GA Flashcards

(32 cards)

1
Q

what are the two types of GA

A

inhalation and IV

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2
Q

what are the 3 components of a balanced anaesthesia

A

pain relief, unconsciousness, reflex inhibition

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3
Q

most commonly used components of balanced anaesthesia

A
  1. short acting barbiturates → induction of anaesthesia
  2. neuromuscular blocking agents → for muscle relaxation
  3. opioids/NO → for analgesia
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4
Q

how does blood solubility affect onset of inhalant GA

A

higher the blood solubility, slower onset → GA needs to reach brain from lungs

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5
Q

examples of inhalant GA

A

volatile liquids - halothane, _____flurane
gases - NO

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6
Q

what is the index used for inhalation anaesthetic potency

A

MAC - minimum alveolar concentration

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7
Q

what does the MAC value indicate

A

lower MAC → higher potency
(less of it is required to induce effects of GA)

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8
Q

what factors increases the rate of absorption of GA

A
  1. concentration of anaesthetic in inspired air
  2. solubility of GA
  3. blood flow through lungs
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9
Q

what affects the distribution of GA

A

regional blood flow → organs that are highly perfused also receives the most GA (but also gets rid of GA the fastest due to the high perfusion rate)

eg of such organs: brain, liver, lungs and heart

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10
Q

how are GA eliminated

A

expired breath

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11
Q

what are the 2 advantages of having inhaled + IV anaesthetics

A
  1. permits dosage of inhalation agent to be reduced
  2. produce effects that cannot be achieved with an inhaled GA alone
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12
Q

characteristics of halothane

A

→ provides little to no analgesia
→ decreases BP due to depression of CO
→ bradycardia and arrhythmia may also occur
→ may also lead to halothane associated hepatitis

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13
Q

characteristics of isoflurane

A

potent (MAC 1.4%)
decreases BP due to decreased in systemic vascular resistance

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14
Q

characteristics of sevoflurane

A

→ more rapid rate of onset and recovery
→ metabolised in liver (nephrotoxic)

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15
Q

characteristics of NO

A

non flammable
alone → gives analgesia and amnesia but not complete unconsciousness (used as an analgesic agent)
used to supplement analgesic effects of primary anaesthetic

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16
Q

which is the only inhalant anaesthetics not compatible with epinephrine

17
Q

examples of barbiturate

18
Q

characteristics of thiopentone

A

→ rapid onset of action in brain
→ slow elimination as it goes to peripheral organs quickly

19
Q

MOA of thiopentone

A

causes CNS depression

20
Q

characteristics of propofol

A

→ rapid onset & recovery
→ needs continuous, low dose infusion for extended effects
→ significant cardiovascular effects during induction → hypotension!

21
Q

on whom must propofol be used with caution

A

patients who are:
elderly
with compromised cardiac function
hypovolemic

22
Q

which analgesic produces a state known as dissociative anaesthesia

23
Q

characteristics of ketamine

A

→ rapid clearance (suitable for continuous infusion)
→ risk of psychologic adverse reactions (can be reduced with diazepam beforehand)
→ only IV anaesthetic with analgesic properties!

24
Q

examples of anaesthetics adjuncts

A

benzodiazepines (midazolam)
adrenergic agonists (dexmedetomidine)
analgesics (NSAIDS)
neuromuscular blocking agents (succinylcholine, vecuronium)

25
why and when is bzdps used
anxiolysis prior to induction of anaesthesia or used for sedation during procedures not requiring GA
26
where is bzdps metabolised and who must be used with caution on
liver, elderly → due to slower recovery
27
characteristics of alpha 2 adrenergics
short term sedation causes little respiratory depression
28
side effects of adrenergics
nausea, dry mouth, hypotension
29
when are analgesics (NSAIDS and opioids) used
NSAIDS - for minor surgical procedures opioids - perioperative periods
30
where are analgesics metabolised
liver
31
when and where are neuromuscular blockers administered
during induction of anaesthesia → relax muscles of jaw, neck, airway
32
what will precipitate with neuromuscular blockers
barbiturates