1
Q
Application: A patient with anemia likely has a deficiency of:
A
Red blood cells
2
Q
Which component of blood helps to maintain osmotic pressure?
A
Albumin
3
Q
Which blood type is the universal donor?
A
O
4
Q
Which cell type is the first responder to bacterial infection?
A
Neutrophil
5
Q
Which white blood cell is responsible for producing antibodies?
A
lymphocytes
6
Q
Which leukocyte is the most abundant in normal blood?
A
Neutrophil
7
Q
What protein in red blood cells binds oxygen?
A
Hemoglobin
8
Q
Which part of the hemoglobin molecule binds oxygen?
A
Iron ion
9
Q
Which hormone stimulates red blood cell production?
A
Erythropoietin
10
Q
Which condition is characterized by excessive red blood cell production?
A
Polycythemia
11
Q
Which blood test measures the percentage of red blood cells in blood?
A
Hematocrit
12
Q
Which cell type is the first responder to bacterial infection?
A
Neutrophil
13
Q
Which leukocyte is the most abundant in normal blood?
A
Neutrophil
14
Q
What protein in red blood cells binds oxygen?
A
Hemoglobin
15
Q
Which component of blood helps to maintain osmotic pressure?
A
Albumin
16
Q
Which part of the hemoglobin molecule binds oxygen?
A
iron ion
17
Q
Which formed element is responsible for blood clotting?
A
Platelets
18
Q
Scenario: A patient with leukemia has an abnormal increase in:
A
White blood cells
19
Q
Which plasma protein plays a role in blood clotting?
A
Fibrinogen
20
Q
What is the typical lifespan of a red blood cell?
A
120 days
21
Q
Which blood type is the universal recipient?
A
AB
22
Q
Which part of the hemoglobin molecule binds oxygen?
A
Iron ion
23
Q
Which organ is primarily responsible for removing old red blood cells?
A
Spleen
24
Q
Which of the following is a component of plasma?
A
Albumin
25
Application: A patient with anemia likely has a deficiency of:
Red blood cells
26
What term describes the process of blood cell formation?
Hematopolesis
27
Which leukocyte is the most abundant in normal blood?
Neutrophil
28
What is the primary function of white blood cells?
Immune defense
29
Which formed element is responsible for blood clotting?
Platelets
30
Scenario: A patient with leukemia has an abnormal increase in:
White blood cells
31
Which layer of the heart wall is composed of cardiac muscle?
Myocardium
32
Which structure prevents backflow of blood into the left atrium?
Mitral valve
33
What causes the 'lub' sound of the heartbeat?
Closing of AV valves
34
Which condition refers to an irregular heartbeat?
Arrhythmia
35
What is the term for relaxation of the heart muscle?
Diastole
36
Which node is known as the heart's natural pacemaker?
SA node
37
What is the function of the sinoatrial (SA) node?
Initiate heart contractions
38
Which of the following valves separates the right atrium and right ventricle?
Tricuspid
39
Which structure anchors heart valves to papillary muscles?
Chordae tendineae
40
During ventricular systole, which valves are open?
Semilunar valves
41
Which condition refers to an irregular heartbeat?
Arrhythmia
42
What is the function of the sinoatrial (SA) node?
Initiate heart contractions
43
Application: If the mitral valve is leaky, blood may flow backward into the:
Left atrium
44
Which structure prevents backflow of blood into the left atrium?
Mitral valve
45
Which part of the ECG represents ventricular depolarization?
ORS complex
46
Which chamber pumps blood to the lungs?
Right ventricle
47
What is the term for relaxation of the heart muscle?
Diastole
48
Which chamber pumps blood to the lungs?
Right ventricle
49
The left ventricle pumps blood into the:
Aorta
50
During ventricular systole, which valves are open?
Semilunar valves
51
Which chamber of the heart receives oxygen-poor blood from the body?
Right atrium
52
Which term describes local regulation of blood flow?
Autoregulation
53
Which layer of a blood vessel contains smooth muscle?
Tunica media
54
Which hormone increases blood pressure by vasoconstriction?
Epinephrine
55
Which blood vessels are under the most pressure?
