The mechanism of action of benzodiazepines in the treatment of seizures is:
a. Enhanced Na+ channel inactivation leading to decreased seizure onset
b. Enhanced GABA activated Cl- conductance leading to decreased seizure onset
c. Reduced current through Ca2+ channels leading to decreased seizure spread
d. Reduced glutamate-mediated excitation leading to decreased seizure spread
Enhanced GABA activated Cl- conductance leading to decreased seizure onset
What is the proposed mechanism of action ketamine in the treatment of status epilepticus?
a. Will bind and antagonize NMDA receptors that may be over-stimulated by excessive glutamate
concentrations in status epilepticus
b. Enhances slow inactivation of voltage-gated sodium channels
c. Suppression of CNS metabolic activity
d. Reducing current through Ca2+ channels
Will bind and antagonize NMDA receptors that may be over-stimulated by excessive glutamate
concentrations in status epilepticus
The presence of significant levels of carboxyhemoglobin will have what effect on pulse oximetry
readings?
a. The pulse oximetry readings will be erroneously high
b. The pulse oximetry readings will be around 85% regardless of the true oxygen saturation
c. The pulse oximetry readings will be erroneously low
d. The pulse oximetry readings will be accurate
The pulse oximetry readings will be erroneously high
Which of the following is the best treatment for known or suspected carbon monoxide toxicity?
a. N-acetylcysteine intravenously
b. Sodium thiosulfate intravenously
c. Hydroxocobalamin therapy
d. High-Fi O2 oxygen therapy
d. High-Fi O2 oxygen therapy
__________ are resident macrophages in hepatic sinusoids that can phagocytose
bacteria and foreign matter in hepatic sinus blood.
a. Langerhans cells
b. Kupffer cells
c. Intraglomerular mesangial cells
d. Tissue macrophages
b. Kupffer cells
The most potent stimulus for gallbladder contractions is __________
a. Secretin
b. Gastrin
c. Motilin
d. Cholecystokinin
d. Cholecystokinin
The vitamin-K dependent clotting factors are __________
a. II, VII, IX, X, and protein C
b. III, IV, IX, X, and protein C
c. II, VII, VIII, X, and protein C
d. III, V, IX, X, and protein C
a. II, VII, IX, X, and protein C
Which of the following is not true regarding the alterations of cell membrane potential?
a. The membrane potential is largely maintained by concentration gradients generated by Na+-K+-ATPase
b. The ratio of the intracellular to extracellular concentration of potassium [K+]I/[K+]o is the major
determinant of the resting cell membrane potential
c. The excitability is determined by the difference between the resting and threshold potentials
d. Hyperkalemia makes the resting potential less negative, which initially decreases excitability
d. Hyperkalemia makes the resting potential less negative, which initially decreases excitability
The following is the result of extracellular hyperkalemia in a veterinary patient:
a. Hyperkalemia leads to an increase (less negative) in resting membrane potential leading to
bradycardia
b. Hyperkalemia leads to a decrease (more negative) in resting membrane potential leading to
bradycardia
c. Hyperkalemia leads to an increase (less negative) in resting membrane potential leading to tachycardia
d. Hyperkalemia leads to a decrease (more negative) in resting membrane potential leading to
tachycardia
a. Hyperkalemia leads to an increase (less negative) in resting membrane potential leading to
bradycardia
The following represents the mechanism of action of defibrillation:
a. Ventricular myocyte repolarization will cause the SA node to take over if successful
b. Ventricular myocyte depolarization will allow myocardial cells to briefly become refractory
allowing the SA node to take over if successful
c. Resets the myocardial SA nodal cells to allow the SA node to take over if successful
d. Atrial myocyte depolarization will allow myocardial cells to depolarize allowing SA node to
take over if successful
b. Ventricular myocyte depolarization will allow myocardial cells to briefly become refractory
allowing the SA node to take over if successful
In the gastrointestinal tract, a) what is the layer that provides most of its tensile strength and needs
to be included in closure techniques, and b) which cells are
primarily responsible for production of collagen?
a. Submucosa; smooth muscle cells
b. Muscularis propria; fibroblasts
c. Mucosa; myelofibroblasts
d. Serosa; mesothelial cells
a. Submucosa; smooth muscle cells
Which of the following is an example of a clean contaminated wound?
a. Major break in aseptic technique
b. Open, fresh traumatic wound
c. Controlled entry into a hollow viscus
d. Elective, primarily closed, no drains
c. Controlled entry into a hollow viscus
Which of the following hormones is primarily implicated in the development of pyometra?
