Fall_25_Lumbar+Sacral_Plexus Flashcards

(56 cards)

1
Q

Which spinal nerves form the lumbar plexus?

A

Ventral rami of L1 to L4 (sometimes T12 contribution).

The plexus lies within the psoas major muscle and supplies the anterior and medial thigh.

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2
Q

Where is the lumbar plexus located anatomically?

A

Within the posterior part of the psoas major muscle.

It forms in the posterior third of psoas, between its fascial planes, deep to the fascia transversalis.

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3
Q

Which major branches arise from the lumbar plexus?

A

Iliohypogastric, ilioinguinal, genitofemoral, lateral femoral cutaneous, femoral, and obturator nerves.

These branches supply abdominal wall, groin, and lower limb structures.

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4
Q

What is the primary motor function of the lumbar plexus?

A

Innervation of anterior and medial thigh muscles for hip flexion and knee extension.

Femoral and obturator nerves provide motor control for these movements.

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5
Q

What is the sensory distribution of the lumbar plexus?

A

Anterior and medial thigh, lower abdominal wall, and part of medial leg via saphenous branch.

Femoral and cutaneous branches supply these regions.

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6
Q

What are the roots of the iliohypogastric and ilioinguinal nerves?

A

L1 (sometimes T12 contribution).

They emerge from the lateral border of psoas and traverse obliquely across the quadratus lumborum.

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7
Q

What is the clinical relevance of the ilioinguinal nerve?

A

It provides sensory innervation to the groin and upper medial thigh and is often targeted in hernia repair anesthesia.

Infiltration along the inguinal canal reduces postoperative pain for hernia repair or orchiectomy.

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8
Q

What are the roots of the genitofemoral nerve?

A

L1–L2.

It pierces the psoas muscle anteriorly and divides into genital and femoral branches.

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9
Q

What area does the genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve supply?

A

Cremaster muscle and skin of the scrotum or mons pubis.

It provides both motor and sensory fibers relevant to cremasteric reflex.

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10
Q

What area does the femoral branch of the genitofemoral nerve supply?

A

Skin over the femoral triangle.

Purely sensory branch contributing to upper anterior thigh sensation.

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11
Q

What are the roots of the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve (LFCN)?

A

L2–L3.

It passes under or through the inguinal ligament near the ASIS to supply anterolateral thigh skin.

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12
Q

What is meralgia paresthetica?

A

Entrapment of the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve under the inguinal ligament.

Presents as burning or numbness over the lateral thigh; common in obesity, tight belts, or pregnancy.

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13
Q

What are the roots of the femoral nerve?

A

L2–L4 posterior divisions.

Largest branch of the lumbar plexus; descends between psoas and iliacus to the thigh.

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14
Q

What muscles does the femoral nerve innervate?

A

Quadriceps femoris, sartorius, pectineus, and iliacus.

These muscles produce hip flexion and knee extension.

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15
Q

What is the sensory territory of the femoral nerve?

A

Anterior thigh and medial leg via the saphenous nerve.

Saphenous is its terminal sensory branch continuing below the knee.

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16
Q

What are the roots of the obturator nerve?

A

L2–L4 anterior divisions.

It descends medial to psoas and exits through the obturator foramen to the medial thigh.

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17
Q

What muscles does the obturator nerve supply?

A

Adductor longus, brevis, magnus (part), gracilis, and obturator externus.

Responsible for thigh adduction and assists in hip stabilization.

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18
Q

What is a common surgical risk related to the obturator nerve?

A

Stimulation and adductor spasm during transurethral resection of the bladder.

The nerve lies close to the bladder wall and may require an obturator block to prevent this reflex.

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19
Q

Which spinal nerves form the sacral plexus?

A

L4–S4 ventral rami.

It lies on the anterior surface of the piriformis muscle and supplies posterior thigh, leg, and perineum.

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20
Q

What are the main terminal branches of the sacral plexus?

A

Sciatic and pudendal nerves.

Other branches include superior/inferior gluteal, posterior femoral cutaneous, and small muscular branches.

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21
Q

Which structure joins L4 and L5 to form the lumbosacral trunk?

A

A descending branch of L4 and the anterior ramus of L5.

This trunk connects lumbar and sacral plexuses, contributing to the sciatic nerve.

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22
Q

What are the roots of the sciatic nerve?

A

L4–S3.

The largest nerve in the body; formed from both tibial (anterior) and common fibular (posterior) divisions.

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23
Q

What muscles are innervated by the sciatic nerve before it divides?

A

Hamstring muscles and adductor magnus (part).

It provides posterior thigh motor function before dividing at or above the popliteal fossa.

24
Q

Where does the sciatic nerve divide into tibial and common fibular branches?

A

Usually near the apex of the popliteal fossa.

Division point is variable, occasionally occurring high in the pelvis.

