FLIGHT PLANNING

Question 1

Planning a VFR flight along magnetic track of 155, a suitable Flight Level would be:

FL 70

FL 65

FL 55

FL 80

Answer 1

FL 55

Question 2

VFR flights shall be flown over congested areas of cities at a height not less than [1] ___ above the highest obstacle within a radius of [2] ___ from the aircraft.

[1] 2000 ft, [2] 600 ft

[1] 1000 ft, [2] 300 m

[1] 1000 ft, [2] 600 m

[1] 1500 ft, [2] 900 ft

Answer 2

[1] 1000 ft, [2] 600 m

Question 3

The minimum sector altitude (MSA) on an instrument apppraoch chart is referenced to a radio navigation facility, usually within…

30 NM
5 NM
25 NM
20 NM

Answer 3

25 NM

Question 4

Excluding RVSM, an appropriate flight level (FL) for an IFR flight in accordance with the semi-circular height rules on a Magnetic Course 180 is:

FL115
FL85
FL100
FL90

Answer 4

FL100

Question 5

The Minimum Off-Route Altitude (MORA) provides obstruction clearance up to what distance from the airway centerline?

10 NM
5 NM
20 NM
1 NM

Answer 5

10 NM

Question 6

According GM1 CAT.OP.MPA.145 (b), the lowest MOCA to be indicated is…

2000 ft (600 m)
5000 ft (450 m)
500 ft (150 m)
1000 ft (300 m)

Answer 6

2000 ft (600 m)

Question 7

An airway is marked “3500T 2100 a” means the:

• Airway is a low level link route from 2100 ft to 3500 ft AMSL
• Minimum Obstacle Clearance Altitude (MOCA) is 3500 ft.
• Minimum En-route Altitude (MEA) is 3500 ft.
• Base of the Airway is 3500 ft MSL.

Answer 7

Minimum Obstacle Clearance Altitude (MOCA) is 3500 ft.

Question 8

An airway is marked “FL80 1500 a” means the…

• Base of the airway is 1500 ft MSL.
• Minimum En-route Altitude (MEA) is FL80.
• Airway extends from 1500 ft MSL to FL80.
• Minimum radio reception altitude (MRA) is 1500 ft AMSL.

Answer 8

• Minimum En-route Altitude (MEA) is FL80.

Question 9

The lowest altitude between radio fixes assuring navigational signal coverage and obstacle clearance is the:

• Minimum Sector Altitude (MSA)
• Minimum Enroute Altitude (MEA)
• Minimum Off Route Altitude (MORA)
• Minimum Obstacle Clearance Altitude (MOCA)

Answer 9

• Minimum Enroute Altitude (MEA)

Question 10

During IFR descent to an airport, who is responsible for terrain separation and obstacle clearance?

• The pilot in command (PIC), except the flight is RADAR vectored
• The pilot in command (PIC), except when flying in IMC
• The pilot in command (PIC) in all cases
• ATC in all cases

Answer 10

• The pilot in command (PIC), except the flight is RADAR vectored

Question 11

According SERA.5015, an IFR flight shall be flown at a level which is not below the minimum flight altitude, or, where no such minimum flight altitude has been established: if NOT over high terrain or in mountainous areas, at a level which is at least (1) ____ above the highest obstacle located within (2) ____ of the estimated position of the aircraft.

(1) 600 m (2000 ft), (2) 5 km
(1) 600 m (2000 ft), (2) 8 km
(1) 300 m (1000 ft), (2) 8 km
(1) 300 m (1000 ft), (2) 5 km

Answer 11

(1) 300 m (1000 ft), (2) 8 km

Question 12

For an airway in mountainous terrain, the approximate minimum clearance used for calculating MOCA is (1) ____ for elevations less than 5000 ft and (2) ____ for elevations greater than 5000 ft.

