FINAL- GI Flashcards

(50 cards)

1
Q

Define dyspepsia.

A

Chronic or recurrent pain/discomfort in the upper abdomen—especially postprandial fullness, epigastric pain, or burning.

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2
Q

What are common causes of dyspepsia?

A

PUD, GERD, biliary colic, medication-induced gastritis.

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3
Q

Which medications can cause dyspepsia?

A

NSAIDs, salicylates, erythromycin, theophylline, corticosteroids.

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4
Q

What is the first-line treatment for functional dyspepsia?

A

Empiric trial of PPI.

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5
Q

What causes GERD?

A

Inappropriate LES relaxation, low LES pressure, delayed gastric emptying, decreased esophageal clearance.

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6
Q

What is the gold standard for diagnosing GERD?

A

Upper endoscopy (EGD).

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7
Q

What lifestyle changes help manage GERD?

A

Weight loss, HOB elevation, avoid late meals, reduce fat intake, stop smoking.

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8
Q

Which medications are used to treat GERD?

A

Antacids, H2 blockers (e.g., ranitidine), PPIs (e.g., omeprazole), metoclopramide.

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9
Q

What are the risks of long-term PPI use?

A

Atrophic gastritis, B12 deficiency, C. difficile, osteoporosis.

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10
Q

What is Barrett’s esophagus?

A

Premalignant condition with columnar epithelium replacing squamous epithelium in distal esophagus.

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11
Q

What is peptic ulcer disease (PUD)?

A

Ulceration of the gastric or duodenal mucosa, 5mm or larger, penetrating the muscularis mucosa.

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12
Q

What are the most common causes of PUD?

A

H. pylori infection and NSAID use.

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13
Q

What is the classic symptom pattern of duodenal ulcers?

A

Gnawing pain 2–5 hours after meals or at night, relieved by food or antacids.

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14
Q

What is Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome?

A

A condition with excess gastrin production leading to high acid output and recurrent ulcers.

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15
Q

What tests are used to detect H. pylori?

A

Urea breath test, stool antigen, biopsy via EGD, or serology.

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16
Q

What is the gold standard diagnostic tool for ulcers?

A

Endoscopy (EGD), especially for gastric ulcers or alarm symptoms.

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17
Q

Which medications are used for acid suppression?

A

H2 blockers (e.g., ranitidine), PPIs (e.g., omeprazole), and prostaglandins (e.g., misoprostol).

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18
Q

How is H. pylori treated?

A

Triple or quadruple therapy with PPI, antibiotics (amoxicillin, metronidazole, clarithromycin, or tetracycline), and bismuth.

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19
Q

How does pain from gastric ulcers differ from duodenal ulcers?

A

Pain worsens with food; may occur in LUQ.

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20
Q

What are common causes of nausea and vomiting?

A

Gastroenteritis, gastritis, drugs (e.g., opioids, antibiotics), MI, increased ICP, pregnancy.

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21
Q

Which antibiotics are commonly used for traveler’s diarrhea?

A

Ciprofloxacin or azithromycin.

22
Q

What are examples of stimulant vs bulk-forming laxatives?

A

Psyllium (Metamucil), methylcellulose= Bulk forming/ Senna, bisacodyl= Stimulant

23
Q

What is Irritable Bowel Syndrome (IBS)?

A

A functional GI disorder with abdominal pain and altered bowel habits without structural cause.

24
Q

What is a useful diet for IBS patients?

A

Low FODMAP diet.

25
What is diverticulitis?
Inflammation of diverticula, causing LLQ pain, fever, leukocytosis.
26
What are common symptoms of diverticulitis?
Fever, LLQ pain, nausea, vomiting, altered bowel habits.
27
What is initial treatment for uncomplicated diverticulitis?
Oral antibiotics (e.g., ciprofloxacin + metronidazole) and clear liquid diet.
28
What are risk factors for colorectal cancer?
Age >50, family history, polyps, IBD, high-fat/low-fiber diet, smoking.
29
What is the gold standard for CRC screening?
Colonoscopy.
30
At what age should CRC screening begin for average-risk adults?
At age 50 (or 45 per recent guidelines).
31
Where does Crohn’s disease affect the GI tract?
Anywhere from mouth to anus; commonly terminal ileum.
32
What are hallmark features of Crohn's disease?
Skip lesions, transmural inflammation, fistulas.
33
What are hallmark features of ulcerative colitis?
Continuous colonic involvement starting at rectum, mucosal inflammation.
34
What is the first-line treatment for mild UC?
5-ASA agents (mesalamine, sulfasalazine).
35
What is used for moderate-severe IBD?
Corticosteroids, immunomodulators, or biologics.
36
How is lactose intolerance diagnosed?
Hydrogen breath test or symptom improvement with lactose-free diet.
37
What lab tests are used to screen for celiac?
tTG-IgA and total serum IgA.
38
What is the gold standard for celiac diagnosis?
Small bowel biopsy via endoscopy.
39
What is the treatment for non-severe C. diff?
PO Vancomycin or Fidaxomicin for 10–14 days.
40
What is the treatment for fulminant C. diff?
High-dose PO vancomycin + IV metronidazole; rectal vancomycin if ileus.
41
What is gastroenteritis?
Inflammation of the stomach and intestines causing nausea, vomiting, anorexia, and diarrhea.
42
Which pathogens commonly cause bacterial gastroenteritis?
Salmonella, Shigella, E. coli (STEC), Campylobacter, Listeria.
43
Which viruses commonly cause foodborne gastroenteritis?
Norovirus, Hepatitis A, Rotavirus.
44
Which parasites can cause gastroenteritis?
Giardia, Cryptosporidium, Cyclospora, Toxoplasma gondii.
45
What symptoms suggest small bowel infection?
Watery, high-volume diarrhea.
46
What symptoms suggest large bowel infection?
Bloody diarrhea and lower abdominal cramping.
47
Which pathogens cause illness within 6 hours of ingestion?
Staphylococcus aureus and Bacillus cereus.
48
What are key physical exam findings in gastroenteritis?
Signs of dehydration, orthostasis, and hypoalbuminemia.
49
What does the presence of WBCs and RBCs in stool suggest?
Colonic or inflammatory source.
50
What are initial treatments for gastroenteritis?
Oral rehydration with Pedialyte or Gatorade; IV fluids if severe.