Arteries
56
What term describes the volume of blood flowing through a vessel per unit time?
Blood flow
57
Which factor increases vascular resistance?
Longer wessal length
58
Which artery supplies blood to the brain?
Carotid artery
59
Which vessels have the greatest total cross-sectional area?
Capillaries
60
Which term describes the contraction of blood vessel walls?
Vasoconstriction
61
Application: In response to hemorrhage, what physiological changes help maintain blood pressure
increased peripheral resistance
62
Which artery supplies blood to the brain?
Carotid artery
63
What term describes the volume of blood flowing through a vessel per unit time?
Blood flow
64
Which term describes the contraction of blood vessel walls?
Vasoconstriction
65
Which factor does NOT directly affect blood pressure?
Lung capacity
66
Which factor increases vascular resistance?
Longer vessel length
67
Which term describes local regulation of blood flow?
Autoregulation
68
Which hormone increases blood pressure by vasoconstriction?
Epinephrine
69
Which vessel carries oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart?
Pulmonary vein
70
Which structure connects arterioles to venules?
Captares
71
What is the primary function of precapillary sphincters?
Regulate flow into capillaries
72
Which cell type is responsible for producing antibodies?
B cells
73
Where are T cells educated and matured?
Thymus
74
Which type of immunity results from vaccination?
Active artificial
75
Which antigen-presenting cells activate naive T cells?
[lendritic calls
76
Which structure filters lymph before it is returned to the blood?
Lymph node
77
Which organ removes old or damaged red blood cells?
spleen
78
Which of the following is NOT a function of the lymphatic system?
Filter blood
79
Which type of T cell directly kills infected cells?
Cytotoxic T cells
80
Which part of the lymphatic system transports absorbed fats?
Lactcals
81
Which cells are the first line of defense against pathogens?
Neutrophils
82
Which type of immunity is present at birth and provides immediate defense?
innate immunity
83
Which type of T cell directly kills infected cells?
Cytotoxic T cells
84
Where are T cells educated and matured?
Thymus
85
Which part of the lymphatic system transports absorbed fats?
Lactcals
86
Which antibody is found in breast milk and provides mucosal immunity?
IgA
87
What is the role of memory cells in immunity?
Enable faster response to future infections
88
Which organ removes old or damaged red blood cells?
Spleen
89
Which lymphatic structure drains the right upper limb and right side of the head?
Right lymphatic duct
90
Which structure filters lymph before it is returned to the blood?
Lymph node
91
Which process marks pathogens for destruction?
Opsonization
92
Which of the following carries oxygen-rich blood from the lungs to the heart?
Pulmendry vein
93
Which membrane covers the surface of the lungs?
Visceral pleura
94
Which structure connects the larynx to the bronchi?
Trachea
95
Which gas is primarily transported as bicarbonate in the blood?
Carbon dioxide
96
Which muscle is primarily responsible for inspiration?
Diaphragm
97
Application: A person with obstructive lung disease would likely have difficulty with:
Exteling carbon doide
98
What is the primary chemical stimulus for breathing?
High carbon dioxide
99
What is the role of the nasal conchae?
Increase air turbulenco and surface area
100
What term describes the maximum amount of air a person can exhale after a maximum inhale
Vita capacity
101
Which law explains the inverse relationship between pressure and volume in the lungs?
Boyle's law
102
Which muscle is primarily responsible for inspiration?
Diaphragm
103
Which disorder is characterized by destruction of alveolar walls?
Emphysema
104
Which structure connects the larynx to the bronchi?
Trachea
105
What is the function of surfactant in the alveoli?
Prevent alveolarcollapse.
106
What is the term for normal, quiet breathing?
Eupnea
107
Which law explains the inverse relationship between pressure and volume in the lungs
Boyle's law
108
Which of the following carries oxygen-rich blood from the lungs to the heart?
Pulmonary vein
109
Scenario: A patient has difficulty breathing due to fluid in the pleural cavity.
Pleural effusion
110
What is the primary chemical stimulus for breathing?
High carbon dioxide
111
Where is the respiratory control center located?
Medulla oblongau
112
Which part of the digestive tract has a brush border?