(1) 1500 ft, (2) 3000 ft
(1) 1000 ft, (2) 2000 ft
(1) 1500 ft, (2) 2000 ft
(1) 1000 ft, (2) 3000 ft

Answer 12

(1) 1500 ft, (2) 2000 ft

Question 13

According ICAO Doc 82168, in non-mountainous areas (e.g with terrain not higher than 3000 ft), the minimum permissible holding level provides a clearance of at least (1) ____ above obstacles in the holding area, and a clearance which ranges from 300 m at the edge of the holding area to a minimum of 60 m at the (2) ____ limit of the buffer area.

(1) 300 m, (2) 5 NM
(1) 300 m, (2) 10 NM
(1) 600 m, (2) 10 NM
(1) 600 m, (2) 5 NM

Answer 13

(1) 300 m, (2) 5 NM

Question 14

Altimeter temperature correction should be applied by the pilot during final approach, when the ambient temperature on the surface is much (1) ____ than ISA, and is (2) ____ minimum altitudes at fixes inside the Final Approach Fix (FAF).

(1) higher, (2) subtracted from
(1) lower, (2) added to
(1) lower, (2) subtracted from
(1) higher, (2) added to

Answer 14

(1) lower, (2) added to

Question 15

According to ICAO Doc 8168 Volume I FLIGHT PROCEDURES PART III, when an IFR flight is being vectored by radar, air traffic control (ATC) may assign minimum radar vectoring altitudes which…

• must be at least 1000 ft above minimum sector altitude.
• must be at the minimum sector altitude.
• may not be below the minimum sector altitude.
• may be below the minimum sector altitude.

Answer 15

• may be below the minimum sector altitude.

Question 16

The RNAV symbol in line C refers to a:

• Mileage break
• Fly-by waypoint
• Compulsory waypoint
• Fly-over waypoint

Question 17

The RNAV symbol in line B refers to a:

• Fly-over waypoint
• Non-compulsory waypoint
• Mileage break
• Compulsory waypoint

Question 18

The RNAV symbol in line D refers to a:

• Mileage break
• Fly-over waypoint
• Non-compulsory waypoint
• Compulsory waypoint

Answer 18

• Mileage break

Question 19

Unless on Standard Instrument Departure charts, routes usually indicate…

• True Course.
• Magnetic Heading.
• Magnetic Course.
• True Heading.

Answer 19

• Magnetic Course.

Question 20

With regard to RNAV and conventional STARs, which of the following statements is correct?

1. “RNAV STAR overlay” charts provide RNAV information to support flying a conventional STAR.
2. An “RNAV STAR” must NOT be flown with reference to conventional sources only.

• 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect
• 1 is incorrect, 2 is incorrect
• 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct
• 1 is correct, 2 is correct

Answer 20

• 1 is correct, 2 is correct

Question 21

With regard to RNAV and conventional SIDs, which of the following statements is correct?

1. A “RNAV STAR overlay” provides shortcuts compared to a STAR using ground-based navigational aids.
2. A “SID RNAV only” is limited to aircraft with approved RNAV equipment only.

• 1 is correct, 2 is correct
• 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct
• 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect
• 1 is incorrect, 2 is incorrect

Answer 21

• 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct

Question 22

A commercial aeroplane is capable for an Approach Climb Gradient (ACG) of 3.5%. Instrument approach procedures that may be selected include:

1. ILS-DME approach with required minimum ACG is 2.9%
2. VOR-DME approach minimum ACG required is 4.4%
3. LOC-DME approach with required minimum ACG required is 3.5%

• 1 and 2
• 1, 2 and 3
• 1 and 3.
• 2 and 3

Answer 22

• 1 and 3.

Question 23

The approach chart for an RNAV approach shows a decision height of 320 ft.

Type and category of this approach are:

• Type B, Category II
• Type A, Category I
• Type A, no category
• Type B, no category

Answer 23

• Type A, no category

Question 24

Type B approaches have a decision height of (1) ____ and (2) ____ .

