delusions is James experiencing?
c. Delusions of persecution
65
18. Susan believes that she is reincarnation of Jesus Christ himself. What kind of delusion is Susan
experiencing?
c. Delusions of grandeur
66
19. Which of the following is not a delusion?
e. Delusions of derailment
67
20. Mark is a 24-year-old gamer who tends to play horror games despite the fact that he is terrified by
them. His favorite game is Five Nights at Freddy’s. Lately he has been seeing characters from the game
in his bedroom as well as hearing noises and seeing glowing eyes from dark places. These
hallucinations have become so intense that Mark believes that someone or something is out to kill him.
In order to protect himself, Mark plays said horror game because he thinks that how he plays in the
game directly impacts what happens in real life. Based on what he is experiencing, which symptoms
is/are Mark experiencing?
a. Delusions of Persecution
b. Visual Hallucinations
c. Auditory Hallucinations
68
21. Which of the following is a myth related to Schizophrenia?
d. People with Schizophrenia are dangerous and violent
69
22. The erotomanic type specifier for delusional disorder refers to…
b. Believing another person is in love with them
70
23. Which of the following best defines delusions?
a. Fixed false beliefs that are not amenable to change in light of conflicting evidence.
71
24. Echolalia is defined as…
b. Mimicking the speech of others
72
25. Echopraxia is defined as…
c. Mimicking the movements of others
73
26. Who experiences a higher prevalence of Brief Psychotic Disorder?
a. Woman
74
27. What does Alogia mean?
b. Diminished speech output
75
28. The average age of onset for brief psychotic disorder is ________.
d. Mid 30s
76
29. The duration of a Brief Psychotic Disorder is…
b. At least 1 day but less than 1 month.
77
30. Which of the following is NOT considered a negative symptom of schizophrenia?
d. Echolalia
78
31. An individual who thinks that their school is doing everything in its power to get them to fail is likely
experiencing a delusion of ________.
a. persecution
79
32. Which negative symptom of schizophrenia is defined by a lack of motivation to pursue goal-directed
behavior?
e. Avolition
80
33. What part(s) of the body does tardive dyskinesia affect?
b. Mouth
| c. Neck
81
34. Which of the following best defines delusions of control?
c. A person who believes their thoughts/feelings/actions are controlled by others.
82
35. Which of the following describes delusions of thought withdrawal?
c. Belief that one’s thoughts have been removed by some outside force
83
36. The depressive type of schizoaffective disorder is diagnosed ______, while the bipolar type appears to
be diagnosed ______.
a. more in females; equally between genders
84
37. What symptoms are believed to be associated with hypofrontality?
c. Negative Symptoms
85
38. Schizophreniform disorder does NOT require ____ for diagnosis, although it may be present.
d. Impairment in functioning
86
39. Which of the following is NOT a type of catatonic behavior?
b. Avolition
87
40. Which of the following scenarios is an example of Delusional Disorder with a specifier of Persecutory
type?
c. The individual believes that their mother who makes homecooked meals for them every day
is secretly poisoning them
88
41. Sally has been experiencing hallucinations, disorganized speech, and delusions for 3 months with no
mood episodes during active stages. Sally should most likely be diagnosed with:
d. Schizophreniform Disorder (provisional)
89
42. Which of the following are full blown symptoms that must be present for at least one month and cause
significant impairment in order to be used in the diagnosis of schizophrenia?
c. Active phase symptoms
90
43. If one fraternal twin develops schizophrenia, there is roughly what percentage chance the other will
develop it as well at some point in their lifetime?
e. 20%
91
44. What are the roots of the term schizophrenia?
c. Split mind
92
45. Which of the following is a main difference between schizophrenia and schizophreniform disorder?
b. Schizophrenia must last a minimum of 6 months, while schizophreniform disorder cannot last
more than 6 months.
c. Impairment in functioning is a requirement for a diagnosis of schizophrenia, but not for
schizophreniform disorder.
93
1. June has been a loner all her life with no desire to go to family functions or have an intimate
relationship. She spends the majority of her days alone at home working on her computer. At her
workplace, she disregards the praises of her co-workers and is described as detached and cold. She
also lacks an interest in having close friends and prefers solitary activities. This has caused her
significant impairment in functioning. What disorder best describes her symptoms?
d. Schizoid Personality Disorder
94
2. Which of the following is a symptoms of schizotypal personality disorder?
d. Ideas of reference
95
3. Which of the following involves a pattern of distrust and suspiciousness such that others’ motives are
interpreted as malevolent?
a. Paranoid Personality Disorder
96
4. A consistent pattern of disregard for, and violation of, the rights of others is the defining characteristic
of what personality disorder?
b. Antisocial Personality Disorder
97
5. Which of the following is a key characteristic of borderline personality disorder?
d. Unstable and/or intense relationships
98
6. Which cluster of personality disorders is described as dramatic, emotional, or erratic?
b. Cluster B
99
7. According to the general criteria for personality disorders, the defining characteristic of these disorders
is an enduring pattern of inner experience and behavior that deviate markedly from the expectations
of the individual’s culture. This pattern must be manifested in at least two of which of the following
areas?
