Exam Questions Flashcards by Bria Thompson

The endocrine gland that is nicknamed the “master gland”

pituitary, but really should be hypothalamus because it controls pituitary

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The primary reproductive structure in the female

ovary

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The mesentery that divides the liver into left and right lobes is the

falciform ligament

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The finger-like processes at the ovary end of the uterine tube

fimbriae

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The opening onto the interior of the kidney (allows blood vessels and other structures to enter and exit the kidney)

hilum / hilus

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What are the clusters of lymph nodes in the ileum called

peyer’s patches

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The rhythmic contractions of the muscularis externa that propel “food” along the digestive tract are called

peristalsis

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In which specific region of the digestive system does the majority of chemical digestion occur

small intestine - most in duodenum (90%), some in jejunum

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The highly twisted portion of the nephron that originates from the renal corpuscle and is the site where the greatest proportion of reabsorption occurs is the

proximal convoluted tubule

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The part of the pituitary gland that is made from neural tissue

posterior pituitary

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The structure formed by the ductus deferens, testicular blood vessels, nerves and muscles is the

spermatic cord

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The portion of the adrenal gland that is derived from nervous tissue and is under the direct control of (is actually part of) the sympathetic autonomic division of the nervous system is the

adrenal medulla

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The chemicals that are secreted by endocrine glands are called

hormones

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Both the urinary bladder and the stomach have rugae.

True

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The pyramids and renal columns are part of the medulla of the kidney.

True

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The pyloric sphincter is located at the junction of the ileum and the large intestine.

False - between stomach and duodenum

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The majority of chemical digestion (breaking of chemical bonds) occurs in the duodenum.

True

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The penis can be accurately described as the ‘primary’ reproductive structure in the male.

False - testis

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Blood flows towards the renal corpuscle in this specific blood vessel.

afferent arteriole

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Which of the following is/are functions of the ‘primary’ reproductive structures?

production of gametes
production of sex hormones

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The cell type in the testis that produces testosterone is the:

Leydig cell

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The tube that drains urine from the kidney to the bladder:

ureter

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Sperm are produced in microscopic tubules in the Testis. The tubules are called:

seminiferous tubules

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The kidneys are located behind the peritoneal membrane, this position is described as:

retropertoneal

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Following ovulation, the follicle remaining in the ovary is reconfigured and becomes the:

corpus luteum

The microscopic tubule that is the primary functional unit of the kidney is called the:

nephron

The fenestrated capillaries in the kidney that leak and thus are involved in filtration:

glomerular capillaries

# true or false? Olfactory receptors are examples of chemoreceptors.

True

# True / False The dura mater lies against the bone within the cranium, but not within the spinal column.

True

# True / False The cornea and iris are both part of the fibrous tunic of the eye.

False - part of the vascular tunic

# True / False The 3rd, 4th and 6th cranial nerves are all sensory nerves.

False - they are motor nerves. CN III - oculomotor CN IV - trochlear CN VI - abducens

# True / False Sensory receptors that respond to taste and smell are classified as chemoreceptors.

True

The deep fold of dura mater that lies in the transverse fissure (forming a 'tent' over the cerebellum)

is the tentorium cerebelli.

The spinal nerve root that contains only sensory neurons

is the dorsal root.

Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is produced in the ventricles by

the choroid plexus.

The mesencephalic aqueduct passes through which region of the brainstem

Midbrain.

The 'muscle' in the eye that controls the diameter of the pupil is the

iris.

The cone shaped tip of the spinal cord (at L1-L2) is called

conus medullaris.

The innermost of the meninges that lies directly against the surface of the central nervous system is the:

pia mater.

In general, the receptive structure of all sensory receptors are made of which part of a neuron

dendrites.

The name of the 10th cranial nerve

Vagus.

Aqueous humor flows through the anterior cavity and eventually drains out of the eye through the

canal of Schlemm.

Collections of cell bodies within the peripheral nervous system form grey masses called:

Ganglia

The type of fluid found specifically inside the bone membranous labyrinth of the inner ear is:

Endolymph

In general, sensory receptors are associated with which part of a neuron:

Dendrites

The deep fold of dura mater that lies between the cerebral hemispheres and the cerebellum (in the transverse fissure) is called the:

Tentorum Cerebelli

The cranial nerve that innervates the superior rectus muscle of the eye, and is thus responsible for looking:

CN III - Oculomolor

The outermost and toughest meningeal membrane that encloses the entire central nervous system is the:

Dura Mater

Name the space inside of the eye where the gel-like vitreous humor is located:

Posterior Cavity

The specific division of the autonomic nervous system that is responsible for 'fight or flight' response is:

Sympathetic Autonomic Nervous System

The passageway connecting the third and the fourth ventricles is the:

Mesencephalic Aqueduct

A slender strand of pia mater that forms the most inferior extension from the spinal cord and anchors it to the sacral region is the:

Filum Terminale

The watery fluid inside the anterior cavity of the eye drains out of the eye via a 'drain' at the perimeter of the cornea called the:

Canal of Schlemm

Damage to which spinal nerve root would result in afferent stimuli - loss of sensation (aka numbness):

Dorsal Root

The tapered, conical end of the spinal cord located ~ inferior to the lumbar enlargement is called:

Conus Medularis

The cells responsible for producing myelin in the PNS:

Schwann Cells

Which of the 3 ossicles is attached to the oval window of the inner ear:

Stapes

Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is produced by vascular tissue within the ventricles of the brain called:

Choroid Plexus

The longest muscle in the body is the

sartorius

The microscopic functional unit of the muscle cell that extends from Z line to Z line is called