• (1) more than 250 ft, (2) categories I, II or III
• (1) less than 250 ft, (2) categories I, II or III
• (1) more than 250 ft, (2) no category
• (1) less than 250 ft, (2) no category

Answer 24

• (1) less than 250 ft, (2) categories I, II or III

Question 25

Category and type of an ILS CAT I approach with decision height (DH) of 200 ft are: - Type A, 3D approach - Type A, 2D approach - Type B, 3D approach - Type B, 2D approach

Answer 25

- Type B, 3D approach

Question 26

A RNP Type B approach must be 3D and requires: 1. ILS 2. MLS 3. GBAS 4. SBAS 5. ABAS only - 1, 2 or 5 - 1, 3, 4 or 5 - 1, 2, 3 or 4 - 3, 4 or 5

Answer 26

- 1, 2, 3 or 4

Question 27

A LPV approach is... - a limited-precision approach based on ground-based facilities with vertical guidance. - an augmented GNSS approach based on localizer performance without vertical guidance. - an augmented GNSS approach based on localizer performance with vertical guidance. - a limited-precision approach based on ground-based facilities without vertical guidance.

Answer 27

- an augmented GNSS approach based on localizer performance with vertical guidance.

Question 28

An approach designated as "APV Baro" or "APV SBAS" is a (1) ____ down to minima published as (2) ____ . - (1) 2D approach, (2) LNAV/VNAV or LPV - (1) 3D approach, (2) LNAV/VNAV or LPV - (1) 2D approach, (2) LNAV or LP - (1) 3D approach, (2) MDH or DH

Answer 28

- (1) 3D approach, (2) LNAV/VNAV or LPV

Question 29

According ICAO Doc 9613 regarding approaches designated as "RNP AR APCH", the State AIP should clearly indicate that the navigation application is an RNP AR APCH procedure and that... - augmented reality features are required. - alternative routings are required. - specific authorization is required. - special equipment is required.

Answer 29

- specific authorization is required.

Question 30

In case of FMS inability to provide vertical guidance, a RNP approach may be flown... - as a precision approach with vertical guidance by on-board systems. - as a non-precision approach with vertical guidance by on-board systems. - as a precision approach without vertical guidance by on-board systems. - as a non-precision approach without vertical guidance by on-board systems.

Answer 30

- as a non-precision approach without vertical guidance by on-board systems.

Question 31

With regard to LPV approaches, the (1) ____ guidance is equivalent to localizer, and the protected area is considerably (2) ____ than the protected area for the present LNAV and LNAV/VNAV lateral protection. - (1) vertical, (2) smaller - (1) vertical, (2) larger - (1) lateral, (2) larger - (1) lateral, (2) smaller

Answer 31

- (1) lateral, (2) smaller

Question 32

Advantages of global navigation satellite system/flight management computer (GNSS/FMC) are in specific: 1. Automatic calculation and display of tracks and leg distances. 2. Time and fuel estimates over waypoints and the ability to adjust speed to arrive over a waypoint at a defined time. 1 is incorrect, 2 is incorrect 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct 1 is correct, 2 is correct 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect

Answer 32

1 is correct, 2 is correct

Question 33

Advantages of global navigation satellite system/flight management computer (GNSS/FMC) are in specific: 1. No further need for information from the Air Data Computer (ADC). 2. Capability to store and display additional aeronautical information, like minimum altitudes, approach procedures. 1 is correct, 2 is correct 1 is incorrect, 2 is incorrect 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect

Answer 33

1 is incorrect, 2 is correct

Question 34

Advantages of global navigation satellite system/flight management computer (GNSS/FMC) are in specific: 1. Capability for time and fuel revisions based on predicted and actual wind. 2. Disregarding limitations in uncontrolled airspaces under IFR. 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect 1 is correct, 2 is correct 1 is incorrect, 2 is incorrect 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct

Answer 34

1 is correct, 2 is incorrect

Question 35

Advantages of global navigation satellite system/flight management computer (GNSS/FMC) are in specific: 1. The can be used to check the estimated time of arrival (ETA) after speed changes in case of revised clearances to reach a waypoint at a specific time. 2. The provide information about time and fuel revisions based on predicted and actual wind. 1 is correct, 2 is correct 1 is incorrect, 2 is incorrect 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect

