Clopidogrel works to inhibit platelet activity by the following mechanism of action:
a. By irreversibly altering the ADP receptor causing the platelet to be affected for
its lifespan.
b. By reversibly altering the ADP receptor causing the platelet to be affected for up
to 3 days.
c. Reversible inhibition of COX-1 activity in platelets to prevent formation of
thromboxane A2.
d. Irreversible inhibition of COX-1 activity in platelets to prevent formation of
thromboxane A2.
By irreversibly altering the ADP receptor causing the platelet to be affected for
its lifespan.
In the FAT CAT study (Hogan, et al. Vet Cardiology (Vol 17, Supplement 1), the authors
concluded the following about Clopidogrel for use in cases of feline aortic
thromboembolism:
a. By prophylactically treating cats with cardiac disease, there was a very low risk of
aortic thromboembolism when compared to cats that were not treated with
Clopidogrel.
b. Clopidogrel administration was associated with significantly lower risk of
recurrent cardiogenic aortic thromboembolism when compared with the group
treated with aspirin therapy.
c. There was no difference in the risk of recurrent cardiogenic aortic
thromboembolism between cats treated with Clopidogrel or Aspirin.
d. Aspirin administration was associated with significantly lower risk of recurrent
cardiogenic aortic thromboembolism when compared with the group treated
with Clopidogrel therapy.
Clopidogrel administration was associated with significantly lower risk of
recurrent cardiogenic aortic thromboembolism when compared with the group
treated with aspirin therapy.
Rivaroxaban is a relatively new anti-coagulant in veterinary medicine. What is its
mechanism of action?
a. Rivaroxaban binds to antithrombin and potentiates its ability to inactivate
factors Xa and IIa.
b. Rivaroxaban inhibits factor Xa and factor VIIa via inhibition of tissue factor
pathway inhibitor
c. Rivaroxaban is a direct factor Xa inhibitor
d. Rivaroxaban is a direct platelet inhibitor
Rivaroxaban is a direct factor Xa inhibitor
When using enoxaparin sodium, it is recommended to monitor the following:
a. Platelet count and INR
b. aPTT and PT every 2 weeks to help to determine efficacy of enoxaparin.
c. Anti-Xa activity to determine if adjustments need to be made to patient dose.
d. TEG, particularly ‘R-values’, to determine the efficacy of enoxaparin
c. Anti-Xa activity to determine if adjustments need to be made to patient dose.
In a case where an overdose of unfractionated heparin was administered to a canine
patient, the following is the most effective therapy to help prevent clinical bleeding.
a. Administer 15-20mL/kg of fresh frozen plasma
b. Administer protamine at 1mg per 100 units of heparin to be inactivated.
c. Administer apixaban at 0.9mg/kg.
d. Prepare and administer a whole blood transfusion
Administer protamine at 1mg per 100 units of heparin to be inactivated.
Which of the following is not a vasopressor?
a. Dopamine
b. Norepinephrine
c. Vasopressin.
d. Dobutamine
Dobutamine
Which of the following antiarrhythmic agents exerts effects by blocking fast sodium
channels and exhibits moderate blockade of the rapid component of the delayed
rectifier potassium current?
a. Lidocaine
b. Atenolol
c. Flecainide
d. Procainamide
d. Procainamide
Which class of calcium channel blocking agents is most effective at controlling heart
rate?
a. Phenylalkylamines
b. Dihydropyridines
c. Phenylpropanolamine
d. Benzothiazepines
Benzothiazepines
Which of the following is true about management of bradyarrhythmias?
a. Beta blockers, like sotalol, may be used to manage dogs with sick sinus syndrome
b. Temporary transvenous pacing can be done with the patient awake or very
mildly sedated
c. Transcutaneous pacing is generally performed with the patient awake or very
mildly sedated
d. Persistent atrial standstill is commonly seen in dogs
Temporary transvenous pacing can be done with the patient awake or very
mildly sedated
In both human and veterinary medicine, approximating the extent of a burn in terms of
a percentage of total body surface area (TBSA) is important for determining fluid
therapy needs and may impact prognosis. Using the Veterinary Burn Card system, what
percentage of TBSA is burned if the burn is estimated to be 15 cards in size in a 22-kg
patient. The body surface area (BSA) of this patient is estimated to be 0.793
a. 4%
b. 8.5%
c. 0.3%
d. 16%
8.5%
Which of the following statements regarding severe burn injury and burn shock is
correct?