Sarcomere

What action would you expect for muscle that inserts onto the posterior surface of the tibia and originates from the posterior femur

flexion of the leg at the knee

Contraction of the gastrocnemius muscle allows you to stand on your toes. This movement of the ankle is called

plantarflexion

What muscle is missing in 10% (or more) of the population

palmaris longus

Which muscle is sometimes called the 'tailors muscle' because its action results in crossing of the legs

sartorius

The lateral rectus muscle of the eye is innervated by

CN VI Abducens

Flat broad sheets of connective tissue that attach muscles to bones are called

aponeurosis

What cellular structure is abundant in single-unit visceral muscle but not multi-unit visceral muscle

gap junctions

The principle action of the brachialis muscle is

flexion of forearm at the elbow

Where (on which side of the joint - i.e. anterior, posterior...) would you expect to find muscles that hyper-extend the head

posterior

Which one of the four quadriceps muscles can produce hip flexion in addition to knee extension

rectus femoris

Identify the insertion of the quadriceps muscles (must be complete for credit)

Indirectly via the patellar tendon to the patellare ligament containing the patella to the tibial tuberosity

# True / False The transverse tubule is structurally and functionally continuous with the sarcolemma.

True

The sarcolemma is:

the plasma membrane of muscle cells.

The thin contractile proteins (aka thin filaments) are made of:

actin & troponin & tropomyosin.

The action of the latissimus dorsi muscle:

extends the arm at the shoulder adducts the arm at the shoulder medially rotates the arm at the shoulder

What type of action would be produced by a muscle anterior to the knee that is attached to bones proximal and distal to the knee:

EXTENSION of the leg at the knee

The thick myofilaments are made of this type of protein:

MYOSIN.

The longest muscle in the body:

sartorius

Which of the quadriceps muscles is able to flex the thigh at the hip in addition to extending the leg at the knee:

RECTUS FEMORIS.

What is the action of the Levator Scapulae:

ELEVATE SCAPULA.

What is the Insertion of the Biceps Brachii:

RADIAL TUBEROSITY.

What is the action of the Internal intercostals:

Depression of the ribs - exhalation

What is the insertion of the Temporalis:

CORONOID PROCESS OF MANDIBLE.

What is the action of the Soleus:

PLANTAR FLEXION.

What is the insertion of the Pectoralis minor:

CORACOID PROCESS OF SCAPULA.

# True / False The inferior edge of a rib is typically sharper than the superior edge and can be distinguished by the presence of a costal groove that creates the sharper edge.

True

# True / False The first cervical vertebra (CI) is the only vertebra that does not have a vertebral body.

True - ATLAS

# True / False All of the ribs articulate with the body of the sternum.

False. Floating Ribs - NO, 1st Rib - Manubrium

# True / False In hyoid bone is the only bone in the body that does not articulate with any other bones.

True

# True / False The only direct bone to bone connection between the pectoral limb and the axial skeleton is the joint between the clavicle and the manubrium.

True

Which of the following best describes what passes through the superior orbital fissure:

CN III oculomotor CN IV trochlear CN V-1 opthalmic CN VI abducens

The nerve (CN V-3) that passes through the foramen ovale also passes through the

mandibular foramen

The bone of the cranial vault that is sometimes called the "keystone" because it articulates with all of the other bones of the cranial vault is the:

sphenoid

All twelve thoracic vertebrae:

articulate with the ribs have costal facets

The posterior one-third of the hard palate is formed from which of the following bones:

palatine anterior 2/3 from the palatine plate of maxilla

Which of the following bones form the bony part of the nasal septum:

vomer + perpendicular plate of ethmoid

Which of the following bones DOES NOT form part of the bony orbit protecting the eye:

nasal Bony Orbit - 7 bones: frontal, maxillary, sphenoid, ethmoid, lacrimal, palatine, zygomatic

The landmark structure of the sphenoid bone that can be described as the "saddle" for the pituitary gland is the:

sella turcica

The name of the second cervical vertebra (C2):

AXIS (C1 = atlas)

The fluid inside the joint cavity of a freely moveable joint:

Synovial fluid

The lambdoidal suture is located between the parietal bone and the

occipital

The epidermis is ___ to the hypodermis.

superficial

The category of glands that DO NOT secrete their products into a duct (aka are ductless) are collectively called:

ENDOCRINE glands

The cell layer in the epidermis that is composed of actively dividing cells:

Stratum germinativum/basale

The index finger is ___ to the middle finger.

lateral.

The reticular portion/layer of the dermis is composed of:

dense regular CT

The superficial 'dead' layer/stratum of the skin is called the:

stratum corneum

The specific & most common cell type making up the epidermis is the:

keratinocyte

The layer (made of loose connective tissue) that lies just below the skin and loosely connects the skin to underlying structures is the:

subcutaneous / hypodermis

The elbow is ___ to the wrist.

proximal

The protein produced by 'skin' cells that makes them tough:

keratin

The type of section that separates the body into equal right and left halves is called:

mid sagittal

When skin cells are shed individually, rather than in the usual large sheets, it can be hypothesized that the ___ which holds them together might have broken down.

desmosomes

The ribs are ___ to the skin.

deep

Tendons and ligaments are composed of ___ connective tissue, which contains tightly packed collagen fibers aligned parallel to applied forces.

dense regular CT

The cells that are responsible for the production of the brown pigmentation in the skin:

melanocytes

Cells with high energy demands would be expected to have lots of:

mitochondria.

# True / False Body structures that are found “towards the front” can be described as superior.

False

# True / False The knee is distal to the ankle

False

# True / False Ventral means towards the front or belly.

True

# True / False Endocytosis is an enerty-requiring process where vesicles are packaged with extracellular material for importation into the cell.

True

# True/False Cilia and flagella are able to actively move while microvilli cannot move themselves

True

# True / False Blood vessels are not found within epithelial tissues

True

# True / False Epithelial tissue with multiple layers of cells are called simple epithelium.

False

An epithelium always has an exposed surface, which is referred to as the ________ surface.