Answer 35

1 is correct, 2 is correct

Question 36

Limitations of using GNSS/FMC equipment include: 1. Effect of aircraft's non-standard configuration on flight management system (FMS) predictions (e.g. in case of gear down). 2. Inability to store and display additional aeronautical information, like minimum altitudes, approach procedures. 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct 1 is correct, 2 is correct 1 is incorrect, 2 is incorrect 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect

Answer 36

1 is correct, 2 is incorrect

Question 37

Limitations of using GNSS/FMC equipment include: 1. Inaccuracy and loss of precision by FMS navigation calculations. 2. Aircraft mass significantly differs from that which was input by the crew. 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct 1 is correct, 2 is correct 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect 1 is incorrect, 2 is incorrect

Answer 37

1 is incorrect, 2 is correct

Question 38

If the fuel density increases due to temperature change, with all other flight conditions remain unchanged, the fuel flow of a turbine engine given in kg/h will... - increase proportional to fuel density. - decrease with increasing temperature. - decrease with decreasing temperature. - not change.

Answer 38

- not change.

Question 39

"Trip Fuel" includes calculated fuel from/for: 1. Block position to holding point 2. Take-off to landing, including expected departure 3. End of the departure route to beginning of the arrival route, no departure and arrival 4. Climb, cruise (including any step climb) and descent 5. Arrival, approach and landing 6. Holding for 15 minutes at 1500 ft above destination aerodrome elevation 2, 4 and 5 2, 4, 5 and 6 1, 3, 4 and 5 1, 2, 4 and 5

Answer 39

2, 4 and 5

Question 40

When calculating: Take-off Fuel - Contingency Fuel - Alternate Fuel - Final Reserve Fuel - Extra Fuel The result is: Trip Fuel Dry Operating Mass Taxi Fuel Basic Empty Mass

Answer 40

Trip Fuel

Question 41

Comparing the Integrated Range and Average Fuel Flow procedures, the most correct statement is the... Integrated Range procedure is easier and faster when calculating required trip fuel. Integrated Range procedure is more accurate and reflects the different fuel flows during different phases of flight. Average Fuel Flow procedure allows accurate monitoring of fuel, especially for long range flights. Average Fuel Flow procedure is more accurate and reflects the fuel consumption during different phases of flight.

Answer 41

Integrated Range procedure is more accurate and reflects the different fuel flows during different phases of flight.

Question 42

"Contingency Fuel" should account for (1) ____ that could have an influence on the fuel consumption to the (2) ____ aerodrome. (1) all known predictable factors, (2) alternate (1) unforeseen or unpredicable factors, (2) alternate (1) unforeseen or unpredicable factors, (2) destination (1) all known predictable factors, (2) destination

Answer 42

(1) unforeseen or unpredicable factors, (2) destination

Question 43

With regard to CAT operations and the information given below, calculate the required Alternate Fuel: Fuel for missed approach at the destination: 200 kg Fuel for climb to cruise level: 550 kg Cruise fuel to alternate: 800 kg Descent fuel to alternate: 150 kg Fuel for approach and landing at alternate: 200 kg Holding fuel at alternate: 900 kg Fuel for a missed approach at alternate: 150 kg 1900 kg 1500 kg 2950 kg 2800 kg

Answer 43

1900 kg

Question 44

With regard to CAT operations and the information given below, calculate the Contingency Fuel: Trip Fuel: 2500 lb Taxi Fuel: 120 lb Alternate Fuel: 750 lb (En-route alternate NOT available) Fuel for 5 min at 1500 ft above destination: 100 lb Reserve Fuel: 720 lb 100 lb 225 lb 125 lb 75 lb

Answer 44

125 lb

Question 45

With regard to CAT operations and the information given below, calculate the required Alternate Fuel: Fuel for missed approach at the destination: 200 kg Fuel for climb to cruise level: 750 kg Cruise fuel flow: 1800 kg/hour Cruise flight time: 40 min Descent fuel to alternate: 120 kg Fuel for approach and landing at alternate: 200 kg Holding fuel at alternate: 900 kg Fuel for a missed approach at alternate: 200 kg 2470 kg 1200 kg 3570 kg 3070 kg

Answer 45

2470 kg

Question 46

The min. Final Reserve Fuel for a Turbojet should be fuel for... 15 min. holding at 1500 ft AMSL. 30 min. holding at 1500 ft above destination aerodrome elevation, when no alternate is required. 20 min. holding over the alternate airfield. 45 min. holding at 1500 ft above the destination aerodrome.