Duodenum
113
Which structure prevents reflux of stomach contents into the esophagus?
Lower esophageal sphincter
114
Which hormone stimulates the release of gastric juice?
Gastrin
115
Which organ stores bile?
Gallbladder
116
Scenario: A patient has a blockage in the pancreatic duct. Which process is most directly affected?
enzyme delivery to duodenum
117
Which vitamin is produced by bacteria in the large intestine?
Vitamin K
118
What is the function of the liver in digestion?
Produce bile
119
Which region of the stomach connects to the duodenum?
Pylorus
120
Which structure regulates movement of food from the small intestine to the large intestine?
licococal valve
121
Application: Removal of the gallbladder would affect digestion
Fats
122
Which region of the stomach connects to the duodenum?
Pylorus
123
Which region of the stomach connects to the duodenum?
Pylorus
124
What is the function of the liver in digestion?
Produce bile
125
Which structure regulates movement of food from the small intestine to the large intestine?
lleocecal valve
126
What is the role of bile in digestion?
Emulsify fats
127
Which structure prevents food from entering the nasal cavity during swallowing?
Soft palate
128
What is chyme?
Partially digested food in the stomach
129
Scenario: A patient has a blockage in the pancreatic duct. Which process is most directly affected?
Enzyme delivery to duodenum
130
Which organ stores bile?
Gallbladder
131
Which hormone stimulates the release of gastric juice?
Gastrin
132
Which of the following is an accessory organ of digestion?
Pancrcas
133
Which nutrient provides the most energy per gram?
Fats
134
What is the primary function of dietary fiber?
Aid digestion
135
What is the end product of glycolysis?
Pyruvate
136
What is the function of antioxidants?
Neutralize free radicals
137
Which of the following is a water-soluble vitamin?
Vitamin C
138
Which of the following is a macronutrient?
Fat
139
Which condition results from vitamin C deficiency?
Scurvy
140
What is basal metabolic rate (BMR)?
Calories needed for basic body functions at rest
141
Which process breaks down molecules to release energy?
Catabolism
142
Which of the following is not considered an essential nutrient?
Cholesterol
143
What is the primary function of dietary fiber?
Aid digestion
144
What is the primary site for lipid absorption?
jejunum
145
Which vitamin is essential for calcium absorption?
Vitamin D
146
What is the main energy currency of the cell?
ATP
147
Which process converts excess glucose into glycogen?
glycogenesis
148
Which process synthesizes glucose from non-carbohydrate sources?
Gluconcogenesis
149
Which of the following is a macronutrient?
Fat
150
What is basal metabolic rate (BMR)?
Calories needed for basic body functions at rest
151
Which nutrient provides the most energy per gram?
Fats
152
What is metabolism?
All chemical reactions in the body
153
Which hormone increases water reabsorption in the kidneys?
ADH
154
Which part of the nephron creates a concentration gradient in the medulla?
Loop of Henle
155
What is the functional unit of the kidney?
Nephron
156
Which component helps concentrate urine in the nephron loop?
Vasa recta
157
Which structure connects the kidney to the bladder?
Ureter
158
Which of the following is NOT normally found in urine?
Glucose
159
Scenario: A patient is dehydrated. Which hormone would be secreted to conserve water?
ADH
160
Where does most reabsorption occur in the nephron?
Proximal tubule
161
Which hormone is released by the kidney to stimulate red blood cell production?
Erythropoietin
162
Which process involves movement of substances from the blood into the nephron after filtration?
secretion
163
Which fluid compartment contains the majority of body water?
Intracellular
164
Application: A person has been vomiting excessively. What acid-base imbalance may result?
Metabolic alkalosis
165
What is the normal pH range of blood?
7.35-7.45
166
Which condition can result from uncontrolled diabetes mellitus?
Metabolic acidosis
167
What effect does ADH have on urine concentration?
Decreases urine volume
168
Which of the following helps regulate calcium levels in body fluids?
Calcitonin
169
What percentage of the human body is water?
55-65%
170
Which hormone increases water reabsorption in the kidneys?