Apical

The space in the thoracic cavity that is not enclosed by a membrane:

Mediastinum

Which of the following describes an epithelial tissue that is many cell layers thick with square shaped cells at the basal surface and flattened cells at the free (aka apical) surface:

Strafitied Squamous

The membrane that encloses the organs and lines the body wall within the abdominopelvic cavity:

peritoneal membrane

The body cavity that encloses the brain is the:

Dorsal cavity

The only sectional plane that divides the body into mirror image halves.

Midsagittal

The palm is _____ to the back of the hand

The sectional plane that divides the body into anterior and posterior halves.

Coronal Frontal

Which of the following is a function of membrane protein?

recognition attachment enzyme receptor transport

Identify the epithelial tissue

ciliated pseudostratified columnar ET

Identify the illustrated epithelial tissue

keratinized stratified squamous ET

Identify the illustrated epithelial tissue

simple cuboidal ET

The organelle responsible for synthesis of lipids (and may also be used for storing ions) is:

Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

Cells that use a lot of energy (like muscle cells) would be expected to have many of this organelle:

mitochondria

Release of the contents of a vesicle outside the cell membrane is:

exocytosis

# True / False Cells are too small to be considered 'alive'.

False

The molecule type responsible for all cellular activity (i.e. movement., synthesis...) is:

Protein

Proteins in the cell membrane function as:

gated channels active pumps leak channels

# True / False Microvilli increase the surface area of a cell.

True

Cell membranes are primarily made of a double layer of:

Phospholipids

The cell organelle that is responsible for producing the microtubular proteins that are used to generate movement in the cell:

Centrosome

# True / False The three major components of connective tissues are cells, ground substance, and protein fibers.

True

Which epithelial tissue is many cell layers thick with square-shaped cells at the basal surface and flattened cells at the free (apical) surface:

Stratified Squamous

# True / False The walls of blood vessels are lined with epithelial tissue.

True

# True / False Epithelial tissues are found as coverings and linings in the body.

True

# True / False Epithelial tissues have abundant blood vessels.

False

What tissue type is shown?

Areolar CT

What tissue type is shown?

simple cuboidal ET

What tissue type is shown in the top half of the image?

simple columnar ET

What cell type(s) are found in D

keratinocytes langerhans cells

Which of the following is true regarding the layer just below the skin, connecting the cutaneous membrane to underlying structures:

called the subcutaneous layer called the hypodermis it is often describe in the context of the skin, but it is not part of the skin composed largely of areolar and variable amounts of adipose connective tissues

Which of the following describe thick skin:

thickness is a property of stress placed on the skin (triggering growth that produces thickening) is commonly found on the palms of the hands and soles of the feet contains a visible stratum lucidum is characterized by a thicker keratin layer

The portion of a serous membrane that is in contact with the organ that the membrane surrounds is the:

Visceral

Describe these positions:

A - prone B - supine

Which of the following correctly describes the cell membrane?

* Selectively permeable * Made primarily of fat and protein * Is the only cellular structure that is required for a cell to exist

Because the plasma membrane restricts some substances and permits others through, it is referred to as being ________.

selectively permeable

Substances that move across the cell membrane usually do so by moving through the ________.

transmembrane proteins

the general functions of the plasma membrane include:

* physical isolation of the cell contents from the surrounding extracellular fluid * regulation of exchange of materials with the extracellular fluid * chemical differentiation of the cell contents from the surrounding extracellular fluid

Which of the following describes phospholipids in the plasma membrane?

* The phospholipid tails are hydrophobic * The phospholipid heads are on the outside

which component influences the fluidity of the membrane?

A - cholesterol

Which component forms the foundational structure of all cellular membranes

G - phospholipid

Which component is only found on the outside surface and contributes to cell to cell recognition?

C & D - glycoprotein, glycolipid

Which functions as a selective transporter for movement across the membrane?

F - Protein

What is A?

cholesterol

What is B

peripheral membrane protein

What is C

glycoprotein

What is D

glycolipid

What is E

transmembrane protein

The cellular organelle responsible for the assembly of microtubules:

centrosome

Cells, like muscle cells, that require a high quantity of energy to carry out their function, would be expected to have a lot of:

mitochondria

Which of the following is a non-membranous organelle (i.e. "free" organelle)?

centrosome free ribosome

Which of the following have a double membrane

nucleus mitochondria

Identify the organelle

mitochondria

The cellular organelle responsible for the aerobic production of ATP is the:

mitochondria

Ribosomes are responsible for

protein synthesis

Identify the organelle

Golgi apparatus

An epithelial tissue composed of a single layer of cells called:

simple

Identify the tissue type

unkeratinized stratified squamous ET

Identify the tissue type

simple squamous ET

Identify the tissue type

transitional ET

Identify the tissue type:

simple columnar ET

Identify the tissue type

ciliated pseudostratified columnar ET

Identify the tissue type

keratinized stratified squamous ET

Identify the tissue type:

simple cuboidal ET

The iris diaphragm on the microscope is used to adjust

the amount of light (brightness)

Identify the tissue type

Unkeratinized Stratified Squamous ET

Identify the tissue type

Transitional ET

Identify the tissue type

Simple Columnar ET

Identify the tissue type

ciliated pseudostratified columnar ET

Identify the tissue type

Keratinized Stratified Squamous ET

Identify the tissue type

simple cuboidal ET

What is “the smallest structural and functional unit of all living things”?

The cell

The only type of connective tissue where the cells are tightly packed together and the interstitial space is not visible:

Adipose CT

Identify the tissue type

Areolar CT

Identify the tissue type

Hyaline cartilage CT

Identify the tissue type

Dense Regular CT

Identify the tissue type

Elastic Cartilage CT

Identify the tissue type

Skeletal MT

Identify the tissue type

Visceral (smooth) MT

Identify the tissue type

neural tissue

Identify the tissue type

Areolar CT

Identify the tissue type

Elastic Cartilage CT

Which stratum is only seen in thick skin?