Answer 46

30 min. holding at 1500 ft above destination aerodrome elevation, when no alternate is required.

Question 47

For turbojet aeroplanes, what is the time required for final reserve fuel? 60 min 30 min 15 min 90 min

Answer 47

30 min

Question 48

An aircraft with reciprocating engines should have final reserve to fly for... 45 min. 30 min. 60 min. 90 min..

Answer 48

45 min.

Question 49

A turbine aeroplane diverts due to in-flight depressurisation to an enroute Alternate. Flight conditions are as forecast. The Min. Fuel quantity on arrival must be... fuel to fly at least for 30 min. fuel determined by the operator, specified in the Operations Manual. fuel to fly at least 45 min. fuel to fly to another aerodrome should weather conditions demand.

Answer 49

fuel to fly at least for 30 min.

Question 50

When using the "Decision Point Procedure"... reserve fuel can be reduced from 15 % down to 10 %. contingency fuel can be reduced by adding contingency only from the burnoff between decision point and destination. holding fuel can be reduced by 25 %. contingency fuel can be reduced by adding contingency only from the burnoff between the decision airport and destination.

Answer 50

contingency fuel can be reduced by adding contingency only from the burnoff between decision point and destination.

Question 51

If a "Decision Point Procedure" is applied for flight planning... the trip fuel to the destination aerodrome must be be calculated via the suitable enroute alternate. the trip fuel to the destination aerodrome must be calculated via the decision point. the base for the fuel calculation is the contingency fuel from departure aerodrome to the decision point. a destination alternate must not be determined.

Answer 51

the trip fuel to the destination aerodrome must be calculated via the decision point.

Question 52

With regard to "fuel tankering", which of the following statements is correct? 1. Fuel tankering should be considered when fuel price at destination is lower than at departure aerodrome. 2. Fuel tankering is considered suitable in case no fuel is available at destination aerodrome. 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect 1 is correct, 2 is correct 1 is incorrect, 2 is incorrect

Answer 52

1 is incorrect, 2 is correct

Question 53

With regard to "fuel tankering", which of the following statements is correct? 1. Fuel tankering should be considered when fuel price at destination is higher than at departure aerodrome. 2. Fuel tankering is considered suitable in case with a fuel price ratio (departure/destination) > 1. 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct 1 is correct, 2 is correct 1 is incorrect, 2 is incorrect

Answer 53

1 is correct, 2 is incorrect

Question 54

With regard to "fuel tankering", which of the following statements is correct? 1. Fuel tankering should be considered when fuel price at destination is higher than at departure aerodrome. 2. Fuel tankering is considered suitable in case weather conditions at destination aerodrome are below minima. 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect 1 is incorrect, 2 is incorrect 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct 1 is correct, 2 is correct

Answer 54

1 is correct, 2 is correct

Question 55

Information about short-term unserviceability of a VOR, TACAN, and NDB is provided in... AIP. NOTAM. TAF. ATCC broadcast.

Answer 55

NOTAM.

Question 56

Information about Search and Rescue (SAR) organisation and procedures can be found in... NOTAM. TAF. SAR broadcast. AIP.

Answer 56

AIP.

Question 57

A1470/10 NOTAMN Q)EGTT/QMRXX/IV/NBO/A/000/999/5129N00028W005 A)EGLL B)2111302000 C)2112010800 E)RWY09327L DUE WIP NO CENTERLINE LIGHTS AVBL The validity period of this NOTAM is: 20 hours 48 hours 12 hours 8 hours

Answer 57

12 hours