Finals Flashcards

(76 cards)

1
Q

A three-phase bone scan is often done to differentiate
(a) Osteoporosis vs. cellulitis
(b) Osteomyelitis vs. diskitis
(c) Osteomyelitis vs. cellulitis
(d) Osteoporosis vs. septic arthritis

A

(c) Osteomyelitis vs. cellulitis

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2
Q

What is the purpose of a reducing agent in a 99mTc diphosphonate kit?
(a) To oxidize technetium
(b) To lower the valence state of technetium
(c) To improve the tag efficiency
(d) Both (b) and (c)

A

(d) Both (b) and (c)

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3
Q

Which of the following is least likely to cause an artifact on bone scan?

(a) Snap on trousers
(b) Colostomy bag
(c) Skin contaminated by urine
(d) Injection site

A

(b) Colostomy bag

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4
Q

What is not an indication for a bone scan?
(a) Metastatic disease
(b) Osteoporosis
(c) Cellulitis
(d) Avascular necrosis

A

(b) Osteoporosis

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5
Q

The presence of free pertechnetate on a pone scan may be the result of:

(a) Using a radiopharmaceutical which was prepared too long ago
(b) Introduction of air into the kit vial while adding technetium
(c) Increased blood flow to bones
(d) Both (a) and (b)

A

(d) Both (a) and (b)

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6
Q

What is the purpose of hydration and voiding after an injection for a bone scan?

(a) To block the uptake of unlabeled technetium by the stomach
(b) To reduce the possibility of urine contamination
(c) To obtain a superscan
(d) To reduce the radiation dose to the bladder

A

(d) To reduce the radiation dose to the bladder

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6
Q

The presence of free pertechnetate on a pone scan may be the result of:

(a) Using a radiopharmaceutical which was prepared too long ago
(b) Introduction of air into the kit vial while adding technetium
(c) Increased blood flow to bones
(d) Both (a) and (b)

A

(d) Both (a) and (b)

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7
Q

What timing protocol best describes a four-phase bone scan?
(a) During injection, immediately following injection, 2-4 h, and 18-24 h
(b) During injection, 2-4 h, 24 h, and 48h
(c) During injection, immediately following injection, 2-4 h, and 6 h
(d) None of the above

A

(a) During injection, immediately following injection, 2-4 h, and 18-24 h

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8
Q

A bone scan showing relatively uniformly increased skeletal uptake
of radiopharmaceutical with almost absent renal and bladder activity is usually referred to as a:
(a) Flare phenomenon
(b) Superscan
(c) Renal failure
(d) Suprascan

A

(b) Superscan

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9
Q

What are common sites of bony metastasis?
(a) Pelvis
(b) Spine
(c) Ribs
(d) All of the above

A

(d) All of the above

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10
Q

What is the purpose of a stannous ion in a diphosphonate kit?
(a) Acts as a reducing agent
(b) Acts as an oxidizing agent
(c) Provides a stabilizing force
(d) Maintains particle size

A

(a) Acts as a reducing agent

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11
Q

By what mechanism do diphosphonates localize in the bone?
(a) Capillary blockade
(b) Active transport
(c) lon exchange
(d) Phagocytosis

A

(d) Phagocytosis

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12
Q

Which of the following describes a pediatric bone scan?
(a) Increased uptake in long bones
(b) Decreased uptake along epiphyseal plates
(c) Increased uptake along epiphyseal plates
(d) Overall decreased uptake in bone

A

(c) Increased uptake along epiphyseal plates

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13
Q

The first phase of a three-phase bone scan is best performed by:

(a) Bolus injection followed by dynamic 2 s images for 60 s
(b) Bolus injection followed by dynamic 20 s images for 3 min
(c) Bolus injection followed by a static 500-600 K count image
(d) Bolus injection followed by dynamic 1 s images for 30 s

A

(a) Bolus injection followed by dynamic 2 s images for 60 s

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14
Q

Osteoblastic activity refers to:
(a) Bone marrow biopsy
(b) Destruction and reabsorption of bone
(c) Bone compression
(d) New bone formation

A

(d) New bone formation

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15
Q

What is an advantage of spot planar imaging over whole body
imaging for a bone scan?
(a) Speed.
(b) Decreased patient to detector distance.
(c) Less film is used.
(d) No need for COR correction.

A

(b) Decreased patient to detector distance.

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16
Q

The preparation for a bone scan is:
(a) NPO from midnight.
(b) Cleansing enema.
(c) The patient must be off thyroid medication for 4 weeks.
(d) None of the above.

A

(d) None of the above.

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17
Q

The advantages) of bone scanning over
plain radiography is:
(a) Bone must lose only a minimum of calcium content before lesions are visible on bone scintigraphy.
(b) Time.
(c) Efficient for multifocal trauma such as child abuse.
(d) All of the above.
(e) (a) and (c) only.