Stratum Lucidum

The general name for the cells in connective tissues that make the extracellular matrix?

fibroblasts

What is the name of dominant “cell” making up the skin (cell is in all strata).

keratinocyte

Identify the tissue type

Adipose CT

Identify the tissue type

cardiac MT

Identify the tissue type

Ciliated pseudostratified columnar ET

What are the layers

A - Stratum Corneum B - Stratum Lucidum C - Stratum Granulosum D - Stratum Spinosum E - Stratum Germinativum

Identify the layer B

reticular layer of the dermis

what cell types are in layer D

keratinocytes and melanocytes

which stratum is not visible?

stratum lucidum

The periosteum ________.

covers the outside of bones

The surface of all bones is composed of ________.

compact bone

Name A, B, C

A - osteonic canal B - osteon C - lacunae

Identify the region A

epiphysis

Identify the type of bone D

compact cortical

The flat bones of the skull (i.e. parietal bones) form via ________ ossification.

intramembranous

Which of the following occurs during endochondral bone formation?

* capillaries and osteoblasts migrate into the heart of the cartilage * osteoclasts erode the center of the new bone to form a marrow cavity * the matrix of the cartilage model becomes calcified * cells of the perichondrium differentiate into osteoblasts

During appositional bone growth additional bone matrix is added to the outside of the bone by _____ , while the inside of the bone is removed by _____.

osteoblasts - add bone osteoclasts - remove bone

Bone growth and development is stimulated by:

* sex hormones * parathyroid hormone * growth hormone * Physical Stress

What are A, B, C

A - cortical / compact bone B - cancellous / spongy bone C - epiphysial line

A shallow depression on the surface of a bone is called a ________.

fossa

Which of the following can be found on cervical vertebrae only?

Transverse Foramina

Name the bones A,B,C,D,E

A - Frontal B - nasal C - Sphenoid D - Zygomatic E - Maxillary

Identify the nerve that passes through A, B, C

A - CN V2 Foramen Rotundum - Trigeminal Maxillary B - CN V3 Foramen Ovale - Trigeminal Mandibular C - CN VII Facial, CN VIII Vestibulocochlear - Internal Auditory Meatus

What assocuation goes with Diarthroses

Synovial

The sutural joints in the skull are a type of ___ joint

Fibrous

The joint that permits the greatest range of motion in the entire body is the ________.

shoulder

Identify the synovial joint structures:

A - Synovial Membrane B - joint capsule C - articular cartilage D - synovial cavity

The capitulum is a part of the ________.

humerus

What is a synovial fluid function?

shock absorber

The fibula ___

provides stability at the ankle joint

Identify the structures A,B,C,D

A - joint capsule B - articular cartilage C - synovial cavity D - synovial membrane

The point of the elbow is formed by the ___ of the ulna

Olecranon Process

# True / False The formation of bone from preexisting cartilage structure is called endochondral ossification

True

# True / False Just like the stratum corneum of the skin, bones are also made up of dead cells and may be described as “dead” parts of the body

False

# True / False In anatomical terms the shaft of a long bone is properly called the epiphysis

False - diaphysis

# True / False The boney surface or shell of ALL bones is composed of compact bone (aka cortical bone)

True

Mature bone cells, trapped by surrounding bone matrix, maintain contact with other mature bone cells via microscopic passageways radiating through the bone matrix. The passageways are called:

Canaliculi

Which of the following sutures marks the boundary between the temporal bone and the parietal bone of each side of the skull?

squamosal

Because they are strong and relatively inflexible, ________ enable bone to withstand the stress of compression

Hydroxyapetite crystals

Blood vessels enter bones through small holes in the bone. The primary blood vessel supplying a long bone enters the bone through a hole in the diaphysis called the:

nutrient foramen

Which of the following bone elements are NOT found in spongy bone:

central canals (found - concentric lamellae, lacunae, hydroxyapatites, osteocytes, trabeculae)

The marrow filled cavity in the shaft of a long bone is called:

Medullary Cavity Marrow Cavity

Which of the following bones are part of the cranial vault:

Temporal Occipital Parietal Ethmoid Sphenoid (not cranial - palatine, maxillary, vomer, lacrimal)

Identify the labeled bones:

A - sphenoid B - maxillary C - parietal D - temporal

Identify the labeled bones:

A - frontal B - nasal C - zygomatic D - ethmoid

Identify: Tissue type at A Type of bone at B Region at C Type of bone D Material at E

A - hyaline cartilage CT B - spongy or cancellous bone C - metaphysis D - compact or cortical bone E - yellow bone marrow

What are the four characteristics of muscle:

Elasticity Excitability Contractility Extensibility

Why are skeletal muscles called voluntary?

Their contractions can be consciously controlled

Muscles are composed of multiple bundles of muscle cells (wrapped by connective tissue). Each bundle of muscle cells is called a:

fascicle

what features are characteristic of both skeletal muscle and cardiac muscle?

* regularly arranged myofilaments (contractile proteins) * striations

Identify the muscle type

Skeletal MT

What are the functions of muscle?

* generate heat * prevent movement * produce movement * support soft tissues * guard openings

The connective tissue surrounding a muscle fascicle is called ________.

perimysium

Identify the muscle type

smooth muscle

The sarcoplasmic reticulum is ________.

the smooth endoplasmic reticulum of skeletal muscle fibers

The sarcoplasmic reticulum stores ________.

calcium ions

The movement where the forearm moves posteriorly at the elbow is called

extension

Identify the labeled structures:

A - sarcolemma B - myofibril C - transverse tubule D - sarcoplasmic reticulum

Identify each of the structures:

A - A band B - I band C - H zone D - Z line E - M line

The portion of a sarcomere that contains the M line, H zone and the zone of overlap is the ________.

A band

A very successful competitive sprinter is likely to have more than average of which type of muscle fiber?

more fast twitch than average

Regarding a typical muscles origin and insertion ends, which one moves more?

