Provide an ultimate explanation for why men are more likely than women to be involved in lethal violence
• Because the variants for reproductive success in men and women are different, so men would take the risk of being violent to assert their dominance and be good mates. Women have better reproductive success if they survive longer
It is possible that human male psychology includes mechanisms that facultatively adjust the propensity toward violence as a function of social circumstances. All else being equal, how would you expect homicide rates to differ between a society characterized by polygynous marriage and a society characterized by lifelong monogamous marriage? Provide an ultimate explanation to accompany your response
Because societies differ on many dimensions (and hence “all else being equal” rarely applies), in reality, it is difficult to empirically investigate the questions posed in (b). However, another avenue for investigating the proposal that the male propensity toward violence is facultatively adjusted as a function of social circumstances involves differences between societies in the level of social inequality. Explain how social inequality affects homicide rates, and provide an ultimate explanation for this pattern.
Young men often take more recreational (i.e., non-instrumental) risks when observers are present then would be optimal to impress young women. Provide an ultimate explanation for this pattern.
• Intrasexual competition. Have to assert male dominance—observers are other men and then they can assert dominance and as a potential ally that other men would want to be around.
Married men engage in less risk-taking, and are involved in fewer homicides, than unmarried men. Two possible proximate explanations for this pattern were discussed in the course.
i) Describe these two proximate explanations
• Testosterone level decreases