A

(e) (a) and (c) only

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18
Q

The mechanism of localization for bone marrow scanning is: (d ko sure if naa ni)
(a) Active transport
(b) lon exchange
(c) Phagocytosis
(d) Capillary blockade

A

(c) Phagocytosis

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19
Q

Rib fractures often show up as:
(a) Multiple focal hot spots located in consecutive ribs
(b) A linear distribution along the long axis of the rib
(c) Diffuse activity in the chest cavity
(d) Cold spots

A

(a) Multiple focal hot spots located in consecutive ribs

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20
Q

In the event of a spill of 99mTc to clothes, one should immediately:
(a) Enter a shower fully clothed
(b) Remove and store the clothes until they decay to background
(c) Wash the clothes in hot water and then survey them to determine remaining activity
(d) Remove and destroy the clothing

A

(b) Remove and store the clothes until they decay to background

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21
Q

If affadiopharmaceutical is spilled on the floor, The first priority is to:
(a) Contact the Radiation Safety Officer
(b) Pour a chelating solution over the area of the spill
(c) Cover the area with absorbent paper and restrict access around it
(d) Call the housekeeping department to arrange for cleaning

A

(c) Cover the area with absorbent paper and restrict access around it

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22
Q

The inverse square law, in words, says:
(a) If you double the distance from the source of activity, you reduce exposure to 25% of the original intensity.
(b) If you halve the distance from the source of activity, you decrease exposure to 25 % of the original intensity.
(c) If you halve the distance from the source of activity, you decrease exposure to one-fourth of the original intensity.

A

(a) If you double the distance from the source of activity, you reduce exposure to 25% of the original intensity.

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23
Q

What is the best way to decrease the radioactive dose to visitors if a patient is surveyed to emit 3 mR/h at bedside?
(a) Have the patient wear lead aprons
(b) Keep the patient well hydrated and encourage frequent voiding.
(c) Have the visitor sit or stand as far as possible from bedside.
(d) Have the visitor wear lead shielding

A

(c) Have the visitor sit or stand as far as possible from bedside.

