Flight Planning

Question 1

FP - What is the definition of the minimum decent alt/height?

Answer 1

A specified altitude or height in a non precision or circling approach below which descent may not be made without visual reference.

Question 2

FP - Conditional routes are categorised as?

Answer 2

• Cat 1 - Permanently used
• Cat 2 - Useable during designated times
• Cat 3 - May not be planned but used by ATC when directed

Question 3

FP - How are RNAV routes specified?

Answer 3

RNAV routes are specified by a number of waypoints designated as lat/long not VOR/NDB/DME

Question 4

FP - What are the 3 RNAV routes?

Answer 4

1. Fixed published routes useable by aircraft meeting RNP5
2. Contingency published routes that are useable by aircraft meeting RNP5 at specified times.
3. Random RNAV that allows aircraft to follow their own proffered route

Question 5

FP - The minimum safe sector altitude is?

Answer 5

Published on instrument approach charts gives the minimum altitude that provides a 1000ft vertical clearance from obstacle within 25nm of the Nav facility

Question 6

FP - What are the 6 basic requirements of IFR flight?

Answer 6

1. Choose an appropriate routing
2. Select cruising altitude in accordance with the rules
3. File a flight plan and obtain clearance
4. Obey minimum level rules in respect to terrain clearance and state regulations
5. Maintain two communication with selected frequency
6. Transmit position reports as required

Question 7

Approach Charts provide the necessary guidence information from?

Answer 7

Initial Approach Fix (IAF)

Question 8

What information appears in the heading section of an appoach chart?

Answer 8

• The Airport Name
• The category of the approach procedure (where applicable)
• The approach aid, - type, frequency, ident and runway survey
• Airport Elevation
• Minimum safe sector altitude along with the location of the centre of the area
• Communication and information frequencies
• Details of altitude information such as transition altitude and level, correction to QNH setting for threshold elevation

Question 9

What does this area denote?

Answer 9

Holding Pattern

Question 10

What does A1, A2, A3?

Answer 10

• A1 - Distance to Threshold
  
  • Shape = Final Approach Fix
• A2 - Missed Approach Point
  
  • The point before which a missed approach should be initiated in order to preserve the required obstacle clearance limits
• A3 - The threshold elevation

Question 11

What does this table denote?

Answer 11

OCLA and OCLH broken down in to the catagories of aircraft based on two different missed approach climb gradiants.

Question 12

The table below gives what details and facilities?

Answer 12

• Decision Altitudes in QNH
• Decision Heights in QFE
• Touch Down Zone Lighting
• Centre line Lighting
• Approach light system
• Circling to land altitude/height minima
• Rates of descent required at various ground speeds, in order to maintain the prescribed glide path.

Question 13

What is the effective limits of a LO chart? (2)

Question 14

HI Charts are normally how far above LO Charts?

Answer 14

500ft Above the boundary

Question 15

Unless otherwise shown on charts for standard instrument departure the routes are given with: (1)

Answer 15

Magnetic Course

Question 16

An airwasy is marked 5000 2900a. The notation 5000 is the: and 2900 is the?

Answer 16

MEA

Question 17

What does the * symbol meen when associated with an NDB?

Answer 17

Part Time Operation

Question 18

What does the ^D symbol meen when co-located with a VOR?

Answer 18

It means that the VOR is also a DME.

Question 19

Generally what speed restriction is enforced below FL010 if there is no ATC exeption?

Answer 19

250Kts IAS

Question 21

MAA on a chart means?

Question 22

What information is included in an Operational flight plan?

Answer 22

• Navigation Details
• Air Traffic Details
• Aircraft Mass and Fuel Details
• Alternate aerodrome details and routings
• FIR Boundaries
• Weather details - OAT and Wind