ADH
171
Scenario: A patient with hyponatremia has low levels of:
Sodium
172
Which organ plays the biggest role in acid-base balance?
Kidney
173
Which condition occurs when there is too little potassium in the blood?
Hypokalemia
174
Which organ plays the biggest role in acid-base balance?
Kidney
175
What is the primary intracellular cation?
Potassium
176
Which hormone increases water reasorption in the kidneys?
ADH
177
Which process describes movement of water across a membrane?
Osmosis
178
Which hormone is part of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system?
Aldosterone
179
Application: A person has been vomiting excessively. What acid-base imbalance may result?
Metabolic alkalosis
180
Scenario: A patient with hyponatremia has low levels
Sodium
181
Which term refers to the condition of excessive fluid in the interstitial space?
Edema
181
Which of the following helps regulate calcium levels in body fluids?
Calcitonin
182
Which structure is cut during a tubal ligation?
Fallopian tube
183
Where does fertilization usually occur?
Fallopian tube
184
What is the function of the prostate gland?
Neutralize vaginal acidity
185
What event occurs during ovulation?
Release of the egg
186
Which hormone is responsible for the development of secondary sex characteristics in males?
Testosterone
187
Which hormone stimulates ovulation?
LH
188
Which structure provides the site for implantation of a fertilized egg?
Endometrium
189
What is the primary function of the reproductive system?
Ensure the continuation of the species
190
What is the name of the process by which sperm are produced?
Spermatorenesis
191
Which structure in males transports both urine and semen?
Urethra
192
Application: A female with low estrogen may experience:
Delayed puberty
193
Which structure in males transports both urine and semen?
Urethra
194
Which hormone stimulates spermatogenesis?
FSH
195
Which female hormone is primarily produced after ovulation?
Progesterone
196
Which gland produces a sugar-rich fluid to nourish sperm?
Seminal vesicle
197
Which organ is responsible for housing the developing fetus?
Uterus
198
Which gland produces a sugar-rich fluid to nourish sperm?
Seminal vesicle
199
Which hormone is responsible for the development of secondary sex characteristics in males?
Testosterone
200
What event occurs during ovulation?
Release of the egg
201
Where does fertilization usually occur?
Fallopian tube
202
What triggers menstruation?
Drop in progesterone and estrogen
203
Where does fertilization usually occur?
Fallopian tube
Barton A&P1
flashcards
Decks in class (40)
# Cards
-
3.1 Cell Membrane15
-
3.1 Membrane Proteins50
-
3.2 The Cytoplasm and Cellular Organelles44
-
3.3 The Nucleus and DNA Replication26
-
3.4 Protein Synthesis36
-
3.5 Cell Growth and Division55
-
3.6 Cellular Differentiation15
-
4.1 Types of Tissues27
-
4.2 Epithelial Tissue30
-
4.2 Stratified Epithelium21
-
4.3 Connective Tissue Supports and Protects47
-
4.4 Muscle Tissue and Motion11
-
4.5 Nervous Tissue Mediates Perception and Response12
-
4.6 Tissue Injury and Aging18
-
5.1 Layers of the Skin47
-
5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin44
-
5.3 Functions of the Integumentary System8
-
5.4 Diseases, Disorders, and Injuries of the Integumentary System14
-
5.4 cont20
-
6.1 The Functions of the Skeletal System13
-
6.2 Bone Classification10
-
6.3 Bone Structure48
-
6.4 Bone Formation and Development28
-
6.5 Fractures: Bone Repair8
-
6.6 Exercise, Nutrition, Hormones, and Bone Tissue0
-
6.7 Calcium Homeostasis4
-
7.1 Divisions of the Skeletal System12
-
7.2 Anterior View of Skull26
-
7.2 Lateral View of Skull7
-
7.2 Bones of the Brain Case15
-
7.2 Temporal Bone14
-
7.2 Continued34
-
7.2 Sutures of the Skull12
-
7.2 Facial Bones of the Skull46
-
7.2 The Orbit32
-
7.3 The Vertebral Column84
-
7.5 Embryonic Development of the Axial Skeleton8
-
8.1 The Pectoral Girdle20
-
Final Study204
-
Final Study 270