a. Estrogen
b. Prostaglandin
c. Lactoferrin
d. Progesterone
d. Progesterone
- During which phase of the estrous cycle does pyometra occur?
a. Proestrous
b. Estrus
c. Diestrus
d. Anestrus
Anestrus
What is the biologically active fraction/form of cortisol?
a. Cortisol bound to albumin
b. Cortisol bound to corticosteroid-binding globulin (CBG)
c. Ionized cortisol
d. Free cortisol
d. Free cortisol
In health, when serum cortisol concentration is low, a ______ feedback signal results in
increased concentrations of ______, which will stimulate the adrenal glands to produce more
cortisol.
a. Negative, corticotropin releasing hormone (CRH) and adrenocorticotropic hormone
(ACTH)
b. Positive, corticotropin releasing hormone (CRH) and adrenocorticotropic hormone
(ACTH)
c. Negative, angiotensin I and adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
d. Positive, angiotensin I and adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
Negative, corticotropin releasing hormone (CRH) and adrenocorticotropic hormone
(ACTH)
What is the chemical signal for secretion of catecholamines from the adrenal gland?
a. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
b. Acetylcholine (Ach)
c. Pregnenolone
d. Adrenoesterone
b. Acetylcholine (Ach)
What is the A-a gradient for a dog with a PaO2 of 70 mmHg, PaCO2 of 56 mmHg, and a respiratory
quotient of 0.8 when at sea level and breathing room air? Assume an atmospheric pressure of 760
mmHg, water vapor pressure of 47 mmHg, and a fraction of inspired oxygen of 0.21.
10
What is the oxygen content in a dog with hemoglobin concentration of 11 g/dL, arterial oxygen
saturation of 95%, and PaO2 of 90 mmHg? Assume an oxygen-carrying capacity of hemoglobin is 1.34
ml/g and a solubility coefficient of oxygen in blood is 0.003 ml/dL/mmHg.
a. 5.7
b. 10.6
c. 14.3
d. 18.7
14.3
Which substance prevents auto-digestion of the pancreas by trypsin?
a. Chymotrypsin
b. Trypsin Inhibitor
c. Phosphokinase
d. Trypsinogen
b. Trypsin Inhibitor
During Phase 1 of the cardiac cycle, the P wave in the corresponding ECG represents…
a. a transient increase in left and right atrial pressure.
b. electrical depolarization of the atrium which then initiates atrial contraction.
c. ventricular repolarization which causes ventricular tension to decrease.
d. the beginning of systole which represents ventricular depolarization.
b. electrical depolarization of the atrium which then initiates atrial contraction.
During Phase 6 of the cardiac cycle, the AV valves…
a. close, causing atrial pressures to rise and creating the “y descent” on the corresponding
diagram.
b.) close, causing atrial pressures to fall and creating the “y descent” on the corresponding
diagram.
c. open, causing atrial pressures to fall and creating the “y descent” on the corresponding
diagram.
d. open, causing atrial pressures to rise and creating the “y descent” on the corresponding
diagram.
c. open, causing atrial pressures to fall and creating the “y descent” on the corresponding
diagram.
What are the four categories of Necrotizing Soft Tissue Infections (necrotizing fasciitis)
a. Type 1 (monomicrobial), Type 2 (polymicrobial), Type 3 (Gram negative monomicrobials), Type
(Fungal)
b. Type 1 (Fungal), Type 2 (monomicrobial), Type 3 (polymicrobial), Type 4 (Gram negative
monomicrobials)
c. Type 1 (polymicrobial), Type 2 (monomicrobial), Type 3 (Gram negative monomicrobials), Type 4
(Fungal)
d. Type 1 (polymicrobial), Type 2 (monomicrobial), Type 3 (Fungal), Type 4 (Gram negative
monomicrobials)
c. Type 1 (polymicrobial), Type 2 (monomicrobial), Type 3 (Gram negative monomicrobials), Type 4
(Fungal)
What is required for a definitive diagnosis of necrotizing fasciitis?
a. A positive streptococcal or staphylococcal culture
b. Fascial necrosis and myonecrosis on histopathology
c. Ultrasound showing >2 mm of fluid accumulation along deep fascial planes and C
reactive protein level of > 3 mg/dL
d. There is no ante-mortem way to definitively diagnose this condition due to the dynamic and
multifaceted pathophysiology. Diagnosis is based on a high index of suspicion based on physical exam
findings, rapid progression and laboratory findings consistent with this condition
b. Fascial necrosis and myonecrosis on histopathology