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24
Which of the following should be used when administering an intravenous pharmaceutical to a patient? (a) Lead syringe shield (b) Leaded eyeglasses (c) Gloves
(c) Gloves
25
Which of the following is the most effective means of measuring low levels of removable radiation? (a) By performing an area survey (b) By performing a wipe test (c) With a pocket dosimeter (d) With a TLD
(b) By performing a wipe test
26
If the dose rate at 3 m from a radioactive source is 100 mrem/h, what will the dose rate be at 6 m? (a) 25 mR/h (b) 50 mR/h (c) 75 mR/h (d) 12.5 mR/h
(a) 25 mR/h
27
The philosophy of the ALARA program is to eep the radiation dose: (a) As low as recently authorized (b) As long as reasonably attained (c) As long as reasonably acceptable (d) As low as reasonably achievable
(d) As low as reasonably achievable
28
Which of the following would be used to perform a survey of an area in which a small amount of radioactivity is expected to be present? (a) lonization chamber (b) Geiger-Muller counter (c) Well counter (d) Single probe counting system
(b) Geiger-Muller counter
29
All of the following are critical factors in keeping radiation exposure to a minimum except: (a) Time spent near the radioactive source (b) Geometry of the container holding the source of radiation (c) Distance from the source of radiation (d) Shielding of the radioactive source
(b) Geometry of the container holding the source of radiation
30
If the exposure rate at 4 m from a radioactive source is 5 mR/h, what will the exposure rate be at 3 m? (a) 2.8 mR/h (b) 6.5 mR/h (c) 7.4 mR/h (d) 8.9 mR/h
(d) 8.9 mR/h
31
Tools for measuring personal exposure to radiation include all of the following except: (a) Thermoluminescent dosimeter (b) Pocket ionization chamber (c) Film badge (d) Geiger-Mueller Counter
(d) Geiger-Mueller Counter
32
If a technologist sits 2 ft away from a generator and the dose rate at his chair is 15 mrem/h, what will the dose rate be if he moves his chair 4 ft from the generator? (a) 2.5 mrem/h (b) 3.75 mrem/h (c) 7.5 mrem/h (d) 60 mrem/h
(b) 3.75 mrem/h
33
Which of the following collimators will magnify an image? (a) Flat field (b) Diverging (c) Converging (d) High resolution
(c) Converging
34
What happens to image resolution as the distance between a patient and a parallel-hole collimator decreases? (mao daw ni nigawas ingon jared) (a) Improves (b) Worsens (c) Does not change
(a) Improves
35
What part of an imaging system emits light when it has absorbed a photon? (a) Photomultiplier tube (b) Pulse height analyzer (c) Scintillation crystal (d) Collimator
(c) Scintillation crystal
36
To obtain high-resolution images of a small gigan, gland, or joint, which collimator will be most useful? (a) Low-energy parallel hole (b) Flat field (c) Diverging (d) Pinhole
(d) Pinhole
37
alternative of beta decay
Electron Capture
38
99Mo generator reach equilibrium
24 hours
39
- the dose that the total body could receive (uniformly) that would give same cancer risk as various organ setting at diff doses
Effective dose
39
99Mo generator reach equilibrium
24 hours
40
treatment of leukemia
p-30: sodium chloride
41
refers to the introduction of the radiopharmaceutical into a well-defined anatomic compartment.
Compartmental localization
42
Used to identify an abnormal opening in an otherwise closed compartment, as when labeled RBCs are used to detect gastrointestinal bleeding.
Compartmental localization
43
Is simply the free movement of a substance from a region of high concentration to one of lower concentration.
Passive diffusion
44
Is simply the free movement of a substance from a region of high concentration to one of lower concentration.
Passive diffusion
44
protects and regulates access to the brain
blood-brain barrier
45
• Involves cellular metabolic processes that expend energy to concentrate the radiopharmaceutical into a tissue against a concentration gradient and above plasma levels.
Active Transport
46
When particles slightly larger than RBCs are injected intravenously, they become trapped in the capillary beds.
Capillary blockade
47
describes the movement of a cell such as a leukocyte in response to a chemical stimulus.
Chemotaxis
48
An ___ is a biomolecule (typically a protein) that is capable of inducing the production of, and binding to, an antibody in the body.
antigen
49
• The usual approach to assay radiochemical purity in vitro is ____
thin-layer chromatography
50
• The usual approach to assay radiochemical purity in vitro is ____
thin-layer chromatography
51
Mo.99 contamination in the Te-99m eluate is called
molybdenum breakthrough
52
Fraction of wanted vs unwanted chemical in preparation
Chemical Purity
53
Fraction of total ridicuctivity in desired chemical form
Radiochemical purity
54
Fraction of total radioactivity in the form of desired radionuclide
Radionuclide purity
55
Fraction of total ridicuctivity in desired chemical form
Radiochemical purity
56
Fraction of total pharmaceutical in desired physical form
Physical Purity
57
Absence of microorganisms and pyrogens
Biological Purity
58
Skeletal imaging agent used to demonstrate areas of hyper or hypo osteogenesis and/or osseous blood flow; cardiac agent as an adjunct in diagnosis of acute myocardial infarction.
T -99m Pyrophosphate
59
Estimate glomerular filtration rate
Tc99m Pentetate also known as Tc-99m DTPA
60
Treatment of polycythemia vera (PCV) most common; also myelocytic leukemia, chronic lymphocytic leukemia.
P-32 Sodium Phosphate (T) IV
61
Radioimmunotherapic monoclonal antibody for the treatment of chemotherapy-refractory low-grade or transformed low-grade Non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma
I-131 Tositumomab also known as Bexxar (T)
62
glucose analogue and viability of myocardium
F-18 Fluorodeoxyglucose
63
Localization of primary and metastatic neuroendocrine tumors bearing the somatostatin receptor.
In -111 Pentetreotide also known as Octreoscan (DI)
64
Diagnosis of myocardial ischemia and infarct. Also used for tumor imaging and parathyroid imaging.
Tc-99m Sestamibi also known as Cardiolite (DI)
65
used for diagnosis of hemangiomas.
Tc-99m Red Blood Cells
66
Relative functional assessment of liver, spleen, bone marrow RE system; also used for gastroesophageal reflux imaging; esophageal transit time following oral administration
Tc-99m Sulfur Coloid
67
Identification and semiquantitative assessment of myocardial ischemia and infarction. Delayed imaging used for myocardial viability.
Tl-201 Thallous Chloride
68
Treatment of unresectable hepatocellular carcinomas with beads (glass or resin) tagged with Y-90 that are delivered via a catheter to the liver. Bystander and/or radiation crossfire effect on cells of the microvasculature.
Y-90 Microspheres
69
Y-90 Microspheres method of localization
Radioembolization
70
Radioimmunotherapeutic monoclonal antibody for the treatment of relapsed or refractory low-grade, follicular or transformed B cell non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma
Y-90 Zevalin
71
test purity; determine amount of radiochemical impurity
thin layer chromatography
72
two primcipal radiochemical impurities in technetium labeled
free Tc-99m pertechnetate & hydrolyzes Tc-99m
73
Skeletal imaging agent. Three-phase (flow, blood pool, bone uptake) used to distinguish between cellulitis and osteomyelitis. Theory of bone uptake: (1) hydroxyapatite crystal binding; (2) collagen dependent uptake in organic bone matrix.
Tc-99m phosphonates also known as Tc-99m Methyenediphosphonate (MDP) (DI)