The insertion moves more than does the origin

Identify the action and the muscle

C, D - flexion and rotation of the trunk at the waist (oblique) A - only flexes at the waist B - only compresses and supports soft tissues

Name the muscle, action, origin, insertion:

A - temporalis, elevates mandible, origin temporalis bone, insertion coranoid process of the mandible B - zygomatic muscle, origin zygomatic bone, insertion mouth, action - smile muscle C - Masseter, elevates mandible, origin zygomatic arch, insertion ramus of the mandible

Skeletal muscle contractions are caused by the binding and interaction of ________ and ________.

myosin and actin

a motor unit is composed of

a single neuron and MANY muscle cells

Gap junctions are common in which types of muscle?

single unit smooth muscle cardiac muscle

Muscle name, origin, insertion:

A - trapezius, action - elevates shoulder, extends head at neck; origin - vertebral processes, insertion - spine of the scapula B - deltoid; action - abduct humerus at the shoulder; origin - scapula; insertion - humerus deltoid tuberosity C - Triceps brachii; action - extend forearm at the elbow, extend humerus at the shoulder, origin - humerus; insertion ; radius / ulna D - Latissimus Dorsi; action - extends, adducts, medially rotates humerus at the shoulder; origin - vertebral processes; insertion - humerus

Name these muscles:

A - pronator teres B - flexor carpi radialis C - palmaris longus D - flexor carpi ulnaris

# True / False In general, muscles with an oblique orientation can often produce rotational movements

True

# True / False Skeletal muscle is 100% dependent on the nervous system to initiate muscle contraction

True

# True / False When viewed under the microscope, the dark appearing bands are the A bands

True

# True / False The action of the internal intercostals results in rib movements for inhalation

False - Internal depresses ribs for exhalation

# True / False The zygomaticus muscle is named for its insertion on the zygomatic bone

False - named for the origin?

# True / False Muscle cells can also be called myofibrils

False

The area of a myofibril where there are no actin filaments is the ________.

H zone

The function of the transverse tubules is to:

help distribute the electrical impulse (action potential) from the cell membrane to the area where the contractile proteins are located

The repetitive unit of contraction (composed of overlapping thin and thick protein filaments) that extends from Z line to Z line is called the:

Sarcomere

The ________ is a connective tissue layer that surrounds and wraps the entire skeletal muscle.

Epimysium

What characteristic of muscle tissue allows it to respond to stimulation by the nervous system?

Excitability

The molecules(s) that the thin filament are made of:

Troponin, Actin, Tropomysin

Muscles are attached to bones by:

Aponeurosis Tendons

Muscle, Innervation

A - superior orbital oblique - CN IV - trochlear nerve B - Medial Rectus - CN VI - abducens C - Inferior orbital oblique - CN III - oculomotor

Identify the cellular structures:

A - myofibrils - composed of myofilaments B - mitochondria - provides ATP C - transverse tubules - provides a functional connection between sarcolemma to contractile proteins D - sarcoplasmic reticulum E - triad

The bundles of contractile proteins present inside muscle cells are called (name the bundles, not the individual proteins):

myofibril

The organelle in skeletal muscle cells that is responsible for storing Ca++ ions:

sarcoplasmic reticulum

The abdominal muscle that does not (cannot) produce flexion or rotation of the trunk:

transverse abdominis

The end of a skeletal muscle that is moved when the muscle contracts is called the:

insertion

Which of the following neuroglia produce cerebrospinal fluid?

Ependymal Cells

The structural classification of a neuron is based upon ________.

the number of processes that project from the cell body

Areas of a myelinated axon that are not covered by myelin are called ________.

Nodes of Ranvier

The portion of a neuron that carries information in the form of a nerve impulse (action potential) towards the synapse is called the ________.

axon

Name / Describe the following:

A - dendrites, reception B - Cell Body (soma) - intelligence C - axon hillock - decision D - Myelin Sheath - insulation E - Node of Ranvier - transmission F - Telodendria G - Axon Terminal H - Axon - transmission line

Because a neuron loses its centrioles during differentiation, a neuron cannot ___.

divide

To contact a Schwann cell, where would a microprobe have to be inserted in the nervous system?

along any axon in the PNS - myelinated or not

Type of neuron:

A - bipolar - sensory optic / olfactory - rare B - pseudounipolar - sensory PNS C - multipolar - most common - interneuron, motor

The broad base of the axon where it originates from the cell body is called the ________.

axon hillock

At a chemical synapse, the neurons communicate via ________.

neurotransmitters

Peripheral nerves are composed of:

both afferent and efferent neurons

Areas of the nervous system that are dominated by myelinated axons are referred to as ________.

White Matter

Cell Type - Function

A - Ependymal, CSF production B - Astrocyte - blood brain barrier C - Microglia - immune protection D - Oligodendrocyte - myelination

Names and Descriptions

A - epineureum B - perineureum C - endoneureum D - axon E - myelin sheath F - fascicle

Clusters of neuron cell bodies in the peripheral nervous system are called:

ganglia

The central nervous system (CNS) includes the ________.

Brain, Spinal Cord, Brain Stem

Sensory neurons enter the spinal cord via the:

Dorsal Roots

# True / False The parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system (PANS) can be described as the "rest and digest" division.

True

# True / False The parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system (PANS) can be described as the "fight-or-flight" division.

False

The parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system (PANS) can be described as the "cranio-sacral" division.

True

The sympathetic division of the ANS has ________.

long postganglionic axons

Identify the structures:

A - Dorsal Root ganglion B - Grey Ramus Communicans C - White Ramus Communicans D - ParaVertebral Chain Ganglion E - Ventral Root | sympathetic nervous system

What are the 5 types of sensory receptors:

Mechanoreceptors Chemoreceptors Nociceptors Photoreceptors Thermoreceptors

Match the sensory receptor to the stimulus it responds to (i.e. its adequate stimulus) 1. Pressure and Vibration 2. Light Touch 3. Wind 4. Muscle Tension

1 - Pacinian corpuscle 2 - meissner's corpuscle 3 - root hair plexus 4 - golgi tendon organ

What structures are part of the vascular tunic of the eye?