a. Cognition
b. Affectivity
c. Interpersonal functioning
d. Impulse control
100
8. What is/are the primary trait(s) associated with Histrionic Personality Disorder
a. Extraversion
| c. Neuroticism
101
9. Paranoid personality disorder falls under which cluster?
a. Cluster A
102
10. Chad believes that he is very “special” and that only the elite can understand his lifestyle. As such he
only associates with elite people. When communicating with others, Chad does not recognize their
feelings and he believes that his feelings and priorities are more important. Assuming he experiences
impairment in functioning, which of the following personality disorders is most appropriate for Chad?
d. Narcissistic Personality Disorder
103
11. Tom is displaying a constant pattern of avoidance from social relationships, is not interested in these
relationships, appears indifferent to criticism, and is also showing a limited range of emotion within
social relationships. What disorder is he most likely demonstrating?
b. Schizoid Personality Disorder
104
12. Cluster A is characterized as _________.
a. Odd/eccentric
105
13. “A pervasive pattern of disregard for and violation of the rights of others, occurring since age 15” is the
defining criteria for which personality disorder?
a. Antisocial Personality Disorder
106
14. Which of the following personality disorders does NOT fit under Cluster B?
b. Avoidant personality disorder
107
15. Which of the following is not true of antisocial personality disorder (ASPD)?
c. Females are diagnosed with ASPD more frequently than males
108
16. What personality disorder cluster is described as anxious or fearful?
b. Cluster C
109
17. Individuals with schizoid personality disorder ____________.
d. Are typically indifferent to both criticisms and praise by others
110
18. A pattern of instability in interpersonal relationships, self-image, and affect, and marked impulsivity is
the defining criteria for ____________.
e. Borderline personality disorder
111
19. How are Cluster A personality disorders characterized?
c. Odd, eccentric
112
20. Which of the following options is defined by “A pattern of excessive emotionality and attention
seeking?”
a. Histrionic Personality disorder
113
21. Which of the following is the defining criterion for schizotypal personality disorder?
b. A pattern of acute discomfort in close relationships, cognitive or perceptual distortions, and
eccentricities of behavior
114
22. A pattern of grandiosity, need for admiration and lack of empathy is involved in which personality
disorder?
b. Narcissist personality disorder
115
23. All of the following disorders are part of Cluster A except:
d. Borderline Personality Disorder
116
24. Which of the following describes Schizoid Personality Disorder?
a. A pattern of detachment from social relationships and a restricted range of emotional
expression
117
25. Which of the following are defining characteristics of Cluster C personality disorders?
b. Anxious and fearful
118
26. Which of the following are NOT true in terms of Antisocial Personality Disorder?
d. It is a construct used more by the criminal justice system than by mental health professionals
119
27. Which of the following patterns best characterize individuals with borderline personality disorder?
c. Instability in interpersonal relationships, self-image, and marked impulsivity
120
28. Cluster A personality disorders are described as odd/eccentric; what personality disorders belong in
this group?
b. Paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal personality disorders
121
29. Which of the following does not belong in Cluster B?
d. Dependent Personality Disorder
122
30. Which of the following is NOT part of the general criteria for personality disorders?
b. The pattern occurs only in certain situations
123
31. What are personality traits?
a. Enduring patterns of perceiving, relating to, and thinking about the environment and oneself
that are exhibited in a wide range of social and personal contexts.
124
32. What is one of the differences between Schizoid Personality Disorder and Avoidant Personality
Disorder (APD)?
a. Those with APD desire affection and acceptance and fantasize about relationships with
others while those with Schizoid Personality Disorder do not
125
33. Which of the following best describes the genetic contributions to Paranoid Personality Disorder?
b. Paranoid personality disorder is slightly more common in relatives of individuals with
schizophrenia and in relatives of individuals with delusional disorder persecutory type
126
34. Which of the following best characterizes the defining criterion for antisocial personality disorder?
c. A pattern of disregard for, and violation of, the rights of others
127
35. What disorder involves social anxiety and avoidance due to feelings of inadequacy and increased
sensitivity to negative evaluations?
b. Avoidant personality disorder
128
36. Which statement is correct?
b. To receive a diagnosis of a personality disorder, the individual must meet all of the general
criteria for a personality disorder in addition to all of the criteria for a specific personality
disorder
129
37. Paranoid personality disorder is characterized by _________.
a. A severe distrust or suspicion of others
130
38. Which of the following is not a Cluster A or Cluster B personality disorder?
b. Avoidant personality disorder
131
39. Which of the following is NOT a cluster B personality disorder?
c. Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder
132
40. Which of these personality disorders belongs in Cluster B?
a. Borderline Personality Disorder
| b. Antisocial Personality disorder
133
41. Which personality disorder(s) is/are marked by avoidance of social activities due to fears of being
rejected, criticized, or ridiculed of inadequacies?
a. Avoidant Personality Disorder
134
42. True or False: in order to receive a diagnosis of a personality disorder the individual must meet all
general criteria AND all criteria for a specific personality disorder.
TRUE
135
43. Which of the following is/are contributing factors for Paranoid Personality Disorder?
a. Dysfunctional beliefs taught by parental figures
| c. Parental neglect or abuse
136
44. How are cluster B personality disorders characterized?
c. Dramatic, emotional, or erratic
137
45. Which is NOT part of the general criteria for personality disorders?
c. The pattern is stable and of short duration, and its onset can be traced back at least 6 months
138
46. Which cluster of personality disorders overlaps most with symptoms of anxiety?
c. Cluster C
Studying for upper division psych
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