25
What is the clinical significance of the sciatic nerve?
Target for sciatic nerve block used for leg and foot surgery. It must be blocked proximal to its bifurcation for full coverage.
26
What are the roots of the pudendal nerve?
S2–S4. Provides motor to external anal sphincter and perineal muscles, sensory to genitalia.
27
What is a pudendal nerve block used for?
Perineal and obstetric analgesia. It anesthetizes perineum, external genitalia, and lower vagina during labor or episiotomy.
28
Which dermatomes correspond to the anterior thigh?
L2–L3. Anterior cutaneous branches of femoral nerve supply these regions.
29
Which dermatomes correspond to the medial leg and ankle?
L4. Transmitted by the saphenous branch of femoral nerve.
30
Which dermatomes correspond to the dorsum of foot and big toe?
L5. Primarily supplied by superficial peroneal and deep peroneal nerves.
31
Which dermatomes correspond to the lateral foot and sole?
S1. Served by sural and tibial branches.
32
What are the main myotomes responsible for knee extension?
L3–L4. Femoral nerve and quadriceps group produce knee extension.
33
Which myotomes control ankle plantarflexion?
S1–S2. Innervation from tibial nerve to gastrocnemius and soleus.
34
Which myotomes control ankle dorsiflexion?
L4–L5. Supplied by the deep peroneal nerve to tibialis anterior.
35
Where is local anesthetic deposited for a lumbar plexus (psoas compartment) block?
Within the fascial plane of the psoas major muscle posteriorly. Targets the lumbar plexus between psoas and quadratus lumborum for femoral, obturator, and LFCN coverage.
36
What are key landmarks for lumbar plexus block using landmark technique?
Line from midline spinous process to iliac crest; needle inserted 4 cm lateral to L4 spinous process. Insertion depth 6–8 cm typically yields quadriceps twitch indicating proximity to plexus.
37
What is the most common motor response confirming correct lumbar plexus block placement?
Quadriceps or patellar twitch. Indicates femoral nerve stimulation and proximity to the plexus within psoas.
38
What are main risks of lumbar plexus block?
Epidural spread, renal or vascular puncture, and retroperitoneal hematoma. Deep block near major vessels and neuraxis increases complication risk.
39
Where is local anesthetic injected for a femoral nerve block?
Lateral to the femoral artery, deep to fascia iliaca. This targets the nerve beneath fascia iliaca at the inguinal crease.
40
What is the usual volume for femoral nerve block?
15–20 mL. Adequate to spread beneath fascia iliaca and surround the femoral nerve for surgical anesthesia.
41
What motor response confirms correct femoral nerve block placement?
Quadriceps contraction or patellar snap. Indicates femoral nerve stimulation.
42
What is a clinical indication for femoral nerve block?
Analgesia for femur or knee surgery and postoperative pain control after total knee arthroplasty. Provides effective anterior thigh and knee analgesia.
43
What is the goal of fascia iliaca block?
Spread local anesthetic beneath fascia iliaca to block femoral, lateral femoral cutaneous, and obturator nerves. Large volume (30–40 mL) is used to ensure cephalad and lateral spread under the fascia.
44
How is correct placement of local anesthetic confirmed in fascia iliaca block?
Hydrodissection showing separation of fascia iliaca from iliacus muscle. Visualizing spread under fascia confirms successful plane injection.
45
What is the purpose of an obturator nerve block?
Prevent adductor spasm during transurethral bladder surgery. Blocks adductor longus, brevis, magnus, and external obturator motor branches.
46
Where is local anesthetic deposited for obturator block?
Between adductor longus and adductor brevis or between brevis and magnus. Ultrasound guidance improves accuracy and reduces vascular puncture risk.
47
What approaches are used for sciatic nerve block?
Posterior (classic Labat), subgluteal, and popliteal approaches. Choice depends on surgical site; posterior covers proximal thigh, popliteal covers distal leg and foot.
48
What motor response confirms correct sciatic block placement?
Foot or toe movement (plantarflexion/dorsiflexion). Confirms proximity to tibial and peroneal components.
49
What volume is used for sciatic nerve block?
20–25 mL. Sufficient to surround both divisions before or after bifurcation.
50
What is the purpose of a saphenous nerve block?
Provide anesthesia to the medial leg and ankle. Used with popliteal sciatic block for complete lower leg coverage.
51
Where is local anesthetic deposited for a saphenous block?
Subcutaneous ring around the medial tibial surface near the knee or ankle. Covers saphenous branch of femoral nerve supplying medial skin.
52
What is the key advantage of a popliteal block?
Allows anesthesia of the foot while preserving hamstring function. The sciatic nerve is blocked distal to branches to hamstrings.
53
Which structures are visualized in popliteal block under ultrasound?
Tibial and common peroneal nerves adjacent to popliteal artery and vein. These nerves appear as two hyperechoic ovals just above the fossa apex.
54
Which combination of blocks provides complete anesthesia for lower leg surgery?
Femoral (or saphenous) + sciatic (popliteal) blocks. Covers all distal sensory and motor territories below the knee.
55
Why should large volumes in deep blocks like lumbar plexus be avoided in anticoagulated patients?
Risk of retroperitoneal hematoma and compressive neuropathy. Anticoagulation increases bleeding risk in confined retroperitoneal space.
56
Which block carries the highest risk of epidural spread?
Lumbar plexus (psoas compartment) block. Close proximity to neuraxis allows inadvertent spread into epidural space.