Lens Ciliary Muscle Iris

The sensory receptor that is sensitive to changes in muscle length, but not sensitive to changes in muscle tension:

muscle spindles

Match the structure to the layer

Cornea - 3 Fibrous Ciliary Body and Lens - 2 Vascular Light sensitive photoreceptors - 1 Neural Iris - 2 Vascular

Conscious awareness and interpretation of a sensory stimulus is called ________.

Perception

The gelatinous material filling the posterior cavity of the eye:

Vitreous Humor

The receptor type responsible for the detection and differentiation of colors:

Cones

The membranous labyrinth of the inner ear is filled with:

Endolymph

Match the described structures in the part of the inner ear associated with awareness of gravity to the correct names. 1. bony labrynth 2. membranous labrynth 3. receptor epithelium 4. overlying gel mass

1 - vestibule 2 - utricle and saccule 3 - macula 4 - otolythic membrane

All sensory neurons are pseudo-unipolar, with two exceptions where the sensory neuron is bipolar. The two exceptions with bipolar neurons are associated with:

Olfactory receptors visual receptors

Match the description to the letters 1. Ensures air pressure in middle ear is the same as air pressure in the external ear 2. Region of inner ear sensitive to sound 3. Region of inner ear sensitive to gravity (linear acceleration) 4. Region of inner ear sensitive to rotation (rotational acceleration)

1 - D - external auditory canal 2 - G - Cochlea 3 - F - Vestibule 4 - E - semicircular Canals

# True / False Astrocytes function in maintaining the blood-brain barrier, which isolates the CNS from the general circulation.

True

# True / False The midbrain is also known as the mesencephalon.

True

# True / False The primary function of the nervous system is integration and control.

True

# True / False The central nervous system is a hollow structure (has fluid filled internal spaces).

True

# True / False In general, neurons within the CNS have very limited to no ability to regenerate after damage.

True

# True / False Of the different structural classifications, the least common type of neuron is the bipolar neuron.

True

# True / False In the central nervous system (CNS), the cell responsible for producing the myelin sheath is the Schwann cell.

False - it's the oligodendrocyte

Neuroglia in the nervous system function to ____.

* assist neuron transmission * protect neurons * guide neuron regrowth following injury

The central nervous system (CNS) includes the ________.

brain, brain stem, spinal cord

The adult brain structure(s) formed from the metencephalon include:

Pons Cerebellum

The generic name for the chemicals that “carry the message” from one cell to another across the synaptic cleft is:

neurotransmitter

Which of the following is responsible for the darker appearance of the neuron cell body?

Nissl Bodies

We can predict that the susceptibility of neurons in the CNS to drugs would be increased if _________ were damaged or absent.

astrocytes - create blood brain barrier

Name / Function

A - dendrites - reception B - Axon Hillock - decision C - node of ranvier - speeds transmission D - axon terminals (synapse)

Name the following structures:

A - occipital lobe B - transverse fissure C - temporal lobe D - central sulcus

The functional cell of the nervous system is the

neuron

Neurons that transmit nerve impulses away from the central nervous system are described as:

Efferent

Collections of cell bodies within the peripheral nervous system (PNS) form clusters called:

ganglion

# True / False The anterior pituitary is of epithelial origin, while the posterior pituitary is of neural origin

True

Which specific endocrine organ is responsible for the secretion of ADH and oxytocin?

Posterior Pituitary

# True / False All endocrine tissues form anatomically distinct glands that are easily recognizable and discrete structures.

False

Identify the entire organ in this image:

pancreas, islets of langerhans

Identify the endocrine gland A and the gland B

B - thyroid A - parathyroid

The thyroid gland is responsible for the secretion of which hormone(s)?

Thyroxin, Calcitonin, T3

The blood vessels making up the pituitary portal system connect the:

hypothalamus and anterior pituitary

Which of the following serous membrane structures is only found in association with peritoneal serous membranes?

mesentery

Which fold of mesentery extends from the liver to the lesser curvature of the stomach?

Lesser Omentum

Which of the following correctly describe mesenteries?

* Mesenteries provide a route for blood vessels and nerves that supply abdominal organs * Mesenteries are formed where 2 serous membranes meet forming a double membrane layer * Mesenteries connect abdominal structures to the posterior body wall while permitting movement

Identify the mesentery and cavity:

A - lesser omentum B - mesentery of the large intestine - mesocolon C - mesentery of the small intestine - mesentery proper D - greater omentum 1 - lesser peritoneal cavity 2 - greater peritoneal cavity

Name the structures:

A - Suspensory Ligaments B - Ciliary Body C - conjunctiva D - fovea centralis

The apron-like fold of mesentery that forms a pouch hanging below the stomach and covering the anterior aspect of the intestines is the:

greater omentum

Which of the following are associated with the peritoneal membrane.

* peritoneal cavity * falciform ligament * lesser omentum * omental bursa * mesocolon * serosa

# True / False The complexity of the peritoneal membrane system is a result of it being formed from two separate but overlapping peritoneal membranes form two distinct peritoneal cavities.

False

Parietal cells, chief cells, and G cells are major components of which structure?