a. The hyperdynamic, hypermetabolic stage (“flow phase”) occurs immediately following
SBI and lasts for approximately 24–72 hours and is characterized by increased vascular
permeability, fluid shifts resulting in intravascular volume depletion, and edema
formation in burned and non-burned tissues.
b. In the late phases of burn injury, activation of nuclear factor kappa-beta (NFKB) and
release of tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF- α) causes significant cardiomyocyte injury
and decreased contractility 72 hrs. after the initial burn injury.
c. In the resuscitation phase, reduced cardiac output is the hallmark of the early post
burn period, with a significant decrease in cardiac output occurring as early as 2 hours
after burn injury and gradually resolving in 48–72 hours.
d. The resuscitation phase, also known as the hypodynamic (ebb) phase, begins 3-5 days
after a burn injury and is characterized by characterized by decreased vascular
permeability, increased heart rate, and decreased peripheral vascular resistance
resulting in an increase in cardiac output.
In the resuscitation phase, reduced cardiac output is the hallmark of the early post
burn period, with a significant decrease in cardiac output occurring as early as 2 hours
after burn injury and gradually resolving in 48–72 hours.
In severe burn injury, the Consensus (Parkland) formula is used to determine fluid
therapy needs within the first 24 hours. Which of the following statements regarding
crystalloid fluid therapy requirements based on the Consensus formula is correct?
a. 4 mL/kg per percentage TBSA in the first 24 hours, with half of this amount
administered in the first 8 hours
b. 6 mL/kg per percentage TBSA in the first 48 hours, with half of this amount
administered in the first 8 hours
c. 6 mL/kg per percentage TBSA in the first 24 hours, with half of this amount
administered in the first 6 hours
d. 4 mL/kg per percentage TBSA in the first 12 hours, with half of this amount
administered in the first 6 hours
4 mL/kg per percentage TBSA in the first 24 hours, with half of this amount
administered in the first 8 hours
Topical therapy can be instituted after initial decontamination to prevent bacterial
colonization of burn wounds. Which of the following statements regarding topical
therapy is correct?
a. Compared to silver sulfadiazine (SSD), honey has an increased time for wound
healing, worsened wound contracture, increased wound strength, and more sterile
environment.
b. Mafenide acetate has the same spectrum of activity as silver sulfadiazine (SSD), and is
therefore not helpful in cases that have developed bacteria resistant to SSD.
c. Medical honey is often not effective against staphylococcal species, particularly
MRSA.
d. Silver sulfadiazine (SSD) may delay wound healing and eschar separation.
Silver sulfadiazine (SSD) may delay wound healing and eschar separation.
Which of the following statements regarding complications of burn wounds is correct?
a. Since the superficial appearance of burn wounds can be misleading, the use of
systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) criteria can be helpful at determining
if a burn wound infection is present.
b. Intra-abdominal hypertension occurs in 36-70% of people with burn wounds, but only
30-50% of veterinary patients.
c. In people with both severe burn injury and smoke inhalation, 30-50% of patients
will develop pneumonia.
d. Systemic anti-microbials are routinely administered in prophylactically in the
management of burn wounds.
In people with both severe burn injury and smoke inhalation, 30-50% of patients
will develop pneumonia.
Radiographic changes are not always present in patients with pulmonary
thromboembolism. However, when present, a finding consistent with pulmonary
thromboembolism would be:
a. Increased size of pulmonary arteries without associated vein enlargement
b. Increased size of pulmonary veins without associated artery enlargement
c. Increased size in pulmonary arteries and veins
d. Decreased size of pulmonary arteries and veins
a. Increased size of pulmonary arteries without associated vein enlargement
In what order do the stages of lung injury associated with acute respiratory distress
syndrome occur?
a. Necrotic phase, proliferative phase, fibrotic phase
b. Necrotic phase, exudative phase, proliferative phase,
c. Exudative phase, Proliferative Phase, Fibrotic Phase
d. Proliferative phase, Exudative phase, Fibrotic Phase
c. Exudative phase, Proliferative Phase, Fibrotic Phase
Which of the following best describes diagnostic interpretation when diagnosing dogs
with canine eosinophilic bronchopneumopathy?
a. Absence of peripheral eosinophilia on the CBC excludes the diagnosis of
eosinophilic bronchopneumopathy.
b. A positive intradermal skin test does not consistently identify the allergen(s)
responsible for the respiratory pathology.
c. A single negative fecal test is adequate to rule out parasitic infestation as the
cause for increased eosinophils on airway wash.
d. BAL fluid analysis of healthy dogs should have less than 2% eosinophils but certain
breeds of dogs may naturally have higher eosinophil counts.
A positive intradermal skin test does not consistently identify the allergen(s)
responsible for the respiratory pathology.
Pulmonary thromboembolism creates hypoxemia as a result of all but the following
mechanisms:
a. Increased surfactant production by type II pneumocytes
b. Small airway constriction
c. Pulmonary edema and atelectasis
d. Diffusion impairment from interstitial edema
Increased surfactant production by type II pneumocytes
Which of the following is not a pulmonary defense mechanism in place to prevent the
formation of pulmonary edema?
a. Compliance of the pulmonary interstitium is able to accommodate fluid to a certain
hydrostatic pressure at which the lymphatic flow increases.
b. Type I and Type II pneumocytes remove fluid from the alveoli through the active
movement of sodium via the Na+
/K+ ATPase pump.
c. Aquaporin 2 channels located at the basolateral and apical surfaces of Type I
pneumocytes allow for the passive transport of water.
d. The pulmonary capillary endothelium is permeable to albumin making it more
resistant to tissue edema caused by low oncotic states
Aquaporin 2 channels located at the basolateral and apical surfaces of Type I
pneumocytes allow for the passive transport of water.
Which of the following best describes the pathologic alterations observed in animals
with acute lung injury and acute respiratory distress syndrome?
a. Alveolar collapse develops as a result of injured type I pneumocytes reducing
the production of surfactant they make.
b. The pulmonary neutrophil is the earliest effector cell of the inflammatory process
that leads to the development of ALI/ARDS.
c. Transforming growth factor-β promotes edema formation in the exudative
phase and fibroblast formation in the proliferative phase.
d. Fibroblast proliferation initially occurs in the alveolus resulting in the
accumulation of fibrin debris and then progresses out to the interstitium.
Transforming growth factor-β promotes edema formation in the exudative
phase and fibroblast formation in the proliferative phase.
A recent retrospective study comparing constant rate infusion vs. intermittent bolus of
intravenous furosemide in dogs and cats with congestive heart failure found that:
a. The CRI infusion of furosemide associated with faster decrease in respiratory
rates of dogs and cats with congestive heart failure
b. The intravenous bolus of furosemide was associated with faster decrease in
respiratory rates of dogs and cats with congestive heart failure
c. The CRI and intravenous bolus of furosemide were associated with similar
decreases in respiratory rates in dogs and cats with congestive heart failure
d. The IV bolus of furosemide was associated with higher levels of dehydration
and azotemia, compared with the CRI of furosemide
The CRI and intravenous bolus of furosemide were associated with similar
decreases in respiratory rates in dogs and cats with congestive heart failure
A recent retrospective study evaluating combination therapy with pimobendan and
sildenafil, in dogs with severe pulmonary hypertension secondary to lung disease and
hypoxia, found that:
a. The use of pimobendan in combination with sildenafil did not result in a
statistically significant increase in survival times compared to dogs treated
with sildenafil alone
b. The use of pimobendan in combination with sildenafil resulted in a statistically
significant increase in survival times compared to dogs treated with sildenafil
alone
c. There was a higher incidence of adverse effects in dogs treated with
pimobendan and sildenafil, compared to dogs treated with sildenafil alone
d. There was a lower incidence of adverse effects in dogs treated with
pimobendan and sildenafil, compared to dogs treated with sildenafil alone.
The use of pimobendan in combination with sildenafil did not result in a
statistically significant increase in survival times compared to dogs treated
with sildenafil alone
The authors of the study evaluating the use of Yunnan Baiyao and epsilon aminocaproic
acid in dogs with right atrial masses and pericardial effusion concluded that:
a. Yunnan Baiyo alone, or in combination with epsilon aminocaproic acid was
safe and resulted in a decreased recurrence of clinical signs and improved
survival times
b. Epsilon aminocaproic acid was associated with an increase in survival
c. Yunnan Baiyao was associated with a higher incidence of adverse effects
d. Yunnan Baiyao alone, or in combination with epsilon aminocaproic acid
was safe but did not significantly affect recurrence of clinical signs or survival
times.
Yunnan Baiyao alone, or in combination with epsilon aminocaproic acid
was safe but did not significantly affect recurrence of clinical signs or survival
times.
What is the most common cause of pericardial effusion in cats?
a. Right atrial hemangiosarcoma
b. Lymphoma.
c. Congestive heart failure.
d. Chemodectoma
c. Congestive heart failure.