Gastric Pits

The largest salivary gland (located over the masseter muscle) is the:

Parotid Gland

Which of the following correctly describes peristalsis?

it consists of waves of muscular contractions that move along the length of the digestive tract

Which of the following increases the surface area for absorption in the small intestine?

plica circularis microvilli villi

Name the labeled structures:

A - invaginations - crypts of lieberkuhn B - duodenum C - plica circulares

Parietal Cells secrete hydrochloric acid and ___

intrinsic factor

What specifically do chief cells (aka peptic cells) secrete?

pepsinogen

Name the structures:

A - jejunum B - peyer's patch C - brunners glands

Describe the large intestine:

* Some function is dependent on the presence of bacteria * important in the absorption of water * absorption of some vitamins and minerals * associated with storage of undigestible nutrients

The ________ regulates the emptying of pancreatic and liver secretions into the small intestine.

sphincter of Oddi

What tissue type forms the walls of each pancreatic acinus?

simple cuboidal epithelium

The muscular layer of the large intestine differs from that of other intestinal regions because the longitudinal layer has been reduced to the thin muscular bands known as:

teniae coli

Name the structures:

A - gallbladder B - cystic duct C - common bile duct D - left hepatic duct E - right hepatic duct F - common hepatic duct G - duodenal papilla H - pancreatic duct

name three characteristics of the walls and lining of the urinary bladder?

* it is able to stretch permitting expansion as the bladder fills with urine * it is composed of transitional epithelium * it is folded forming rugae

All filtration in the kidney occurs in the:

Renal Corpuscle

The renal artery and renal vein enter and exit the kidney through the:

hilus

The triangular area defined by the urethral openings and the entrance to the urethra at each corner constitutes the ________.

Trigone

Name the structures:

A - renal cortex B - renal medulla C - renal pyramid D - renal papilla

What drains directly into a minor calyx in the renal pelvis?

Collecting Ducts

The glomerular epithelium consists of octopus like cells with tentacles (aka "feet") that wrap around the glomerular capillaries. These cells are called ________.

podocytes

Which of the following describes movement of molecules from the blood into the nephron:

secretion filtration

Name the structures:

A - renal cortex B - renal pyramids C - renal columns D - minor calyx

A major function of the testis is to ________.

produce testosterone produce spermatozoa

Put these in the right category - primary reproductive organ, secondary reproductive organ, secondary sexual characteristic 1. testis 2. vas deferens 3. penis 4. scrotum 5. facial hair 6. prostate gland

1 - testis - primary reproductive organ 2. vas deferens - secondary repro organ 3. penis - secondary repro organ 4. scrotum - secondary repro organ 5. facial hair - secondary sex characteristic 6. prostate gland - secondary repro organ

The structures in the testis where spermatogenesis takes place:

seminiferous tubules

The structures within the spermatic cord enter the abdominopelvic cavity through the ________.

inguinal canal

Identify the labeled structures and function:

Identify the organ - testis Identify A - seminiferous tubule - sperm production Identify B - interstitial cells of Leydig - testosterone production

List the tube segments associated with sperm transmission in the correct order from the testis to the outside:

Seminiferous tubules Epididymis Vas Deferens Ampulla of the Vas Deferens Ejaculatory Duct Prostatic Urethra Membranous Urethra Penile Urethra

The generic term for reproductive cells in either females or males is:

gamete

The structures within the spermatic cord enter the abdominopelvic cavity through the ________.

inguinal canal

The ovulated "egg" is composed of:

secondary oocyte corona radiata zona pellucida

The dominant hormone produced by the ovary during the secretory phase and during pregnancy is ________.

progesterone

Milk production and secretion by the mammary glands:

is stimulated by prolactin and oxytocin

Match homologous structures (i.e. structures derived from a common embryonic origin).

* Clitoris --> Penis * Vestibular Gland --> Bulbourethral Gland * Labia Minora --> Prepuce (foreskin) * Labua Majora --> Scrotum

Name the labeled structure:

A - zona pellucida B - corona radiata C - secondary oocyte D - wall of Graafian follicle E - Antrum

The cervix is:

narrow neck of the uterus where it meets the vagina

Match the organs to the appropriate category - primary reproductive structure, secondary reproductive structure, secondary sexual characteristics 1. Ovary 2. Vagina 3. Wide Pelvic Bones 4. Uterus 5. Uterine Tubes 6. Cervix

1. Ovary - primary repro organ 2. Vagina - secondary repro organ 3. Wide Pelvic Bones - secondary sex characteristic 4. Uterus - secondary repro organ 5. Uterine Tubes - secondary repro organ 6. Cervix - secondary repro organ

The muscular layer of the uterus is (the) ________.

myometrium

# True / False The process of digestion doesn’t begin until food enters the stomach.

False

# True / False The alimentary canal layer called the serosa, and the serous membrane called the visceral peritoneal membrane, are the same structure.

True

# True / False The majority of chemical digestion (breaking of chemical bonds) occurs in the duodenum & jejunum.

True

# True / False The inner lining of the alimentary canal is composed of one of the four membrane types in the body and, characteristic of true membranes, is composed of both epithelium and connective tissue.

True

# True / False The pyloric sphincter is formed from thickening of the circular layer of the muscularis externa.

True

# True / False The two thyroid hormones, thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3), have effects which increase the rate of cellular metabolism and oxygen consumption in almost every cell in the body.

True

# True / False Parafollicular cells (aka C cells) in the thyroid produce the hormone parathyroid hormone.

False

# True / False The anterior pituitary is made of epithelial tissue & the posterior pituitary is made of neural tissue.

True

Produced by the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland, the hormone called ________ stimulates the adrenal cortex.

ACTH

Which organs have endocrine function?

Kidney, Heart, Hypothalamus, Pancreas, Stomach

Parietal cells in the stomach secrete:

Hydrochloric Acid Intrinsic Factor

The bile duct directly attached to the gall bladder is the:

cystic duct

Which of the following increases the surface area for digestion and absorption in the mucosa of the small intestine?

microvilli villi plica circulares

Which of the following best describes the primary function of the stomach?

storage and regulation of food movement into the small intestine

Pancreatic acinar cells form pancreatic acini which are responsible for secreting:

enzymes

Identify the structure

Islets of Langerhans

Which section of the small intestine:

Duodenum

Name the strutures:

A - brunner's glands or duodenal glands B - invaginations - intestinal glands or crypts of lieberkuhn C - peyer's patches

# True / False Prematurely born infants sometimes experience respiratory distress due to inadequate production of surfactant.

true

The epithelium lining the trachea consists of which tissue type?

ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium

Name the components of the respiratory zone of the respiratory system?

Alveolar Sacs alveoli

Which of the following are functions of the conductive zone of the respiratory system?

Air Filtration Warming Humidification

Identify the labeled structures:

A - glottis B - true vocal folds - larynx C - false vocal folds - vestibular folds

# True / False The cricoid cartilage is a complete ring whose posterior portion is greatly expanded, providing support in the absence of the thyroid cartilage.

True

The largest laryngeal cartilage is the ________ cartilage, commonly called the Adam's apple.

Thyroid Cartilage

Name the labeled spaces

A - Nasopharynx B - Oropharynx C - Laryngopharynx

Plasma proteins that attack foreign proteins and pathogens are ________.

immunoglobulins

The leukocyte that releases histamine and heparin to enhance inflammation is the ________.

basophil

The blood type of an individual is determined at the cellular level by ________.

the presence or absence of specific surface antigens in the plasma membrane of the erythrocyte

# True / False All lymphocytes are leukocytes

True

Identify the WBCs

A - neutrophil B - monocyte C - lymphocyte D - eosinophil E - basophil

Which is the least common type of white blood cell?

basophil

Plasma proteins that attack foreign proteins and pathogens are ________.

immunoglobulins

Plasma makes up approximately ________ of whole blood volume.

55%

Which of the following formed elements is produced by megakaryocytes in bone marrow:

platelets

Blood returning from the tissues and organs of the abdominal and pelvic cavities, and from the lower limbs enters the:

Right Atrium

Oxygen-poor blood travels from the right atrium into the right ventricle through the ________ valve.

Right AV (Tricuspid) valve

The lining of the chambers of the heart is:

Endocardium

Blood that is low in oxygen and high in carbon dioxide (blue in illustrations) would be found in:

Coronary Sinus Right Ventricle Pulmonary Arteries

Identify the labeled structures:

A - Chordae Tendineae B - Pulmonary semilunar valve C - interatrial septum D - papillary muscles

Describe the heart

* Only location where cardiac muscle is found * More muscular on the left side vs the right * composed of 4 chambers

The pacemakers of the heart are:

* specialized muscle cells * autorhythmic (functions without the nervous system) * located in the right atrium

The inner most lining of ALL blood vessel types is:

endothelium

# True / False Arteries lumen are relatively smaller than a corresponding vein

True

Which arteries supplying the brain merge to form the basilar artery?

Vertebral Artery

Which arteries branch off the celiac trunk:

Hepatic Splenic Gastric

Identify the labeled structures

A - left common carotid B - left subclavian C - superior mesenteric artery D - internal internal iliac artery

Fill in with Artery, Vein, Capililary: 1. Resistance Vessels: 2. May Have Valves 3. Capacitance Vessels: 4. Exchange Vessels: 5. Have thick walls to contain high pressure:

1 - arteries 2 - valves 3 - valves 4 - capillaries 5 - arteries

Name the branches of the Aortic Arch:

Brachiocephalic trunk Left common carotid Left subclavian

Name an unpaired artery that branches from the abdominal aorta ___

Superior Mesenteric Artery

The swelling at the base of the internal carotid artery:

* Is the carotid sinus * Contains sensory receptors sensitive to blood pressure

Identify the labeled vessels:

A - brachiocephalic trunk B - Celiac Trunk C - inferior mesenteric artery D - right common iliac

Which veins carry oxygen rich blood

pulmonary vein umbilical vein

The venous system normally contains ________ of the blood volume (roughly 3.5L of whole blood).

60-70%

What is the significance of the presence of dual venous drainage, one superficial and the other deep, in the neck and limbs?

this arrangement allows for alternative venous return routes is veins are compressed

The longest vein in the body is the ________

Great saphenous Vein

Identify the vessels:

A - R vertebral vein B - azygous vein C - left basilic vein D - L external iliac vein

The hepatic portal vein carries blood from the ___ to the ___

Digestive system to the Liver

The walls of veins are thinner than those of corresponding arteries, because ________.

veins contain less muscle

Identify the vessels:

A - R internal jugular vein B - L cephalic vein C - L renal vein D - median cubital vein

# True / False Erythrocytes are the most abundant cell type in the blood.

True

# True / False The valves in the heart are attached to muscles that pull them open.

False

The primary role of erythrocytes is the transport of oxygen.

True

# True / False Individuals with type A blood have cells with type A protein embedded in their membrane and plasma that contains anti-B antibodies.

True

# True / False Aspirated particles (i.e. inhaled food) more easily enters the right lung than the left.

True

# True / False The left main bronchus has a larger diameter than the right, and it descends toward the lung at a steeper/more verticle angle.

False

# True / False The cricoid cartilage is the only cartilage in the respiratory system that forms a complete ring around the airway.

True

Platelets are best described as:

cell fragments (cytoplasm enclosed by membrane)

Which of the following is the most common type of white blood cell:

neutrophil

Which of the following best describes the epithelium of the alveoli:

simple squamous ET

The largest laryngeal cartilage is the ________ cartilage, commonly called the Adam's apple.

Thyroid

Which of the following protein types are abundant in the blood:

immunoglobulin albumin hemoglobin fibrinogen

Which of the following is a function of the airways (trachea, bronchi…)?

warm the air moisturize the air filter / clean the air

Which of the following are functions of the respiratory system:

gas exchange olfaction air treatment waste elimination pH regulation

Name the labeled structures:

A - aortic arch B - ligamentum arteriosum C - pulmonary semilunar valve D - chordae tendineae

Identify the WBC

Neutrophil

Identify the WBC

eosinophil

Identify the WBC

monocyte

Identify the WBC

lymphocyte

Identify the WBC

basophil

Exam Questions Flashcards

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